Statistics and Measurement Flashcards

1
Q

How is a quasi-experimental research design different from a true experimental design?

A

In a quasi-experimental design random assignment doesn’t/can’t occur.

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2
Q

What contributes to a non-experimental research design?

A

The independent variable is pre-existing and there is no manipulation or intervention.

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3
Q

What is required in a true experimental design?

A

There must be at least 1 manipulated independent variable

Subjects must be randomly assigned to their group

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4
Q

What is another name for a nomothetic research design?

A

Group Research Design

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5
Q

What are the 3 group research design strategies?

A

Between-Groups
Within-Subjects
Mixed

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6
Q

What is a between-groups research design?

A

Comparing groups where the groups and data are independent of one another

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7
Q

What is a within-subjects research design?

A

comparing groups in which the data is related/correlated/repeated

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8
Q

What type of research design is used when two groups of subjects are matched on some characteristic/variable?

A

Within-Subjects Design

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9
Q

What are carryover effects?

A

Occurs in a within-subjects design when subjects are exposed to multiple conditions and their performance naturally changes

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10
Q

Carryover effects occur in what type of research design?

A

Within-subjects

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11
Q

How should a research counteract carryover effects?

A

Use a latin square design

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12
Q

What is a mixed research design?

A

Contains components of both between-groups and within-subjects designs. One component is independent and the other is repeated

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13
Q

What is another name for an idiographic research design?

A

Single Subject

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14
Q

What is one problem of a single subject research design?

A

Autocorrelation

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15
Q

What is the AB research design?

A

A is baseline

B is treatment

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16
Q

What is the biggest threat to an AB treatment design?

A

History

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17
Q

How is an ABAB treatment design better than an AB design?

A

It removes the threat of history

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18
Q

What is one ethical concern about the ABAB design?

A

Treatment B may be effective and then you remove it for a return to baseline

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19
Q

What is one general concern about the ABAB design?

A

Participants may not return to baseline a second time

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20
Q

What is a drawback of a multiple baseline design?

A

Time Consuming

Expensive

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21
Q

What is a benefit of a multiple baseline design?

A

Avoids the problems of AB and ABAB designs

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22
Q

What is the simultaneous treatment approach?

A

Simultaneous treatment occurs, but at two different times of day

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23
Q

What is a changing criterion research design?

A

Used when gradually trying to change behavior

work towards achieving a criterion and the criterion changes as time progresses

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24
Q

When would you use interval sampling?

A

When the behavior being measured does not have a specific or identifiable beginning or end

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25
Q

What are the two types of interval sampling?

A

Momentary Sampling

Whole Interval Sampling

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26
Q

What is momentary interval sampling?

A

Choose specific times and if the behavior is being exhibited at that time you get a tally

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27
Q

What is whole interval sampling?

A

Choose and interval of time and only get a check if the behavior is begin exhibited that entire time interval

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28
Q

What is analog research?

A

Approximates a clinical situation

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29
Q

What is a problem with analog research?

A

Limits generalizability

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30
Q

What are the three time frames of research design?

A

Cross-Sectional
Longitudinal
Cross-Sequential

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31
Q

What is one problem with a cross-sectional research design?

A

Cohort Effects

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32
Q

What is a problem with longitudinal research?

A

Expense

Dropout Rates

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33
Q

What is a cross-sequential research design?

A

Break groups into cross-sections and then monitor them over shorter periods of time

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34
Q

Simple Random Sampling

A

Everyone in the population has an equal change of being chosen

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35
Q

Stratified Random Sampling

A

Dividing the population into strata and then sampling equal numbers within each strata

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36
Q

Proportional Sampling

A

Sample people in proportion to their representation in the population

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37
Q

Systematic Sampling

A

Creating a system and sampling that way (every 10, odd SSN’s, etc.)

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38
Q

Cluster Sampling

A

Sampling naturally occuring clusters

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39
Q

Name some threats to internal validity

A
History
Maturation
Testing/Test Practice
Instrumentation
Statistical Regression/Regression to the Mean
Selection Bias
Attrition/Experimental Validity
Diffusion
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40
Q

What is the best way to control for threats of history and maturation?

A

Having a control group

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41
Q

What is the threat of history?

A

Any incident or occurrence that happens while in treatment, but outside the experiments that affects the outcome

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42
Q

What is the threat of maturation?

A

Something happening within the subject due to the passage of time

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43
Q

What is the treat of testing?

A

People do better due to familiarity with the test instrument

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44
Q

What is the best way to control for the threat of testing?

A

Use a Solomon 4 Group Design

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45
Q

What are the four groups in a Solomon 4 Group Design?

A

Pre-test, Post-test, with Intervention
Pre-test, Post-test, without Intervention
Intervention and Post-test
Post-Test Only

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46
Q

What is the threat of instrumentation?

A

Calibration of instruments causing change

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47
Q

What is the threat of Statistical Regression?

A

Tendency for extreme scores to move closer to the mean

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48
Q

How can you control for the threat of statistical regression?

A

Use a control group

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49
Q

What is the threat of selection bias?

A

Non-random assignment to groups

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50
Q

What is the threat of attrition?

A

When people withdraw during the experiment

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51
Q

What is the threat of diffusion?

A

When the treatment diffuses into the control group

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52
Q

What are some threats to external validity?

A

Sample Characteristics
Stimulus Characteristics
Contextual Characteristics

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53
Q

How can sample characteristics be a threat to external validity?

A

Most research relies on volunteers, so there may be a certain type of person that volunteers versus one who does not.

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54
Q

How can stimulus characteristics be a threat to external validity?

A

The characteristics of the research set-up may not generalize to the population.

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55
Q

How can contextual characteristics affect be a threat to external validity?

A

People are participating in research and being observed so they may respond differently (Hawthorne Effect)

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56
Q

What are some threats to Construct Validity?

A

Experimenter Expectancies/Rosenthal Effect
Demand Characteristics
John Henry Effect/Compensatory Rivalry

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57
Q

What can experimenter expectancies be a threat to construct validity?

A

The experimenter may inadvertently communicate something to the subjects about how to respond

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58
Q

How can a researcher control for experimenter expectancies?

A

Double-blind studies

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59
Q

How can demand characteristics be a threat to construct validity?

A

Subjects might pick up on something that cause them to respond differently

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60
Q

How can a researcher control for demand characteristics?

A

Don’t tell a participant which group they are in

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61
Q

How can the John Henry Effect be a threat to construct validity?

A

When people in the control group try even harder than the experimental group

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62
Q

How can a research control for the John Henry Effect?

A

Don’t tell a participant which group they are in

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63
Q

What is a threat to statistical conclusion validity?

A

Low Power

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64
Q

What might cause low power in a research study?

A

Small Sample Size
Unreliable Measures
Inconsistent Procedures
Heterogeneous Subjects

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65
Q

The higher the internal validity, the ____________ the external validity

A

Lower

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66
Q

Positively skewed data has a higher proportion of ________ scores.

A

Low

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67
Q

Negatively skewed data has a higher proportion of ___________ scores.

A

High

68
Q

Which measure of central tendency is highest in positively skewed data?

A

Mean

69
Q

Which measure of central tendency is the lowest in positively skewed data?

A

Mode

70
Q

Which measure of central tendency is the highest in negatively skewed data?

A

Mode

71
Q

Which measure of central tendency is the lowers in negatively skewed data?

A

Mean

72
Q

What percent of the population falls within 3SD of the mean?

A

99%

73
Q

What percent of the population falls within 2SD of the mean?

A

95%

74
Q

What percent of the population falls within 1 SD of the mean?

A

68%

75
Q

What does a z-score tell you?

A

How many SD’s above of below the mean someone scores?

76
Q

What are the Mean and SD of T scores?

A

Mean=50

SD=10

77
Q

What are the mean and SD of IQ scores?

A

Mean=100

SD=15

78
Q

What is the central limit theorum?

A

If we take equal sized samples from the population, and we take an infinite number of them and plot the mean, we get the normal distribution

79
Q

What is Type I Error?

A

Incorrectly Rejecting the Null Hypothesis

80
Q

What represents the probability of making a Type I error?

A

Alpha

81
Q

What is Alpha?

A

The probability of making a Type I error

82
Q

What is Type II Error?

A

Incorrectly accepting the null hypothesis

83
Q

What represents Type II Error?

A

Beta

84
Q

What is Beta?

A

Type II Error

85
Q

What is Power?

A

Correctly rejecting the null hypothesis

86
Q

1-Beta=?

A

Power

87
Q

What are some examples of non-parametric tests?

A

Chi Square
Mann Whitney U Test
Wilcoxin

88
Q

What are the three requirements of parametric tests?

A

Interval/Ratio Data
Homogeneity of Variance/Homoscedasticity
Normal Distribution of Data

89
Q

What is Homoscedasticity?

A

Homogeneity of Variance

90
Q

What are 3 types of T-tests?

A

Single Samples T-Test
Independent Samples T-Test
Matched Samples T-Test

91
Q

What type of post-hoc tests are available when significance is found on an ANOVA?

A

Pairwise Comparisons
Sheffe
Tukey

92
Q

Post-hoc tests for ANOVAs lead to an increased chance for what?

A

Type II Error

93
Q

When would you use ANCOVA?

A

When you find that something affects your outcome that you weren’t planning for, you can statistically remove it using ANCOVA

94
Q

When do you use trend analysis?

A

When an ANOVA is significant

95
Q

What is a trend analysis?

A

Allows you to look at patterns of change so you can see how the DV changes with various continuous levels of the IV

96
Q

What is the coefficient of determination?

A

The square of the correlation (r squared); it determines shared variability

97
Q

What is a 0 order correlation?

A

X and Y are correlated and we don’t think anything else is interfering with that relationship

98
Q

What is a first order correlation?

A

There is a relationship between X and Y, but you think variable Z also affects this relationship

99
Q

What is a semi-partial correlation?

A

When you have a first order correlation, but remove the effects of Z on either X or Y.

100
Q

What is used to create the line of best fit?

A

Least Squares Criterion

101
Q

What type of data is needed for a Pearson R correlation?

A

X and Y both need to be interval or ratio data

102
Q

What type of data is needed for a Point Biserial correlation?

A

One variable is dichotomous and the other is interval or ratio data

103
Q

What is the difference between point biserial and biserial?

A

Point biserial is a true and naturally occurring dichotomy. Biserial is an artificial dichotomy.

104
Q

What is the problem of multicollinearity?

A

When there are multiple predictor variables (Xs) and they are all highly correlated with one another

105
Q

What is a stepwise regression?

A

The computer decides which predictor variable is processed first, second third etc. based on how strongly related each variable is with the criterion

106
Q

What is Hierarchical regression?

A

The researcher uses an underlying theory to determine the order of predictor variables

107
Q

What is canonical correlation?

A

Two or more predictors and two or more criteria

108
Q

What is discriminant function analysis?

A

A special case of multiple regression equation used when Y is nominal

109
Q

What is logilinear analysis?

A

Looks like discriminant analysis with nominal Y data, but X’s are all nominal

110
Q

What is a moderator variables?

A

Affects the strength/nature of the relationship between X and Y

111
Q

What is a mediator variable?

A

Explains why the relationship between X and Y exits

If you remove the mediator variable, the correlation between X and Y no longer exist

112
Q

What is a path analysis?

A

A way of using correlations to determine if there’s a cause/effect relationship

113
Q

What’s the most common method of structural equation modeling?

A

LISERAL

114
Q

What is LISERAL?

A

A method of structural equation modeling

115
Q

What is a factor analysis?

A

Look at all factors and determine which cluster together to explain the outcome

116
Q

What is an eigenvalue?

A

Tells you the strength of a factor in factor analysis

117
Q

What are the two rotations used in factors analysis?

A

Orthogonal and Oblique

118
Q

What is the difference between orthogonal rotation and oblique rotation?

A

Orthogonal rotation leaves you with factors that are uncorrelated with one another. Oblique rotation leaves you with correlated factors

119
Q

When would you use principal components analysis?

A

When the researcher has no theoretical expectation of what the factors may be

120
Q

What is classical test theory?

A

Any given score is the combination of truth and error

121
Q

What is true score variability?

A

Reliability

122
Q

What are 3 sources of test error?

A

Content sampling
Time Sampling
Test Heterogeneity

123
Q

How does content sampling lead to test error?

A

When items on the instrument happen to be something you do or do not know

124
Q

How does time sampling lead to test error?

A

Passage of time can naturally affect scores

125
Q

How can test heterogeneity affect test error?

A

When an item taps more than on domain it can lead to test error

126
Q

What affects instrument reliability?

A
Number of test items
Homogeneity of items
Range of Scores
Population Sample
Ability to Guess
127
Q

How does the number of items on an instrument affect its reliability?

A

More items=More reliable

128
Q

How does the homogeneity of items affect an instrument’s reliability?

A

More homogeneous=more reliable

129
Q

How does score range affect instrument reliability?

A

larger range of scores=more reliable

130
Q

How does the population sample affect instrument reliability?

A

Heterogeneous Sample=more reliable

131
Q

How does the ability to guess the answer to questions affect a test’s reliability?

A

If items are harder to guess, the test is more reliable

132
Q

What are the ways of measuring reliability?

A

Test-Retest
Parallel Forms
Internal Consistency
Interrater Reliability

133
Q

What causes error in test-retest reliability?

A

Time

134
Q

What causes error in parallel forms reliability?

A

Time

Content Sampling

135
Q

How does split half reliability affect overall reliability?

A

It artificially reduces reliability

136
Q

What is the Spearman-Brown Prophecy Formula used for?

A

Uses the split-half reliability, but tells you how much more reliable your test would be if you used the full number of items

137
Q

What is the primary source of error is split half reliability?

A

Content Sampling

138
Q

Split half reliability should never be used with what type of test?

A

Speeded tests

139
Q

What is Kuder Richardson Coefficient Alpha?

A

It’s a way of determining split-half reliability. The computer takes the test and splits it in every possible half, generates a correlation for each of these, and averages them

140
Q

What is the standard error of measurement?

A

The average change in scores if the same person were to take the same test repeatedly

141
Q

What are some types of validity?

A

Content Validity
Criterion Related Validity
Construct Validity

142
Q

What is content validity?

A

Does the test cover all the basic content knowledge/skills of what you want to measure?

143
Q

What is criterion related validity?

A

Does the test accurately predict what we are trying to predict?

144
Q

What are some types of criterion related validity?

A

Concurrent Validity

Predictive Validity

145
Q

What is an expectancy table?

A

Tells you the probability that a specific criterion score will fall in a range given the range in which a predictor score falls?

146
Q

What are Taylor-Russel Tables?

A

Tells you how much of an improvement you will make in a selection/hiring decisions when using a predictor test as compared to using no test

147
Q

What do you need to know to use a Taylor-Russel table?

A

Base Rates of successful hires and selection ration

148
Q

What is selection ratio?

A

Number of opening to number of applicants

149
Q

What impacts incremental validity?

A

Criterion Related Validity of the Instrument
Base Rate
Selection Ratio

150
Q

How would you optimize incremental validity?

A

Have a moderate base rate (.5) and low selection ratio (.1)

151
Q

What is decision-making theory?

A

It looks at predictions based on using a predictor test and compares them to actual results

152
Q

What are the four possible outcomes of a predictor test?

A

True Positive
False Positive
True Negative
False Negative

153
Q

what is easier to change, the predictor or the criterion?

A

The predictor. Sometimes you cannot change the criterion.

154
Q

What is item discrimination?

A

How well an items discriminates between high scorers and low scorers

155
Q

What is item validity?

A

How well an individual scored on that item and the entire test

156
Q

What is the item characteristic curve?

A

Relationship between how you do on an item and your total score

157
Q

What is item response theory?

A

It allows the researcher to calculate to what extent a specific item correlates to the underlying trait being measured and is used to create individually tailored adaptive tests

158
Q

What creates shrinkage?

A

Cross-validation

159
Q

What factors affect the validity coefficient?

A

Range of scores
Reliability of the predictor
Correction for Attenuation
Criterion Contamination

160
Q

How does the range of scores affect validity?

A

Broad Range=Better Validity

161
Q

How does the reliability of the predictor affect validity?

A

Reliability puts an upper limit on validity

Validity is less than or equal to the square root of reliability

162
Q

What is correction for attenuation?

A

Because X and Y are both not perfectly reliable, validity is lessened. This formula tells us, if X and Y were perfectly reliable, how much better our validity would be

163
Q

What is Criterion Contamination?

A

This occurs when Y is subjectively scored and the rater knows how people did on the predictor. This artificially inflates validity

164
Q

In the multitrait multimethod matrix, what is convergent validity?

A

Monotrait Heteromethod

165
Q

In the multitrait multimethod matrix, what is divergent vaidity?

A

Heterotrait Monomethod

166
Q

What are the subtypes of construct validity?

A

Convergent Validity

Divergent Validity

167
Q

What is the Standard Error of the Estimate?

A

How much error there is in estimating what we are trying to predict