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phase 2a pain > random associated disorders and meds to memorise > Flashcards

random associated disorders and meds to memorise Flashcards

1
Q

ulcerative colitis - assoc condition and 1st line med

A

primary sclerosing cholangitis

5-aminosalicylate eg. mesalazine !
enema or suppositories if very distal

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2
Q

high ICP treat

A

iv mannitol - extra and subdural haemorrhages

craniectomy clot evacuation

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3
Q

myasthenia gravis assoc condition

A

thymoma

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4
Q

subarachnoid haemorrhage assoc condition

A

polycystic kidneys
ruptured berry aneurysm
sickle cell
symptoms of meningitis but no fever

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5
Q

treat migraine

A

sumatriptan

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6
Q

drug that causes anaphylaxis

A

flucloxacillin

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7
Q

guillian barre syndrome has huge risk of? avoid by?

A

PE - so give LMWH

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8
Q

papilledema assoc with…

A

increased ICP

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9
Q

frontal seizure

A

jacksonian march, post ictal todds paralysis

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10
Q

temporal seizure

A

lipsmacking, chewing, fiddling

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11
Q

primary pulmonary HPN med

A

IV Prostanoids (expand blood vessels)

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12
Q

CF common infection and prophylactic treatment?

A

pneumonia =
pseudomonas
staph aureus

treat - flucloxacillin

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13
Q

virus that causes bronchiolitis

A

respiratory syncytial virus

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14
Q

diabetes MI

A

no chest pain but other symptoms eg. nausea, sweating, SOB

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15
Q

meds for depression

A

selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (least SA) - citalopram
tricyclic antidepressants (most SA) block reuptake of serotonin AND norepinephrine
serotonin noradrenaline reuptake inhib (middle SA)
CBT
IPT

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16
Q

which contraception when post preg?

A

lactational amenorrhea method

implant (iud, ius) within 48hrs or 4 weeks later
progest only pill

if not breastfeed = combined pill, vaginal ring, contracep patch (risk of blood clots, contain oestrogen which is bad when breastfeeding)

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17
Q

side effects of opioids

A

sleep apnoea, addiction, nausea/vom, constipation, sedation, ineffective ventilation

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18
Q

coeliacs assoc

A 
Type 1 Diabetes
Thyroid disease
Autoimmune hepatitis
Primary biliary cirrhosis
Primary sclerosing cholangitis
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19
Q

Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia treatment

A

Ibrutinib, rituximab

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20
Q

chronic myeloid leukaemia treatment

A

Imatinib

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21
Q

hemolytic anemia G6PD-deficiency can develop following…

A

eating fava beans

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22
Q

combination treatment for hodgkins lymphoma

A

ABVD chemo

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23
Q

combination treatment for non- hodgkins lymphoma

A

CHOP chemo

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24
Q

TIA treat to prevent stroke

A

2 weeks of 300mg aspirin

then 75mg clopidogrel daily

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25
Q

treat subarachnoid haemorrhage

A

nimodipine for 3 weeks

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26
Q

what to take with TB drugs to prevent peripheral neuropathy

A

pyridoxine (vit B6)

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27
Q

FBC RA results

A

normochromic normocytic anaemia

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28
Q

pain management for RA

A

NSAIDs, COX inhib, corticosteroids

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29
Q

gold standard for RA (se and taken with?) also used for PA

A

DMARDs - disease modifying anti-rheumatic drugs

gold = methotrexate
taken with folic acid on diff day

SE- pul fibrosis, teratogenic (abnormal foetal development)

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30
Q

biological therapies for RA and PA

A

anti-tnf: adalimunab, infliximab

anti-CD20 - rituximab

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31
Q

acute attack of gout meds

A

1- nsaids
2- colchicine
3- coticosteroids

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32
Q

prophylaxis for gout

A

allopurinol - xanthine oxidase inhibitor (start 1 month after acute attack)

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33
Q

xray appearance diagnostic for pseudogout

A

Chondrocalcinosis

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34
Q

treat osteoporosis (se and function)

A

Bisphosphonates - alendronic acid
Decrease osteoclast activity
Side effects = reflux and oesophageal erosions

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35
Q

xray appearance of ankylosing spondylitis

A

bamboo spine

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36
Q

xray appearance for psoriatic arthritis

A

erosive changes = pencil in cup deformity

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37
Q

empirical treatment for septic arthritis

A

IV flucloxacillin + Rifampicin

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38
Q

SLE assoc conditions

A

Antiphospholipid syndrome (causes increased risk of clots)
Reynaud’s phenomenon
Recurrent miscarriages
Coagulation defects

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39
Q

first line med SLE

A

Hydroxychloroquine

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40
Q

bone cancer name, age, bone for xray showing onion skin appearance

A

ewings sarcoma
<30
pelvis/femur

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41
Q

bone cancer name, age for xray showing skull/spine tumour

A

Chordoma

>50

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42
Q

bone cancer name, age, bone for xray showing sunray spiculations

A

osteosarcoma
10-25
knee

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43
Q

bone cancer name, age, bone for xray showing popcorn calcifications

A

chondrosarcoma
>50
pelvis

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44
Q

copper chelation meds

A

penicillamine

trientine

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45
Q

A1AD assoc conditions

A

bronchiectasis
emphysema
liver cirrhosis

46
Q

acute MS treatment

A

methylprednisolone

47
Q

treatment for MND

A

Antiglutametergic drugs eg riluzole

48
Q

treament for longterm MS

A

DMARDS eg. beta interferon

49
Q

treat spasticity

A

baclofen

50
Q

treat chorea in huntingtons

A

benzodiazepines

51
Q

treat parkinsons

A

Co-careldopa/levodopa

52
Q

treat giant cell arteritis

A

IV prednisolone immediately to prevent sight loss

53
Q

giant cell arteritis assoc condition

A

polymyalgia rheumatica

54
Q

osteoporosis prophylaxis

A

bisphosphonates

55
Q

gastric ulcer protection

A

PPI - omeprazole

56
Q

treat trigeminal neuralgia

A

carbamazepine (not analgesics !!)

57
Q

treat cluster headache and prevention?

A

100% o2, SC sumitriptan

prevent - verapamil (Ca2+ channel blocker)

58
Q

treat migraine and prevent?

A

sumaptriptan

prevent with beta blocker eg. propranolol

59
Q

treat epileptic fit after 3 min seizure

A

IV diazepam

IV phenytoin if still fitting after

60
Q

primary generalised anti-epileptic

A

sodium valproate

61
Q

partial seizure anti-epileptic

A

carbamazepine

62
Q

status epilepticus treat

A

2 doses of a benzodiazepine eg lorazepam. Then anti-epileptic drugs eg IV valproate

63
Q

main cause of temporal lobe epilepsy

A

hippocampal sclerosis

64
Q

1st line immediate management for stroke

if CI or after time frame?

A

thrombolysis given within 4.5hrs of onset

if not then thrombectomy

65
Q

MND overlaps with which condition

A

frontotemporal dementia

66
Q

what makes MND diff from MS and MG

A

no sensory loss

no affected eye movements

67
Q

raised ICP may lead to…

A

coning so LP contraindicated

68
Q

treat viral meningitis or encephalitis

A

aciclovir

69
Q

treat bacterial meningitis

A

In community – urgent injection of benzylpenicillin + transfer to hospital
In hospital – treat empirically immediately - IV ceftriaxone

70
Q

test for carpal tunnel

A

phalens test

71
Q

treat meningitis

A

IV cefotaxime

72
Q

drug given to close contacts of meningitis

A

oral ciprofloxacin

73
Q

induce remission in crohns

maintain remission crohns

A

prednisolone
+ DMARDS eg. azathoprine

azathioprine
2nd methotrexate

74
Q

treat diarrhoea in IBS

A

loperamide

75
Q

1st, 2nd line treat GORD

A

omeprazole

H2 receptor antagonist eg. ranitidine

76
Q

treat barrets oesophagus

A

PPI
Endoscopic ablation with photodynamic therapy, laser therapy or cryotherapy
Surgical resection

77
Q

causes of peptic ulcers

A

nsaids, helicobacter pylori, increased acid production as a result of caffeine, alcohol, spicy food

78
Q

triple therapy for H.pylori

A

omeprazole
amoxicillin
clarithromycin

79
Q

3 tests for h.pylori

A

urea breath test
stool antigen test
rapid urease test

80
Q

treat diverticulitis

A

iv co-amoxiclav

81
Q

cause of small bowel obstructions

A

adhesions, hernias

82
Q

cause of large bowel obstruction

A

malignancy, volvulus, intussusception

83
Q

treat anal fistula

A

Surgical : fistulotomy & excision

Drain abscess + Abx if infection

84
Q

treat anal fissure

A

Lifestyle : increased fibre and fluids
Simple analgesia
GTN (glyceryl trinitrate) ointment if symptoms don’t improve

85
Q

treat haemorrhoids

A

1st line -> Topical creams
2nd line -> rubber band ligation
3rd line = haemorrhoidectomy

86
Q

UC 2nd line and 3rd line if severe

A

oral prednisolone

IV fluids, IV steroids eg. hydrocortisone
rescue therapy - ciclosporin
colectomy last resort

87
Q

1st and 2nd crohns treat

A

prednisolone

azathioprine immunosuppressant or methotrexate

88
Q

achalasia on xray and CT

A

xray - bird beak pattern

CT (gold) - widened mediastinum with fluid

89
Q

2 drugs that cause postural hypotension

A

tamsulosin (bph)

furosemide (hpn) - loops diuretic so avoided in CKD

90
Q

first and gold investigation for renal stones

A

NCCT-KUB (high sens and spec) gold

1st KUB xray not as sens, cannot view pure uric acid stones as radiolucent

91
Q

urti 1-2 days prior + puffy, lack of urination, protein and blood in urine

A

IgA nephropathy

92
Q

urti 1-2 weeks prior + puffy, lack of urination, protein and blood in urine

A

Post strep glomerulonephritis

93
Q

common childhood malignancy presenting with abdominal mass

A

Wilms’ nephroblastoma

94
Q

cancer assoc with schistosomiasis

A

squamous cell carcinoma of bladder

95
Q

most common type of bladder cancer

A

urothelial carcinoma

96
Q

test for chalmid or gonorrhoea

A

nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT testing), charcoal swab (gon)

97
Q

usual antib for epididymo-orchitis

A

Ofloxacin (usually first-line) for 14 days

98
Q

med for chlamydia

A

doxycycline, CI in pregnancy so use Azithromycin, Erythromycin or Amoxicillin

99
Q

most common cause pyelonephritis and 1st medication

A

e.coli
cefalexin
(coamoxiclav)

100
Q

most common type of testicular cancer and serum sign

A

germ cell tumour

elevated alpha fetoprotein, excess HCG/oestrogen, gynaecomastia

101
Q

surgery for BPH

A

transurethral resection of prostate

transurethral incision of the prostate

102
Q

alternative UTI treatment during pregnancy

severe med?

A

Pivmecillinam
Amoxicillin
Cefalexin
severe: IV gentamicin

103
Q

angina treat - symptomatic relief and antianginal meds

A

GTN spray

- beta blocker (bisoprolol) or rate limiting CCB (verapamil)

104
Q

angina treat for risk factors

A

aspirin
statin - simvastatin (high dose in unstable - atorvastatin)
ACE-I

105
Q

angina intervention (2)

A

percutaneous coronary intervention
(PCI)
coronary artery bypass graft (CABG)

106
Q

drugs to reduce cardiovascular events (eg. in angina)

A

Antiplatelet agents: Aspirin and Clopidogrel

Anti-coagulants: LMWH

107
Q

STEMI treatment with 12hrs nset

A
  1. 300mg aspirin
  2. PCI if possible within first 2hrs of onset + GPIIb/IIIa (e.g. tirofiban) with heparin
  3. If not then give thrombolysis/fibrinolysis (alteplase)
108
Q

NSTEMI treat

A
  1. 300mg aspirin
  2. based on risk:
    - low = ticagrelor
    - high = PCI
109
Q

symptomatic treatment for acute cardiac failure

A

loop diuretics - furosemide

110
Q

disease-altering treatment for cardiac failure

A

1st - ACE-I (lisinopril) and beta blocker (bisoprolol)
2nd - aldosterone antagonist (spironolactone, eplerenone when long term)
3rd - ivabradine

111
Q

management of chronic cardiac failure

A

ACE-I (ramipril)
Atenolol (beta blocker)
Amlodipine (ccb)
Aldosterone antagonist (diuretic)

112
Q

most common cause of cor pulmonale

A

COPD

others: PE, ILD, CF, PPH

phase 2a pain (27 decks)

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