Chapter 4 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 5 components included in the project plan?

A
  • Requirement phase,
  • draft requirements,
  • final requirements,
  • WBS, and
    -other activities.
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2
Q

How are activities developed in a project plan?

From L-C S and D

A

Activities are developed from life cycle stages and deliverables.

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3
Q

What is the purpose of listing activities in a sequential order?

A

To show work tasks and how they must be accomplished.

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4
Q

Define ‘Contingency activities’ in project management.

A to M O for on-time C

A

Activities to mitigate obstacles for on-time completion.

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5
Q

Explain ‘Finish to start’ dependency in project management.

A

One task must finish before the next one can start.

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6
Q

How can the duration of a contingency event be calculated?

A

Duration of Contingency Activity x Probability of Occurrence.

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7
Q

What is the role of a Change Review Board (CRB) in projects?

A

Acts as a clearinghouse for project changes.

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8
Q

Why is it important to record everything in writing during project management?

A

For documentation, clarity, and accountability purposes.

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9
Q

What roles should be represented in a Project Team?

A

At least one from each functional area.

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10
Q

Why is it necessary to issue frequent status updates for stakeholders and management?

A

To keep them informed and engaged in the project progress.

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11
Q

What is a Commissioning Plan?

A

Details how the system is installed, upgraded, and commissioned.

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12
Q

When does commissioning occur in projects?

A

During new projects and upgrade projects.

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13
Q

What is the purpose of Standards Compliance Testing (SCT) in commissioning?

A

To ensure organizational and government standards are met.

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14
Q

What are the four main ways to test a system?

A

Pre-Delivery Test,
Site Acceptance Test,
Operational Reliability Test,
Post-Implementation Test.

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15
Q

What is the ideal system availability percentage?

A

System availability of 99.99%.

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16
Q

How is operational availability (OA) calculated?

A

Tm/(Tm + Td) x 100 = OA, where Tm = Total Test Duration Time, Td = Total System Downtime.

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17
Q

What is the duration of a typical warranty period?

A

12 to 24 months, typically 12 months from final implementation.

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18
Q

What should a warranty include for hardware or software failures?

A

Repair, correction, or replacement of failed components.

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19
Q

What should vendor’s warranty include related to replacement parts?

A

Vendor should keep 5% of system cost as replacement parts.

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20
Q

What is expected in terms of service response times during the warranty period?

A

Service response times of four hours or less.

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21
Q

What key documents are produced in the planning stage of a project?

A

Critical business case documents.

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22
Q

What is the basis for approving a business case?

A

Return on Investment (ROI).

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23
Q

What does the Return on Investment (ROI) calculation determine?

A

Amount of revenue generated or potential loss reductions.

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24
Q

What types of assets are identified during the assessment stage?

CA and
SA

A

Critical assets and supportive assets.

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25
Q

What tool can aid in assessing vulnerabilities in an organization?

A

Vulnerability Self-Assessment Tool (VSAT).

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26
Q

What are three aspects of risk that need to be considered during planning?

RT
P of O AND
L P

A

Risk type,
probability of occurrence, and
loss potential.

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27
Q

What are two objectives of the requirements document during the planning phase?

A

Identify reasons for security measures, and
identify critical success factors, and more.

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28
Q

What are the three Phase One Planning deliverables for a project?

R A report
PM
BE

A

• R A→ Risk assessment report
• P M → Procurement method
• B E → Budgetary estimates

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29
Q

What does the Design and Estimating phase involve in a project?

A

Documenting processes to support procurement of equipment and services.

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30
Q

Why is considering the design of an integrated system important?

A

To effectively defend against threats, vulnerabilities, and potential losses.

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31
Q

What 7 steps should an organization follow to promote order and efficiency at a bidder’s conference?

PA
IG
MP with O
DPP
CST
Q and A and
PM

A

Present agenda,
identify guidelines,
match project with objectives,
discuss procurement process,
conduct site tour,
Q&A session, and
present minutes.

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32
Q

What four criteria should be evaluated when analyzing potential bidders?

A

Compare against main features,
review technological assets,
assess life cycle cost, and
evaluate strengths based on competency criteria.

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33
Q

What 11 questions should be asked when analyzing a bidder’s proposal?

PO
F and Q
C, D and M
MA, CR and SOP I,
CF, P-I support.

A

project objectives,
feasibility and qualifications,
capabilities, deliverables, and milestones,
manpower allocation, cost reduction, and SOP inclusion,
cultural fit, post-implementation support.

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34
Q

What 8 quality assurance factors should be considered when selecting a vendor?

EQ co and pa av
Na ac and Cer
Te, Cu and Ca and
ES and P of T

A

Equipment condition and parts availability
national accreditation and certifications
technology currency and capabilities
Emergency service and proximity of technicians

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35
Q

What 6 things should an organization consider to determine the issuance of a contract when selecting vendors?

A

Consider life cycle cost,
integrator’s financial stability,
past references,
vendor shortlist reduction,
finalist interviews, and
minor deficiency mitigation.

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36
Q

What are the 4 objectives of the procurement phase in a project cycle?

BC
T and C Ev
R, I and DD results
Co Iss

A

• BC → Bidders conference (Holding a bidders conference)
• T and C Ev → Technical and cost evaluations (Conducting technical and cost evaluations)
• R, I and DD results → Reviewing, interviewing, and due diligence results
• Co Iss → Contract issuance (Issuing a contract)

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37
Q

What are the 3 core elements of a Physical Protection System (PPS)?

AE
OE
SSE

A

Architectural elements,
operational elements,
security system elements (technology).

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38
Q

What are the three types of measures in PPS?

A

Preventative measures,
corrective measures, and
detective measures.

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39
Q

What are the five steps in ensuring a properly installed PPS?

A and P
C a CD
C C D
B and N
In and Te

A

Assess and plan,
create a conceptual design,
complete construction documentation,
build and negotiate,
install and test.

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40
Q

What are the six phases in the PPS life cycle?

Pl
D and E
P
In/op//tr
Co/wa and
Ma/ev/rep

A
  1. Planning,
  2. design and estimation,
  3. procurement,
  4. installation/operation/training,
  5. commissioning/warranty,
  6. maintenance/evaluation/replacement.
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41
Q

Why is flexibility important in a PPS?

A

Adversarial tactics and threats often change, requiring adaptations in the system design.

42
Q

What should be considered for disk space requirements in a video surveillance system?

A

Should be based on system parameters with 50% additional storage over original design.

43
Q

Why is it important to update documentation when operational procedures are revised?

A

To reflect the revision date and ensure information accuracy.

44
Q

What topics (4) should be covered in a training program for physical protection systems?

S A
A A
I R
IT F and……more

A

System administration,
alarm assessment,
incident response,
IT functions, and
more.

45
Q

What could happen if personnel dealing with new technology in systems are poorly trained?

A

Increased costs,
Loss of benefits from technology, and
potential danger.

46
Q

Why should training instructors for physical protection systems have certifications and credentials?

A

To ensure proper knowledge and expertise in training personnel.

47
Q

What are some (5) examples of issues that may arise with a training program?

Lo
Co
Qu of St
Sc and
Pe In

A

• Lo for Location
• C o for Cost
• Qu of St - for Quality of Staff
• Sch - Scheduling
• Pe In - Personnel Involved

48
Q

What 4 documents should be obtained from a training phase for physical protection systems?

TM
L P
Ev
Sch, and more.

A

Training materials,
lesson plans,
evaluations,
schedules, and
more.

49
Q

What is the process of ensuring system compliance with operational requirements?

C of the system through
De
In
Te and
Op

A

Commissioning of the system through
design,
installation,
testing, and
operation.

50
Q

What are some obstacles (3) that can hinder project activities?

E T
P B and
L of M

A

Employee turnover,
procurement bottlenecks,
Lack of materials, etc.

51
Q

What are the 3 key pieces of information included in a formal change control process?

A

Date requested,
Change Request number, and
Who requested the change, etc.

52
Q

In what 2 ways can project managers prevent management from losing interest in a project?

A
  • Revalidating sponsorship and
  • improving communication of successes.
53
Q

What steps can be taken to improve enthusiasm among team members?

A

Reinforce project objectives,
assess leadership style, and
observe team dynamics, etc.

54
Q

What are the advantages - 4 - of using the project management process?

A

Efficient and provides improved:
communication,
planning,
estimates, and
control.

55
Q

Why is it important to avoid the ‘99 percent completion syndrome’ in project management?

A

A project should not be closed until 100 percent completion.

56
Q

What is the final step in the project management process after project closure?

A

Disbanding the project team.

57
Q

What are the four main types of bonds in a construction project?

A

1) Bid bonds, 2) Payment bonds, 3) Performance bonds, 4) Ancillary bonds.

58
Q

What do bid bonds guarantee in a construction project?

A

A bid bond is a legal agreement that guarantees a contractor will fulfill their obligations on a project.

59
Q

What do payment bonds provide during a project?

A

Payment guarantee to suppliers of goods or services.

60
Q

What do performance bonds guarantee in a construction project?

A

Contractor’s completion of project requirements within terms and timelines.

61
Q

What do ancillary bonds support in a construction project?

A

Tasks/items within performance requirements not covered by performance bonding.

62
Q

What should an initial budget be within if the estimator is experienced?

A

10 percent of final bid prices.

63
Q

What is the purpose of budgetary estimates in PPS implementation?

A

To include a 10 percent to 20 percent contingency.

64
Q

What is the estimated percentage of total project cost for installation in PPS projects?

A

40 percent to 50 percent.

65
Q

What are the major types of procurement methods in the PPS cycle?

A

Request for Proposal (RFP), Invitation for Bids (IFB), Sole Sourcing (SS).

66
Q

Who provides specific requirements in the Request for Proposal (RFP) process?

A

The customer, not the vendor.

67
Q

What elements should be included in bid package procedures?

A

Operating and response procedures.

68
Q

What are the design criteria for physical protection systems?

Ass and Bu
Co, Ca, Cu,
Fe, im, L-c C
Ma, Mo Op
Pe, Qu, Qu
Re Pr and
Sp Fe

A

Assessment and Budget, Codes, capacity, culture, features, image, life-cycle costs, maintenance, monitoring, operations, performance, quality, quantity, response procedures, special features.

69
Q

What 4 documents are included in the bid package during the design phase?

A

Bidders Instructions,
Design Specifications,
Drawings and Schedules, and
Hardware Schedules.

70
Q

What 3 aspects should a successful design of a physical protection system incorporate?

AA
SS and
OA

A

Architectural aspects,
security systems, and
operational aspects.

71
Q

What are some examples of documents that professionals should submit as part of their bid package for security design?

PD
E D
D D
R D and
H S

A

Plan drawings,
elevation drawings,
detail drawings,
riser diagrams, and
hardware schedules.

72
Q

What should be considered when designing operating procedures?

Ass
R P
P
C
and
R

A

Assessment,
response procedures,
prevention,
control, and
recovery.

73
Q

What are the three elements in a model specification for security system design?

G
P
E

A

General, Product, Execution.

74
Q

What is a Surety Bond in the context of security system design?

A

A three-party instrument providing coverage for failure to live up to contractual agreements.

75
Q

What are the 6 deliverables from the maintenance, evaluation, and replacement phase?

TG
MP
R, U, OC and
R S

A

Troubleshooting Guides,
Maintenance Procedures,
Records, Upgrades, Operating Costs, and
Replacement Studies

76
Q

What are the two main types of system maintenance mentioned?

A

Preventative Maintenance and Remedial Maintenance

77
Q

What should the organization never have to pay for in terms of maintenance contracts?

A

The first year of equipment service or when any component is still under warranty

78
Q

What should the single-maintainer philosophy aim to prevent?

A

Avoiding multiple vendors blaming each other over encountered issues

79
Q

What are 7 considerations for deciding to replace a system mentioned in the notes?

Br and H M C,
St and Se Un,
R R and N T, and
L-C C A

A

Breakdowns and high maintenance costs,
standardization and service unavailability,
regulatory requirements and new technologies, and
life cycle cost analysis

80
Q

What does a project entail based on the notes provided?

A TP with a UP, EGs, Re and a QRA

A

A temporary process with a unique purpose, explicit goal, resources, and a qualified risk analysis

81
Q

What 4 activities are involved in Phase Four of the installation process?

SP
S and Su I,
S A and
S C

A

Site preparation,
system and subsystem installation,
system acceptance, and
system commissioning.

82
Q

What is the purpose of training during the installation phase?

A

To train everyone involved in operating or maintaining the system.

83
Q

What responsibilities does the installer have regarding false alarms?

A

To ensure false alarms and their causes are minimized.

84
Q

What 4 criteria must the installer consider for security system installation?

A

Conduit installation,
wiring terminations,
battery backup, and
line supervision, etc.

85
Q

What should be the minimum battery backup duration for security systems?

A

Four hours.

86
Q

What is the maximum time delay for accessing intrusion detection system keypads?

A

15 seconds to disarm, 240 seconds maximum for entry.

87
Q

What are the three elements essential for successful project management?

Pirates chart courses

A

Think of a pirate navigating the seas—they must Plan their route, Coordinate with their crew, and Control the ship to reach their treasure (or avoid danger).

88
Q

What are the constraints a project manager must balance?

A

Scope, Cost, Schedule.

89
Q

What 3 key skills should a project manager possess?

GM,
L and
TB

A

General management,
Leadership, and
Team building.

90
Q

Why are weekly status meetings for the project team essential?

A

To discuss progress, status, and future goals.

91
Q

What 5 things does the Project Scope Document include?

ES
O
S
C and
R

A

Executive summary,
Objectives,
Scope,
Costs, and
Risks.

92
Q

What are the four basic stages of a project?

A

Feasibility,
Development,
Execution, and
Closeout.

93
Q

What tools does a project manager use according to the notes?

T,
S,
D

A

Training, Software, Determination.

94
Q

What is the importance of documenting during meetings?

A

To ensure discussed points are captured.

95
Q

What is the significance of a ‘Lessons Learned Report’?

A

To document issues and improvements for future projects.

96
Q

What is the correlation between project stages and lifecycle phases shown in a figure?

A

Feasibility matches Planning, Development matches Design and Estimating.

97
Q

What is the primary difference between sole source procurement and IFB procurement?

A

Sole source uses only one vendor, while IFB seeks the lowest price from multiple vendors.

98
Q

What 5 criteria are considered when selecting qualified vendors for bidding on a project?

A

Licensing requirements,
financial stability,
necessary personnel,
service history, and
relationships with manufacturers.

99
Q

What is the purpose of a Request for Information (RFI) in the procurement process?

A

To gather information on the capabilities of prospective bidders and prequalify them.

100
Q

How can an organization facilitate (3 ways) a fair evaluation of vendor proposals?

A

By using predetermined criteria,
assigning weights, and
establishing a balanced evaluation method.

101
Q

What role does a bidder’s conference play in the procurement process?

A

To present potential bidders with installation problems and organization’s objectives.