stuff to memorise from microbio Flashcards

1
Q

stain for mycobacteria

A

ziehl-neelson stain for acid fast bacteria (red on blue background)

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2
Q

CIAS mnemonic

A
fix to slide
apply crystal violet stain
apply iodine to form complex
acetone or ethanol to decolourise
apply counterstain safranin
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3
Q

main tests for viruses

A

polymerase chain reaction
nucleic acid amplification test
serology

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4
Q

immunoglobin presence in viruses

A

IgM within 1 week

IgG later - chronic

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5
Q

4 types of viral infection

A

direct destruction
modification
over-reactivity
cell-proliferation

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6
Q

name for interval between infection and appearance of worm eggs

A

latent period

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7
Q

define: pathogen, opportunistic pathogen, commensal, virulence

A

org cause disease
org cause disease if immunocomp
org that colonises but doesnt cause disease
degree of pathogenicity

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8
Q

glycoprotein in HIV

A

gp120

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9
Q

protein capsid HIV

A

p24

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10
Q

how does HIV produce its own viral DNA

A

using reverse transcriptase

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11
Q

how frequently do bacteria divide

A

30-60 mins

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12
Q

type of bacteria - haemophilus influenzae

A

gram neg cocco-bacillus, short pink rod

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13
Q

mechanism of action and example of glycopeptides

A

inhib cell wall synth

eg. vancomycin

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14
Q

mechanism of action and example for each of the 3 branches of beta lactams

A

inhib cell wall synth
penicillins eg. benzylpenicillin, amoxicillin
cephalosporins eg cefotaxime, ceftriaxone
carbapenems eg. imipenem, estapenem

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15
Q

mechanism of action and example of macrolides

A

inhib protein synth
eg. clarithromycin, erythromycin
(can be used instead of penicillins)

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16
Q

mechanism of action and example of tetracyclines

A

inhib protein synth

eg. doxcycyline

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17
Q

mechanism of action and example of aminoglycosides

A

inhib protein synth

eg. gentamicin, streptomycin

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18
Q

mechanism of action of trimethoprim

A

inhibit folate synthesis (bad in 1st trimester)

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19
Q

mechanism of action of ciprofloxacin

A

inhibit dna gyrase

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20
Q

mechanism of action of rifampicin

A

bind to RNA polymerase

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21
Q

mechanism of action of metronidazole

A

dna strand breaks

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22
Q

define broad spec antib, examples and risk

A

empirical treatment before causitive agent is identified but bacteria is suspected
eg. ampicillin, tetracycline, ciprofloxacin
may disrupt microbiome

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23
Q

define narrow spectrum antib

A

only effective against specific group of bacteria

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24
Q

suggest times to hand wash

A
before contact with patient
before aseptic procedure
after contact with patients surroundings
after patient contact
after bodily fluid contact
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25
Q

how does bacterial resistance occur

A

plasmid mediated gene transfer
spontaneous gene mutation
broad spec antibiotic overuse = resistance in gut microbiome

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26
Q

gram posi, clusters, posi coagulase test - bacteria name and its causes + treatment

A

staphylococcus aureus

endocarditis, cellulitis, toxic shock
lives in nasal passages
treat: flucloxacillin, co-amoxiclav, macrolides

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27
Q

bacteria type and identification for MRSA

A

gram posi staphylococcus clusters, posi coagulase test

28
Q

staph aureus = describe bacteria shape/stain and any + or - tests

A

gram posi cocci clusters, posi coagulase test

29
Q

salmonella = describe bacteria shape/stain and any + or - tests

A

gram neg bacilli, non-lactose fermenting, negative oxidase test (further test on XLD)

30
Q

staph epidermidis = describe bacteria shape/stain and any + or - tests

A

gram pos cocci clusters, neg coagulase test

31
Q

group A strep pyogenes = describe bacteria shape/stain and any + or - tests

A

gram pos cocci chains, beta haemolytic (full lysis)

32
Q

test to differentiate staph bacteria

A

coagulase

33
Q

test to differentiate non lactose fermenting gram neg bacteria

A

test for cytochrome oxidase

34
Q

agar used to differentiate lactose fermenting and non lactose fermenting

A

MacConkey agar

35
Q

agar used to differentiate different haemolytic strep

A

blood agar

36
Q

agar used to further differentiate salmonella and shigella

A

xylose lysine deoxycholate (XLD) agar

37
Q

Escherichia coli = describe bacteria shape/stain and any + or - tests

A

gram neg bacilli, lactose fermenting

38
Q

Viridans strep = describe bacteria shape/stain and any + or - tests

A

gram posi cocci chains, alpha haemolytic (partial lysis), optochin resistant

39
Q

pseudonomas = describe bacteria shape/stain and any + or - tests

A

gram neg bacilli, non lactose fermenting, posi oxidase test

40
Q

klebsiella = describe bacteria shape/stain and any + or - tests

A

gram neg bacilli, lactose fermenting

41
Q

MRSA = describe bacteria shape/stain and any + or - tests

A

gram posi cocci clusters, posi coagulase test

42
Q

staph saphrophiticus = describe bacteria shape/stain and any + or - tests

A

gram posi cocci clusters, neg coagulase test

43
Q

shigella = describe bacteria shape/stain and any + or - tests

A

gram neg bacilli, non lactose fermenting, neg oxidase test (further test on XLD)

44
Q

proteus = describe bacteria shape/stain and any + or - tests

A

gram neg bacilli, non lactose fermenting, neg oxidase test

45
Q

lancefield A B C G = describe bacteria shape/stain and any + or - tests

A

gram pos cocci chains, beta haemolytic (full lysis)

46
Q

lancefield D = describe bacteria shape/stain and any + or - tests

A

gram pos cocci chains, gamma haemolytic (no lysis)

47
Q

neisseria = describe bacteria shape/stain and any + or - tests

A

gram neg cocci

48
Q

haemophilia influenzae = describe bacteria shape/stain and any + or - tests

A

gram neg bacilli or coccobacilli

49
Q

antibiotic for patient with penicillin allergy

A

clarithromycin

erythromycin

50
Q

which antib not used during 1st trimester

A

trimethropin

51
Q

why can’t viruses be cultured

A

only reproduce in live cells/dependent on host cell

52
Q

which type of bacteria is TB

A

mycobacteria

53
Q

bacteria causing endocarditis in IV drug users

A
staph aureus
epididymis
pseudomonas
candida
(bacteria settles on heart valves)
54
Q

most common bacteria causing endocarditis in non-drug patient

A
viridans strep (dental treatment)
enterococci
55
Q

clinical signs of endocarditis

A

bruising, splinter haemorrhages, splenomegaly, small emboli lodging elsewhere

56
Q

treat endocarditis

A

vancomycin
flucloxacillin
gentamicin

57
Q

enteric bacteria:

  • food related
  • antib related
  • infection related
A
  • salmonella, campylobacter, ecoli, clostridium perfringens
  • clostridium difficile
  • shigella
58
Q

most common cause encephalitis

A

herpes simplex virus

59
Q
cause of meningitis in:
newborn
infants
young adults
elderly
A
  • escherichia coli, group B strep, listeria monocytogenes
  • neisseria meningitidis, h. influenzae, strep pneumoniae
  • neisseria men
  • strep pneumoniae, neisseria men, listeria monocytogenes
60
Q

location for LP

A

L3-L4

61
Q

CSF appearance in bacterial meningitis

A

cloudy, neutrophils, low gluc, high protein

62
Q

CSF appearance in viral meningitis

A

clear, lymphocytes, normal gluc, normal or slightly raised protein

63
Q

risk factors for necrotic tissue, ulcers

A

DM, bed ridden, peripheral vasc disease

64
Q

impetigo bacteria

A

staph aureus, strep pyogenes

65
Q

folliculitis bacteria

A

staph aureus, ecoli in anal area

66
Q

cellulitis area and bacteria

A

legs, strep pyogenes, IV drug users