Study Exam Final Review Flashcards
The client is ready to progress from Phase: Stabilization Endurance to Phase 2. Which of the following best describes the resistance training portion of her new Strength Endurance workout?
a. Stabilization exercises with strength supersets
b. Strength with power supersets
c. Power exercises with strength supersets
d. Strength exercises with stabilization supersets
Which of the following is a component of the sliding filament theory?
a. The result of two Z lines moving together.
b. The sarcomere lengthening
c. The actin filament attaches to myosin head.
d. The muscle fiber triggers the release of calcium.
Which of the following is an appropriate number of exercises per body part per session for a client who has the goal of muscular hypertrophy?
a. 1 to 2
b. 2 to 4
c. 4 to 6
d. 6 to 10
A client’s maximum heart rate must be established prior to administering the YMCA 3-minute step test. This is achieved:
a. subtracting the client’s age from 220
b. subtracting the client’s resting heart rate from 220
c. subtracting the client’s age from 220, then subtracting the client’s resting heart rate.
d. subtracting the client’s age from 220, then multiplying by 60-90%
A client’s shoulders elevate during a pulling assessment. Which of the following muscles may be underactive?
a. Levator scapulae
b. Latissimus dorsi
c. Sternocleidomastoid
d. Mid and lower trapezius
Which of the following is the recommended rest interval when performing a circuit for Phase 5 resistance training?
a. 0 to 30 seconds
b. 31 to 60 seconds
c. 1 to 2 minuets
d. 3 to 5 minutes
Which of the following should a trainer share with a client regarding carbohydrate intake and weight gain?
a. Limit complex carbohydrate intake to prevent weight gain.
b. Excess intake of any macronutrient will cause weight gain.
c. Increase fat intake to offset a decrease in carbohydrates.
d. Increase intake of high glycemic foods.
Which of the following muscles is underactive if a client demonstrates an anterior pelvic tilt?
a. Erector spinae
b. Psoas
c. Latissimus dorsi
d. Gluteus maximus
During an overhead squat assessment, a client demonstrates an excessive anterior pelvic tilt. Which of the following is probably shortened?
a. Bicep femoris
b. Piriformis
c. Transverse abdominis
d. Latissimus dorsi
Which of the following information is considered objective?(OBSERVED)
a. Occupation
b. Lifestyle behavior
c. Recreational activity
d. Movement assessment
To avoid muscle strains, joint pain, and emotional fatigue, which of the following concepts should be implemented?
a. Periodization
b. Mechanical specificity
c. Neuromuscular specificity
d. Vertical loading
Which of the following is most useful for assessing an athlete’s lower extremity agility and neuromuscular control?
a. Shark skill test
b. Davies test
c. Rockport walk test
d. Overhead squat assessment
Which of the following assessments would be most important for a new client who recently recovered from a shoulder injury?
a. Shark skill test
b. Body composition
c. Pushing/pulling assessment
d. 1RM strength assessment
Which of the following is a formula that determines a client’s cardiorespiratory fitness after reviewing a current health-history questionnaire?
a. VO2 Reserve Method
b. Heart rate reserve (HHR)
c. Peak Maximal Heart Rate Method
d. Peak Metabolic Equivalent Method
When training in Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance, what is the main method of progression?
a. Increasing speed of movement
b. Increasing proprioception
c. Increasing volume
d. Increasing load
A woman is training to improve her running capabilities for an upcoming marathon. She is progressively increasing the distance and time of her runs. Which principle best explains physiological adaptations occurring to the woman’s aerobic energy system?
a. Mechanical specificity
b. Reciprocal inhibition
c. Metabolic specificity
d. Autogenie inhibition
The adaptation of stabilization endurance is achieved by which of the following?
a. 1-10 repetitions at 30% to 45% of the 1RM
b. 1-5 repetitions at 85-100% of 1RM
c. 8-10 repetitions at 75-85% of 1RM
d. 12-20 repetitions at 50-70 of 1RM
Which of the following is the appropriate tempo for a core exercise when training for hypertrophy?
a. Fast
b. Explosive
c. Medium
d. Slow
Which of the following is designed to increase joint range of motion (ROM), improve muscle imbalances, and correct altered joint motion?
a. Functional flexibility
b. Corrective flexibility
c. Passive flexibility
d. Active flexibility
For which of the following are Stage 1 cardiorespiratory training programs designed?
a. To help clients improve anaerobic power and sprinting capabilities
b. To help improve cardiorespiratory fitness levels in apparently healthy sedentary clients
c. For advanced clients who have a moderately high cardiorespiratory fitness level base
d. For clients with low-to-moderate cardiorespiratory fitness levels who are ready to begin training at higher intensity levels
What is designed to increase joint range motion (ROM), improve muscle imbalances, and correct altered joint motion, and is used Phase 1 of the OPT model?
a. Relative flexibility
b. Corrective flexibility
c. Active flexibility
d. Functional flexibility
High-volume training with low intensity increases which of the following?
a. Motor unit synchronization
b. Motor unit recruitment
c. Rate of force production
d. Metabolic rate
