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CEDB30004 Stem Cells in Development and Regeneration > Stem Cells (1,2,3,4,6) > Flashcards

Stem Cells (1,2,3,4,6) Flashcards

1
Q

ES cells cannot be isolated from:

a. Blastocyst
b. Neonate nerves
c. Umbilical cord blood
d. Amniotic Fluid

A

b. Neonate nerves

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2
Q

What is true about pluripotent stem cells?

a. Primordial germ cells give rise to embryonic germ cells
b. Oct4, Sox2 and Nanog are only found in ES cells
c. EGCs are haploid and come from the PGCs of the gonads
d. Embryonic germ cells can be derived from the inner cell mass

A

a. Primordial germ cells give rise to embryonic germ cells

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3
Q

What is not a feature shared by stem cells?

a. The ability to sense extrinsic signals and react intrinsically
b. Specialised cell cycles and high telomerase activity
c. Chromatin remodelling abilities
d. Susceptible to stress

A

d. Susceptible to stress

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4
Q

• Multipotency refers to a cells ability to form derivatives of all 3 germ layers.

A

F

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5
Q

• ‘Stemness’ refers to the idea that common molecular process (e.g. RNA transcripts) underlay the properties of self-renewal and differentiation.

A

T

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6
Q

What is false about mouse pre-implantation development?

a. The early blastocyst is at the 64 cell stage on day 3.5
b. The ICM separates into the epiblast and hypoblast
c. The main components of the blastocyst are the trophoblast, inner cell mass and neural crest
d. The outer layer (zona pellucida) specifies the species of the embryo

A

c. The main components of the blastocyst are the trophoblast, inner cell mass and neural crest

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7
Q

Which is the correct match for the derivatives of the three primary germ layers?

a. Endoderm: pancreatic cell, thyroid cell, lung cell
b. Mesoderm: Skin cell, neuron, pigment cell
c. Ectoderm : Skin cell, RBC, kidney tubule cell
d. Mesoderm: pancreatic cell, neuron, pigment cell

A

a. Endoderm: pancreatic cell, thyroid cell, lung cell

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8
Q

What is true about the tests for pluripotent stem cells?

a. Teratoma formation is the most stringent test
b. In germline chimerism, the embryo is only composed of cells from the injected ES cells
c. In vitro tests are more stringent than in vivo tests but do not test the ability to promote normal development
d. Test three does not test for complete pluripotency

A

d. Test three does not test for complete pluripotency

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9
Q

What is NOT a feature of mouse ES stem cell colonies?

a. They express Oct4, nanog and sox2
b. They have a flat colony morphology
c. They maintain a normal karyotype
d. They express AP and SSEA-1

A

b. They have a flat colony morphology

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10
Q

A feature that differentiates human ES cells from mouse ES cells is:

a. Their dependence on LIF
b. Their rounded colony morphology
c. Their passaging as single cells
d. Their requirement for Activin and FGF in serum and feeder free culture

A

d. Their requirement for Activin and FGF in serum and feeder free culture

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11
Q

What is NOT a feature of Naïve and Primed mouse ES cells?

a. Both can form chimeras
b. Both express Oct4, nanog, sox2
c. Only primed (EpiSC) have differentiation factors (brachyury and FGF5)
d. LIF only causes self-renewal in naïve mouse ES cells

A

a. Both can form chimeras

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12
Q

• During fertilisation and implantation, the egg sheds excess DNA to polar bodies.

A

T

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13
Q

• The trophoblast forms the embryo and the Inner Cell Mass forms the placenta.

A

F

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14
Q

• Cells of the embryo are totipotent up until the 8 cell stage

A

. T

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15
Q

• The zona pellucida is responsible for species specificity.

A

T

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16
Q

• Mouse ES cells can be derived from the hypoblast at the late blastocyst stage.

A

F

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17
Q

• LIF supresses ectoderm and BMP supresses mesoderm and endoderm.

A

F

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18
Q

• Human stem cells share many characteristics with epiblast stem cells which suggests they are from a later stage of development than mouse ES cells.

A

T

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19
Q

Which does not confer pluripotency?

a. Nanog
b. Oct4
c. BMP
d. Sox2

A

c. BMP

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20
Q

Which is most likely to be repressed by a core pluripotency regulator?

a. A mesoderm inducing factor
b. Chromatin remodelling factor
c. TGFB signalling
d. Nanog

A

a. A mesoderm inducing factor

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21
Q

Which is most likely to be activated by a core pluripotency regulator?

a. A neurogenesis inducing factor
b. Euchromatin
c. Chromatin remodelling factors
d. BMP signalling

A

c. Chromatin remodelling factors

22
Q

What is true about the bivalent chromatin state?

a. The regulatory regions in ES cells only have repressive histone modifications
b. Differentiation genes can be permanently switched off in ES cells
c. Differentiation gene repression is only permanent in EpiSC
d. Differentiation genes in ES cells are silent but poised for activation

A

d. Differentiation genes in ES cells are silent but poised for activation

23
Q

How can inhibitors impact mouse ES cells?

a. PDO3 can inhibit FGF and prevent differentiation and increase Nanog expression
b. Blocking GSK3 signalling increases Nanog expression and reduces differentiation
c. High levels of Nanog can inhibit FGF and Mek/ERK signalling
d. CHIR can inhibit the activity of FGF and GSK3 to prevent differentiation

A

a. PDO3 can inhibit FGF and prevent differentiation and increase Nanog expression

24
Q

What is false about 2i culture?

a. PDO3 and LIF block differentiation
b. The level of Nanog fluctuates and the cells are in a bivalent state
c. CHIR prevents the activity of GSK3 and this promotes self-renewal
d. All cells in the culture are in the ground state and express high levels of Nanog

A

b. The level of Nanog fluctuates and the cells are in a bivalent state

25
Q

• Oct4, Sox2 and Nanog have the capacity to regulate each other and themselves (autocrine).

A

T

26
Q

• All mouse ES cells in conventional culture express Oct4 and Nanog at stable levels.

A

F

27
Q

• ES cells maintain pluripotency at the ground state and become primed for a specific linage when they become progenitor cells.

A

T

28
Q

• LIF activates self-renewal and blocks differentiation.

A

T

29
Q

What happens during late reprogramming of iPS cells?

a. Mesenchymal epithelial transition
b. Retroviral vectors are expressed
c. Somatic genes are hypermethylated
d. Chromatin remodelling complexes are recruited

A

c. Somatic genes are hypermethylated

30
Q

What happens during infection with Yamanaka Factors?

a. During the random phase, endogenous Sox2 regulates the expression of Oct4
b. The ordered phase precedes the random phase and is critical in the regulation of Nanog and Oct4
c. The random activation of genes eventually leads to the activation of endogenous Sox2 which signals the transition to the ordered phase
d. Exogenous Klf4 and c-Myc are essential for generating iPS cells and are active in the ordered phase

A

c. The random activation of genes eventually leads to the activation of endogenous Sox2 which signals the transition to the ordered phase

31
Q 
Match the reprogramming factors to their role during the random phase
Oct4	
Klf4
c-Myc
Sox2

Endogenous causes late phase (ordered). Active chromatin state and activates Oct4 and Nanog (endogenous)

Exogenous activates gene expression (recruits chromatin remodelling complexes and binds closed chromatin)

Inhibit gene expression

Histone acetylation, exogenous Oct4 and Sox2 can bind DNA

A

Oct4
Exogenous activates gene expression (recruits chromatin remodelling complexes and binds closed chromatin)

Klf4
Inhibit gene expression

c-Myc
Histone acetylation, exogenous Oct4 and Sox2 can bind DNA

Sox2
Endogenous causes late phase (ordered). Active chromatin state and activates Oct4 and Nanog (endogenous)

32
Q

How similar are human ES cell and iPS cells?

a. ES cell and iPS cells only differ in their morphology and their overall gene expression
b. iPS cells take a long time to make and ES cells require a human blastocyst to be derived from
c. iPS and ES cells have a similar morphology and surface markers but iPS cells have shorter telomeres
d. Gene and protein expression is always the same in iPS and ES cells

A

b. iPS cells take a long time to make and ES cells require a human blastocyst to be derived from

33
Q

What is FALSE about issues and alternative methods associated with cell transplantation therapies?

a. Viral vectors integrate randomly into the host genome, therefore insertion mutagenesis is a concern
b. RNA transcripts may trigger an immune response and often require several treatment rounds
c. Transposons like piggyback and sleeping beauty are examples of non-viral delivery methods which can be excised
d. Proteins tethered to proteins have a high efficiency but cannot facilitate transmembrane transport

A

d. Proteins tethered to proteins have a high efficiency but cannot facilitate transmembrane transport

34
Q

What is FALSE about the basal lamina?

a. It connect the epithelium to the stroma and is made of three layers (lamina lucida, lamina densa, reticular lamina)
b. It can aid in anchoring and structure as well as cellular processes such as migration and proliferation
c. It has ECM proteins in the form of collagens and proteoglycans only
d. Cells are usually attached via hemidesmosones

A

c. It has ECM proteins in the form of collagens and proteoglycans only

35
Q

What can be shown by basal lamina directed gene expression in the mammary gland?

a. Mammary epithelial cells grown on plastic express cell division genes such as c-myc and cyclinD1
b. The presence of a BL encourages mammary epithelial cells to divide more and stop the expression of p21
c. When grown on BL, mammary epithelial cells lose the ability to express mammary gland specific genes like lactoferrin, casein and WAP
d. Mammary epithelial cells grown on plastic express mammary-gland specific genes such as lactoferrin and casein

A

a. Mammary epithelial cells grown on plastic express cell division genes such as c-myc and cyclinD1

36
Q

• iPS cells demonstrate chimerism and germ line transmission but not tetraploid complementation.

A

F

37
Q

• iPS cells can be generated using any differentiated cell.

A

T

38
Q

• Exogenous Oct4 and Sox2 are essential in generating iPS cells.

A

T

39
Q

• The stem cell niche is defined solely by location.

A

F

40
Q

• In healthy cells (non-cancerous), proliferation and differentiation and mutually exclusive.

A

T

41
Q

• Embryonic Germ Cells (EG) are derived from undifferentiated cells in teratocarcinoma and Embryonal Carcinoma Cells (EC) are derived from primordial germ cells (pluripotent).

A

F

42
Q

What is not a feature of an adult stem cell?

a. Self-renewal
b. Short life span
c. Multipotent
d. Found amongst differentiated cells

A

b. Short life span

43
Q

Which is the correct order of renewal capacities?

a. liver/muscle > bone marrow > epidermis > nervous tissue
b. epidermis bone> marrow > nervous tissue > liver/muscle
c. bone marrow > epidermis > liver/muscle > nervous tissue
d. nervous tissue> liver/muscle > epidermis > bone marrow

A

c. bone marrow > epidermis > liver/muscle > nervous tissue

44
Q

What is false about the processes underlying the fate determinants of daughter stem cells?

a. Independent choice can lead to two stem cells, terminally differentiated cell and stem cell or two terminally differentiated cells which all make up a pool of stem cells
b. Asymmetric division is influenced by determinants which localise on one side of a cell/plane
c. Haematopoietic stem cells demonstrate asymmetric division due to their reliance on the positioning of stromal cells
d. Neuroblasts commonly undergo asymmetric division

A

c. Haematopoietic stem cells demonstrate asymmetric division due to their reliance on the positioning of stromal cells

45
Q

Which best describes an aspect of morphollaxis or epimorphosis?

a. Epimorphosis is seen in simple animals like worms and is the re-patterning and re-establishment of boundaries
b. Morphollaxis can be seen in newts and involves new growth and correct patterning
c. In morphollaxis, positional values are independent of boundary regions
d. In epimorphosis, new positional values are linked to growth from the cut surface

A

d. In epimorphosis, new positional values are linked to growth from the cut surface

46
Q

What is false about the blastema?

a. It is made up of natural iPS cells
b. It contains de-differentiated cells in a heterogeneous collection
c. Cells cannot proliferate in it in the absence of nerve cells
d. Cells in the blastema can retain their specification even though they de-differentiate

A

a. It is made up of natural iPS cells

47
Q

• Asymmetric division is due to a determinant on one side of a plane whilst independent choice is stochastic.

A

T

48
Q

• Stem cells are shorter lived than all other cells in the intestine.

A

F

49
Q

• Satellite cells are quiescent stem cells.

A

T

50
Q

• In the Blastema, cells fully revert to pluripotency.

A

F

51
Q

• Salamander limbs can still regenerate when nerves are damaged.

A

F

52
Q

• nAG can bind to Prod1 and lead to limb regeneration when nerves are dysfunctional.

A

T

CEDB30004 Stem Cells in Development and Regeneration (18 decks)

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