Study Exam Sept 17, 2017 Flashcards
Which of the following vitamins and minerals are known to have the greatest potential for excess dosage in dietary supplements?
a. Vitamin A, vitamin D, iron, and zinc
b. Vitamin B, vitamin C, folic acid, and biotin
c. Beta-Carotene, vitamin E, vitamin K, and niacin
d. Iodine, magnesium, copper, and fluoride
When manually monitoring a client’s pulse, the trainer counts 17 beats in 6 seconds. Which of the following is the client’s heart rate?
a. 85
b. 104
c. 117
d. 170
A series of exercises that is performed one after the other, with minimal rest, is referred to as what type of training system?
a. Multiple set system
b. Pyramid system
c. Superset system
d. Circuit training system
To ensure proper front-side mechanics during sprinting, the ankle must be in a position of
a. plantarflexion.
b. eversion.
c. dorsiflexion.
d. inversion.
The principle that states the body will adapt to the demands that are placed upon it is called the Principle of:
a. Periodization.
b. Efficiency.
c. Overload.
d. Specificity.
The principle that states the body will adapt to the demands that are placed upon it is called the Principle of:
a. Periodization.
b. Efficiency.
c. Overload.
d. Specificity.
A client shows signs of obesity, insulin resistance, and hypertension. The combination of these three symptoms are correlated with which of the following disorders?
a. Metabolic syndrome
b. Restrictive lung disease
c. Peripheral edema condition
d. Coronary heart disease
Which of the following contributes to rapid weight loss when consuming a low carbohydrate diet?
a. Increase in waste excretion
b. Loss of body fat
c. Increase in metabolism
d. Loss of water
Which of the following is the system activated at the onset of any activity, regardless of intensity?
a. EPOC
b. ATP-PC
c. Oxidative
d. Glycolysis
Which of the following is an example of an appropriate spotting technique?
a. Spot at the client’s elbows when performing a barbell exercise.
b. The spotter should grab the handles on a machine-based exercise.
c. When spotting a barbell squat, the spotter should stand in front of the client.
d. The spotter should spot at the wrists when clients are performing a dumbbell exercise.
Based on Overhead Squat Assessment findings, if a client exhibits knees moving inward, which flexibility exercise is recommended?
a. Abductor static stretch
b. Adductor static stretch
c. Piriformis foam roller
d. Psoas foam roller
Which of the following is an example of a strength level resistance training exercise for legs?
a. Multiplanar step-up to balance
b. Single-leg squat
c. Single-leg dead lift
d. Multiplanar dumbbell step-up
Which of the five principles of goal setting focuses on establishing goals that are challenging but not extreme?
a. Attainable
b. Realistic
c. Specific
d. Timely
A client’s shoulders elevate during a pulling assessment. Which of the following muscles may be underactive?
a. Levator scapulae
b. Latissimus dorsi
c. Sternocleidomastoid
d. Mid and lower trapezius
Which of the following is a measuring site of the Durnin–Womersley formula?
a. Calf
b. Mid-axillary line
c. Subscapular
d. Thigh
Feedback regarding personal history such as sport, lifestyle, and past medical history would be best described as:
a. objective information.
b. subjective information.
c. movement assessment.
d. fitness assessment.
In the Stabilization Endurance Phase, exercises should be performed with which of the following types of intensity?
a. High
b. Low
c. Maximal
d. Moderate
When performing a _____, the load must be placed in such a way to resist elbow extension.
a. standing triceps extension
b. biceps curl
c. standing cable row
d. dumbbell chest press
Which of the following is contraindicated when training a client who is pregnant?
a. Fitness assessments should be performed using seated or standing exercises.
b. Stabilization Endurance training should be used during the second and third trimesters
c. Exercise should be done in a supine position after the first trimester.
d. Plyometric training may be done in the first trimester.
Which of the following is a category of subjective information?
a. Body composition
b. Cardiorespiratory assessment
c. Medical background
d. Performance assessment
Which of the following muscles is lengthened in Lower Crossed Syndrome?
a. Psoas minor
b. Rectus femoris
c. Erector Spinae
d. Transverse abdominis
Which one of the following exercises is classified as a balance-strength exercise?
a. Single-leg squat touchdown
b. Single-leg lift and chop
c. Single-leg balance and reach
d. Single-leg hop with stabilization
Which of the following types of strength allows the neuromuscular system to perform dynamic eccentric, isometric, and concentric muscle actions in all three planes of motion?
a. Postural
b. Structural
c. Functional
d. Neuromuscular
Which of the following is an appropriate intensity when training a client who is obese?
a. 20 to 30% of their maximum heart rate
b. 40 to 50% of their maximum heart rate
c. 60 to 70% of their maximum heart rate
d. 85 to 95% of their maximum heart rate
Which of the following muscles is underactive if a client demonstrates an anterior pelvic tilt?
a. Erector spinae
b. Psoas
c. Latissimus dorsi
d. Gluteus maximus
When a client performs reactive exercises in the Stabilization Level of training, they should hold the landing position for how many seconds before repeating the movement?
a. 1 to 2 seconds
b. 3 to 5 seconds
c. 6 to 7 seconds
d. 8 to 10 seconds
In which of the following situations should a Certified Personal Trainer refer a client to a medical practitioner?
a. When the trainer becomes aware of undiagnosed osteoporosis.
b. When the trainer becomes aware of diagnosed diabetes.
c. When the trainer becomes aware of diagnosed hypertension.
d. When the trainer becomes aware of an undiagnosed allergy.
Dehydration affects the body by increasing:
a. blood volume.
b. performance.
c. heart rate.
d. sweat rate.
How many ounces of water should a client consume immediately after exercise for every pound lost?
a. 6 to 12 ounces
b. 16 to 24 ounces
c. 24 to 32 ounces
d. 32 to 48 ounces
After completing the Three-Minute Step Test, a 20-year-old male scored in zone 2. What is the correct heart rate range for when he does cardio training?
a. 86% to 95% of HR max
b. 76% to 85% of HR max
c. 65% to 75% of HR max
d. 55% to 60% of HR max
Which of the following muscles is part of the core local stabilization system?
a. Transverse abdominis
b. External oblique
c. Latissimus dorsi
d. Pectineus
Which of the following is the third step in the Stages of Change model?
a. Action
b. Precontemplation
c. Contemplation
d. Preparation
Which of the following muscles is the prime mover when a client performs a row?
a. Latissimus dorsi
b. Posterior deltoid
c. Pectoralis major
d. Pectoralis minor
A client who has an increased functional capacity to adapt to a stressor is in which of the following stages of the general adaptation syndrome?
a. Resistance development
b. Alarm reaction
c. Exhaustion
d. Periodization
If a client’s knee moves inward while performing the Single-leg Squat test, this is an indication that which of the following muscles is overactive?
a. Adductor longus
b. Vastus medialis oblique
c. Gluteus maximus
d. Piriformis
According to the NASM Code of Professional Conduct, a Certified Personal Trainer shall maintain accurate financial, contract appointments, and tax records including original receipts for a minimum of:
a. six months.
b. twelve months.
c. two years.
d. four years.
A client cannot perform a full prone iso-abs exercise, which of the following would be an appropriate regression?
a. Perform prone iso-abs with knees on floor.
b. Perform prone iso-abs with feet on stability ball.
c. Perform a back extension.
d. Perform a stability ball crunch.
Which of the following is the recommended rest interval when performing a circuit for Phase 5 resistance training?
a. 0 to 30 seconds
b. 31 to 60 seconds
c. 1 to 2 minutes
d. 3 to 5 minutes
Which of the following movement dysfunctions will create abnormal stress throughout the kinetic chain?
a. Over-pronation of the foot
b. Neutrality of the umbo-pelvic-hip complex
c. Patella tracking parallel with the foot
d. Neutrality of the scapulae
When assessing an overhead squat, an indication of relative flexibility due to tightness in the lateral gastrocnemius is:
a. the knees moving inward.
b. external rotation of the feet.
c. excessive forward lean.
d. low back arches.
Which of the following is a Power Level balance exercise?
a. Single-leg box hop-up with stabilization
b. Single-leg throw and catch
c. Single-leg internal and external rotation
d. Single-leg squat touchdown
When performing a _____, the load should be positioned to resist shoulder extension and scapular retraction.
a. standing triceps extension
b. biceps curl
c. standing cable row
d. dumbbell chest press
Which of the following is the innermost layer of muscular connective tissue?
a. Fasciculus
b. Endomysium
c. Perimysium
d. Epimysium
Which of the following describes the importance of active listening when engaging with a client?
a. Providing the client with the right information.
b. Requiring the client to pay attention.
c. Convincing the client to do something.
d. Seeking a client’s perspective.
Based on the 2008 Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans, which of the following is the recommended weekly amount of time for moderate-intensity aerobic activity?
a. 75 minutes
b. 90 minutes
c. 120 minutes
d. 150 minutes
Under the supervision of which of the following professionals is it appropriate for an adult client to follow an 800-1000 calorie diet?
a. Certified Personal Trainer
b. Medical physician
c. Nutritionist
d. Performance Enhancement Specialist
Which of the following is an expected systolic blood pressure for a healthy client?
a. 80 mm Hg
b. 95 mm Hg
c. 120 mm Hg
d. 135 mm Hg
During which part of the digestive system are protein strands broken down?
a. Mouth
b. Stomach
c. Small intestines
d. Esophagus
Which of the following is a sign that a client has completed an accurate one-rep maximum bench press estimation test?
a. Your client fails after 8-12 repetitions.
b. Your client fails after 1 repetition.
c. Your client fails at 3 to 5 repetitions.
d. Your client fails right before their arms straighten.
Which of the following should a trainer consider when designing a resistance training program for seniors?
a. Progression should be from seated machines to standing exercises, 8 to 10 exercises.
b. Phase 1 of the OPT model should be used for 4 weeks before moving to Phases 2 through 5.
c. Phase 5 of the OPT model is contraindicated for senior clients due to increased safety considerations.
d. Training frequencies should start at 4 to 5 times per week.
Which of the following should an endurance athlete consume 2-4 hours before exercising to ensure adequate stores of muscle glycogen?
a. Baked potato
b. Oatmeal cookie
c. Avocado
d. Spinach
The ability to react and change body position, with maximum rate of force production, in all planes of motion, and from all body positions during functional activities is:
a. power.
b. speed.
c. quickness.
d. agility.
“From our discussion, I understand that your primary goal is to lose 10 pounds in the next 2 months. Is that correct?” This statement is an example of which of the following?
a. Nondirective question
b. Close-ended question
c. Invitational question
d. Probing question
Which of the following core-training exercises is best for a new client?
a. Ball Crunch
b. Front Medicine Ball Oblique Throw
c. Reverse Crunch
d. Prone Iso-ab
What is a negative side effect associated with the chronic use of a high protein, low carbohydrate diet?
a. A high protein diet is typically associated with higher intake of unsaturated fat and fiber which are risk factors for heart disease.
b. A high protein diet will require less water consumption for metabolism than is needed by carbohydrates or fat.
c. A high protein diet will increase glycogen stores which can lead to decreases in performance.
d. A high protein diet will cause the kidneys to work harder to eliminate the increased urea produced.
A client has mastered the single-leg squat on the floor. Which of the following is a proprioceptive and challenging progression?
a. Single-leg squat on an Airex pad
b. Two-leg squat on floor
c. Two-leg squat on Dyna disc
d. Single-leg squat on a Dyna disc
Which of the following macronutrients should be consumed in the highest percentage for a healthy diet?
a. Carbohydrate
b. Fat
c. Protein
d. Water
How many times the heart beats per minute and how much blood is being pumped with each beat is known as:
a. Stroke volume
b. Heart rate
c. Cardiac output
d. Expiration
Which of the following is the correct repetition range and tempo for the Stabilization, Strength and Power Phases of the OPT model?
a. 12-20/Slow, 1-12/ Moderate, 1-10/Explosive
b. 12-20/Moderate, 1-10/Explosive, 1-12/Slow
c. 1-10/Slow, 12-20/Moderate, 1-12/Explosive
d. 1-10/Moderate,12-20/Slow, 1-12/Explosive
An active kneeling hip flexor stretch is an example of:
a. autogenic inhibition.
b. reciprocal inhibition.
c. altered reciprocal inhibition.
d. synergistic dominance.
It is lawful for a Certified Personal Trainer who possesses no additional certifications or licensure to do which of the following?
a. Massage a client.
b. Apply ultrasound to a client.
c. Design a nutrition plan for a client.
d. Design a cardiorespiratory program for a client.
Which of the following statements indicates that your client has successfully implemented a SMART goal?
a. “I want to lose weight and trim down.”
b. “I want to build muscle and bulk up.”
c. “I want the ability to climb the stairs without getting winded.”
d. “I want to run a 5k in 45 days.”
Davis’s law states which of the following?
a. A chronically shortened muscle will demonstrate poor neuromuscular efficiency.
b. Soft tissue models along the lines of stress.
c. A tight agonist muscle will decrease neural drive to its functional antagonist.
d. The body will seek the path of least resistance during functional movement patterns.
Which of the following is the proper lower extremity position when performing a ball squat?
a. Knee over second toe
b. Adduction of the hip
c. Pronation of the foot
d. Internal rotation of the hip
Which of the following should a trainer share with a client regarding carbohydrate intake and weight gain?
a. Limit complex carbohydrate intake to prevent weight gain.
b. Excess intake of any macronutrient will cause weight gain.
c. Increase fat intake to offset a decrease in carbohydrates.
d. Increase intake of high glycemic foods.
Which of the following terms refers to the elevation of the body’s metabolism after exercise?
a. RER
b. EPOC
c. HRR
d. RPE
Which of the following describes a split routine in a resistance training program?
a. It allows for the use of two exercises for antagonistic muscles within one set.
b. It allows for the use of multiple sets for each exercise.
c. It is a way of training that splits the day into two separate workouts.
d. It is a way of training that works different body parts on different days.
What is the FIRST step a fitness professional should take when coming across an emergency situation that will require CPR?
a. Activate the EMS system.
b. Check the scene for hazards.
c. Open the airway.
d. Check for circulation.
To avoid muscle strains, joint pain, and emotional fatigue, which of the following concepts should be implemented?
a. Periodization
b. Mechanical specificity
c. Neuromuscular specificity
d. Vertical loading
Which of the following information is considered objective?
a. Occupation
b. Lifestyle behavior
c. Recreational activity
d. Movement assessment
A client’s maximum heart rate must be established prior to administering the YMCA 3-minute step test. This is achieved by:
a. subtracting the client’s age from 220.
b. subtracting the client’s resting heart rate from 220.
c. subtracting the client’s age from 220, then subtracting the client’s resting heart rate.
d. subtracting the client’s age from 220, then multiplying by 60-90%.
The Golgi tendon organ is an essential component of static stretching because:
a. it increases muscle spindle activity.
b. it results in reciprocal inhibition.
c. it allows muscle fibers to contract.
d. it allows lengthening of the muscle.
Which of the following is a component of the sliding filament theory?
a. The result of two Z lines moving together.
b. The sarcomere lengthening.
c. The actin filament attaches to myosin head.
d. The muscle fiber triggers the release of calcium.
Which of the following is an appropriate number of exercises per body part per session for a client who has the goal of muscular hypertrophy?
a. 1 to 2
b. 2 to 4
c. 4 to 6
d. 6 to 10
During an overhead squat assessment, a client demonstrates an excessive anterior pelvic tilt. Which of the following muscles is probably shortened?
a. Bicep femoris
b. Piriformis
c. Transverse abdominus
d. Latissimus dorsi
All of the following make up the five kinetic chain checkpoints EXCEPT the
a. foot-ankle complex.
b. lumbo-pelvic hip complex.
c. shoulder complex.
d. hand-wrist complex.
If a client demonstrates shoulder elevation while performing a cable row exercise, which of the following muscles is considered overactive?
a. Rhomboids
b. Sternocleidomastoid
c. Upper trapezius
d. Erector spinae
Which of the following groups or sub-groups represents the fitness professional’s PRIMARY responsibility?
a. Fitness professional
b. Public
c. Employer
d. Professional colleagues
Which of the following is part of the marketing mix?
a. Prominence
b. Public
c. Place
d. Professionalism
Which of the following muscles is the synergist when a client is performing a chest press?
a. Anterior deltoid
b. Rotator cuff
c. Pectoralis major
d. Levator scapulae
During the overhead squat assessment, the trainer notices the client’s feet turn out. Which of the following stretches should be used to lengthen the overactive muscles?
a. Kneeling hip flexor
b. Standing calf
c. Standing adductor
d. Standing quadriceps
Which of the following statements is true concerning client goal setting?
a. Clients who are certain about what they want to accomplish are less likely to successfully make life changes.
b. A long-term goal keeps the client motivated for a longer period of time.
c. Setting achievable goals at the lower end of a client’s ability will build more confidence when accomplished.
d. Goals should be consistent with a client’s own ideals and ambitions.
Although quality and brand recognition are important, people ultimately buy personal training services based on the desire to produce a meaningful outcome. Therefore, all buying decisions are based on:
a. price.
b. knowledge.
c. pressure.
d. emotion.
When a client practices self-myofascial release, which of the following physiological changes is the goal?
a. An increase in joint receptor activity results in an inhibition of muscles around a joint.
b. A decrease in neurotransmitter activity results in the contraction of a muscle.
c. A decrease in muscle spindle activity results in the contraction of a muscle.
d. An increase in Golgi tendon organ activity results in relaxation of a muscle.
Which of the following is a primary focus of stabilization training?
a. Increased lean body mass
b. Enhanced control of posture
c. Improved peak force
d. Improved prime mover strength
Personal trainers have a maximum of how many seconds to make a good first impression?
a. 10 seconds
b. 15 seconds
c. 20 seconds
d. 30 seconds
Which of the following ratings of perceived exertion on the Borg Scale would be implemented in a cardio training program for clients wanting to improve their aerobic base?
a. 9 to 11
b. 12 to 13
c. 14 to 16
d. 17 to 19
A slow and controlled dumbbell chest press performed on a stability ball is an example of what type of specificity?
a. Mechanical
b. Balance
c. Metabolic
d. Neuromuscular
The client is ready to progress from Phase: Stabilization Endurance to Phase 2. Which of the following best describes the resistance training portion of her new Strength Endurance workout?
a. Stabilization exercises with strength supersets
b. Strength with power supersets
c. Power exercises with strength supersets
d. Strength exercises with stabilization supersets
Which of the following muscles is probably underactive when the arms fall forward during an overhead squat?
a. Levator scapulae
b. Rhomboids
c. Sternocleidomastoid
d. Upper trapezius
Which of the following should a trainer determine during the first step in the Ten Steps to Success?
a. Weekly session needs
b. Desired annual income
c. Number of clients needed
d. Closing percentage
To maintain certification with NASM, the Certified Personal Trainer must earn:
a. 1 CEU within 2 years.
b. 2 CEUs within 2 years.
c. 3 CEUs within 3 years.
d. 3 CEUs within 4 years.
Muscle imbalances can be caused by lack of core strength and poor training techniques. Which concept causes the biceps femoris and piriformis to compensate in a squatting movement?
a. Autogenic inhibition
b. Synergistic dominance
c. Arthrokinetic dysfunction
d. Altered reciprocal inhibition
Which of the following is most useful for assessing an athlete’s lower extremity agility and neuromuscular control?
a. Shark skill test
b. Davies test
c. Rockport walk test
d. Overhead squat assessment
When talking to a client, conversational techniques that express the purported meaning of what was just heard are referred to as:
a. reflections.
b. affirmations.
c. compliments.
d. judgments.
In the Maximal Strength Training (MST) phase, what should be the primary emphasis in the client’s program?
a. Powerful movements
b. Joint stabilization
c. Increasing hypertrophy
d. Increasing load
For hypertensive clients taking medications that will influence heart rate, which of the following methods to establish training heart rate is the most appropriate?
a. Age predicted maximum heart rate
b. Karvonen formula
c. Heart rate response
d. Heart rate reserve
Which of the following occurs at the shoulder while it is moving in the frontal plane?
a. Flexion
b. Abduction
c. Extension
d. External rotation
A high-protein diet consisting of more than 30% of total caloric intake from protein is most likely associated with
a. increased pulse rate.
b. overworked kidneys.
c. high cholesterol.
d. low energy levels.
What percent of predicted heart rate maximum is used in zone two of cardiorespiratory training?
a. 56% to 65%
b. 66% to 75%
c. 76% to 85%
d. 86% to 95%
When assessing your clients resting heart rate, what location provides the most accurate measurement?
a. Femoral artery
b. Subclavian artery
c. Radial artery
d. Brachial artery
