Module 24

Question 1

A client runs a mile in 6 min and 30 seconds. Which of the following energy systems is the client primarily using to produce energy?

Answer 1

a. Anaerobic glycolysis
b. Phosphagen
c. Oxidative
d. ATP-PC

Question 2

Which of the following is a characteristic of muscle spindles?

Answer 2

a. They are slow twitch, “red” muscle fibers with a high degree of mitochondria.
b. They transmit nerve impulses from one neuron to another.
c. They provide the ability to sense the relative position of adjacent parts of the body.
d. They are sensitive to change in length of muscle and the rate of that change.

Question 3

Deoxygenated blood is pumped from the right ventricle to the lungs through which of the following vessels?

Answer 3

a. Pulmonary arteries
b. Pulmonary veins
c. Aortic valve
d. Aortic arch

Question 4

What is the term referring to the synergistic action of muscle groups to produce movement around a joint?

Answer 4

a. Moment of force
b. Stretch-shortening cycle
c. Length-tension relationship
d. Force-couple relationship

Question 5

What is a high-protein diet commonly associated with?

Answer 5

a. A decrease in urea production
b. A decrease in glycogen stores
c. A decreased risk of dehydration
d. An increase in fiber intake

Question 6

Which is an example of an eccentric motion?

Answer 6

a. Pressing dumbbells overhead
b. Holding a plank position
c. Jumping upward
d. Landing from a jump

Question 7

Which of the following is the correct recommendation for caffeine intake for performance enhancement?

Answer 7

a. 3-6 mg/lb
b. 3-6 mg/kg
c. 1-3 mg/kg
d. 1-3 mg/lb

Question 8

Which of the following is appropriate movement assessment for a senior client who is sedentary?

Answer 8

a. Landing Error Scoring System (LESS) Test
b. Pushing test
c. Shark skill test
d. Davies test

Question 9

When a client is performing the overhead squat assessment, which of the following kinetic chain checkpoints is the fitness professional observing from the Lateral view?

Answer 9

a. Feet and cervical spine
b. Cervical spine and knees
c. Feet and knees
d. Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex and shoulder complex

Question 10

Which of the following have a linear relationship during dynamic exercise?

Answer 10

a. Blood pressure and oxygen release
b. Blood pressure and carbon dioxide release
c. Heart rate and carbon dioxide uptake
d. Heart rate and oxygen uptake

Question 11

During a static postural assessment a client displays an anterior pelvic tilt. Which muscle is likely to be overactive?

Answer 11

a. Hamstring complex
b. Hip flexor complex
c. Internal oblique
d. Transverse abdominis

Question 12

Which of the following assessments can also be used to determine training intensities of the bench press?

Answer 12

a. Overhead squat assessment
b. Upper extremity strength assessment
c. Lower extremity strength assessment
d. Single-leg squat assessment

Question 13

A client’s shoulder elevates when performing a pushing assessment, what is a probable underactive muscle?

Answer 13

a. Sternocleidomastoid
b. Upper trapezius
c. Lower trapezius
d. Levator scapulae

Question 14

Which scenario demonstrates a personal trainer correctly assessing a first-time client?

Answer 14

a. Avoid movement assessments if a client has been diagnosed with hypertension.
b. Refer the client to a health care professional if he answers “no” to one or more questions on the PAR-Q.
c. Have the client fill out a PAR-Q medical history after the overhead squat assessment is performed.
d. Assess the client’s cardio respiratory fitness after reviewing a current health-history questionnaire.

Question 15

Which of the following is a formula that determines a client’s target heart rate during exercise?

Answer 15

a. VO2 Reserve Method
b. Heart rate reserve (HHR) method
c. Peak Maximal Heart Rate Method
d. Peak Metabolic Equivalent Method

Question 16

Which of the following is designed to assess dynamic flexibility, core strength, balance, and overall neuromuscular control?

Answer 16

a. Overhead squat assessment
b. Push-up test
c. Davies test
d. Pulling assessment

Question 17

Which of the following assessments would be most important for a new client who recently recovered from a shoulder injury?

Answer 17

a. Shark skill test
b. Body composition
c. Pushing/pulling assessments
d. 1RM strength assessment

Question 18

What effect do beta-blockers have on a client?

Answer 18

a. Has no effect
b. Increase blood pressure
c. Decrease blood pressure
d. Blocks mechanoreceptors from overstimulating muscles

Question 19

Which of the following would be most useful in determining shoulder complex compensations?

Answer 19

a. Pushing assessment, lateral view
b. L.E.F.T test, Lateral view
c. Shark skill test, anterior view
d. Overhead squat assessment, anterior view

Question 20

The Rockport walk test is used to determine which of the following?

Answer 20

a. Metabolic equivalent (MET)
b. Heart rate reserve (HHR)
c. Estimated oxygen consumption
d. VO2 reserve

Question 21

Which of the following is designed to estimate a cardiovascular starting point?

Answer 21

a. YMCA 3-minute step test
b. Spirometry test
c. Rockport walk test
d. Cycle ergometer test

Question 22

A personal trainer is working with a 40 year-old client who is beginning a new exercise program. Using the straight percentage method, what is the client’s estimated maximal heart rate?

Answer 22

a. 160 beats/min
b. 170 beats/min
c. 180 beats/min
d. 150 beats/min

Question 23

Which of the following assessments measures muscular endurance of the upper body?

Answer 23

a. Pushing assessment
b. Push-up assessment
c. Pulling assessment
d. Bench press assessment

Question 24

In a client with lower cross syndrome, which of the following muscles is most likely lengthened?

Answer 24

a. Internal oblique
b. Soleus
c. Gastrocnemius
d. Erector spinae

Question 25

A personal trainer observes a client’s knees moving inward while performing the overhead squat assessment. Which of the following muscles are probably underactive!

Answer 25

a. Adductor complex and vastus lateralis
b. Gluteus medius and gluteus Maximus
c. Lateral Gastrocnemius and soleus
d. Biceps femoris (short head) and tensor fascia latae (TFL)

Question 26

During the butt kick exercise, a personal trainer notices a client arching his low back at the height of the jump. Which of the following muscle groups are most likely tight?

Answer 26

a. Gluteals
b. Abdominal
c. Quadriceps
d. Hamstrings

Question 27

Ruby performs self-myofascial release and static stretching on a client, following which she performs an overhead squat assessment. Which of the following indicates the need for a static standing TFL stretch?

Answer 27

a. The client leans forward excessively
b. The client’s knees bow out
c. The client’s knees fall inward
d. The client’s toes turn out

Question 28

When training in Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance, what is the main method of progression?

Answer 28

a. Increasing speed of movement
b. Increasing proprioception
c. Increasing volume
d. Increasing load

Question 29

A woman is training to improve her running capabilities for an upcoming marathon. She is progressively increasing the distance and time of her runs. Which principle best explains physiological adaptations occurring to the woman’s aerobic energy system?

Answer 29

a. Mechanical specificity
b. Reciprocal inhibition
c. Metabolic specificity
d. Autogenic inhibition

Question 30

The adaptation of stabilization endurance is achieved by which of the following?

Answer 30

a. 1-10 repetitions at 30% to 45% of the 1 RM
b. 1-5 repetitions at 85-100% of 1RM
c. 8-10 repetitions at 75-85% of 1RM
d. 12-20 repetitions at 50-70% of 1RM

Question 31

The adaptation of muscular hypertrophy is best achieved using which of the following repetition tempos?

Answer 31

a. 2/0/2
b. X/X/X
c. 4/2/1
d. 1/1/1