Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

EPPP Audio > Industrial/Organizational Psychology > Flashcards

Industrial/Organizational Psychology Flashcards

1
Q

What was the result of Title VII of the Civil Rights Act?

A

Employers can no longer discriminate against employees or potential employees on the basis of a protected status.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the Uniform Guidelines of Employee Selection?

A

A test that adversely affects hiring, promotion, or selection of applicants constitutes discrimination. (However, you can still use the test if the test has been validated as useful, but no alternatives are available)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What was the result of Griggs v. Duke Power Company?

A

Tests of general broad abilities, specifically those in which minorities pass at much lower rates than Whites, are unfair for employment and promotion. Any tests used for hiring must be specific for the job skills needed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is Adverse Impact?

A

Based on the 4/5 Concept or 80% rule.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Using the 80% rule, if 20/100 White applicants are hired, how many Black Applicants would need to be hired to not be adversely impacted?

A

At least 16% of the total number of Black Applicants (so if there were 10 Black Applicants, 2 would need to be hired).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is unfairness?

A

Unfairness occurs when two group score similarly on a criterion, but differently on a predictor test. If this predictor test is used to choose applicants, the minority will appear lower and be less likely to be chosen based on the predictor cutoff. However, they are likely to perform just as well on the criterion, even though the test does not show this.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Differential Validity

A

The validity of the test is different for different groups. This means the predictor does not predict the criterion in the same manner for all individuals. It’s likely to lead to unfairness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

If a test has parallel regression lines for different groups, the test can be said to have ____________.

A

Differential Validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is job analysis?

A

Gathering information about the job, including necessary tasks, skills, tools, and education needed to perform the job successfully.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Why is job analysis done?

A

To determine hiring criteria, training issues, and provide feedback about job performance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the critical incident technique?

A

A systematic approach at looking at what leads to successful vs. unsuccessful outcomes on the job

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The critical incident technique is a part of what?

A

Job Analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is a job evaluation?

A

Figuring out how much money a job is worth to the organization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are some methods of employee selection?

A

Biodata, Interviews, Assessment Centers, and References/Letters of Recommendation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is biodata?

A

It includes biographical information including education and employment history.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the difference between a standard and a weighted application?

A

When applications are weighted, some information is given more weight than others when making decisions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the Biographical Information Blank?

A

It covers an applicants life history in greater detail. It includes items correlated with successful job outcomes. They are excellent predictors of job success and good predictors of job turnover. However, they’re not widely used, because of how cumbersome they are.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What employee selection technique is considered least valid?

A

Interviews

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What can be done to add to the validity of interviews?

A

Making interviews structured, having multiple interviewers, and training interviewers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the First Impression Bias?

A

The tendency for the initial impression of a candidate to remain throughout the interview.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the Negative Information Bias?

A

The tendency for one or two small pieces of negative information to cause you to overlook the positive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the Contrast Effect?

A

When you rate the person you’re interviewing in comparison to the person who interviewed directly before them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the Halo Effect?

A

When we generalize traits based on one characteristic. Can be positive or negative. The most common halo affect is that of attractiveness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are assessment centers?

A

They are simulated testing. You put potential job applicants into a simulated job situation and observe and evaluate them. This process allowed you to obtain a work sample, but it time consuming and complicated. It’s generally only used by upper level management. It has excellent criterion validity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are two examples of tasks used in assessment centers?

A

The In Basket Technique and the Leaderless Group Discussion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are some types of tests used for personnel selection?

A

Wonderlick Personnel Test, Aptitute tests, Personality Tests, Interests Tests, Work Sample Tests, Test Batteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the 3 different approaches for employee selection?

A

Multiple Regression Approach
Multiple Cut-Off Approach
Multiple Hurdles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the Multiple Regression Approach to employee selection?

A

A multiple regression equation is used to make a decision based on multiple predictors. This approach is compensatory, because a low score in a one area can be compensated for by a high score in another area.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What does it mean if a test in compensatory?

A

Low scores and high scores can balance each other out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the multiple cut-off approach to employee selection?

A

Multiple different areas are evaluated and you must meet or exceed the cut-off in every area of evaluation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the multiple hurdles method of employee selection?

A

Predictors are arranged in a specific order, and candidates must meet or exceed each hurdle successively before moving onto the next hurdle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What 3 things contribute to employee performance?

A

Motivation
Ability
Opportunities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the purpose of performance appraisals?

A

To decide salary and bonuses and to give feedback to the employee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What type of objective measures are used in performance appraisals?

A

Output

Errors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are 3 types of Comparative Subjective Ranking?

A

Straight Rating
Forced Distribution
Paired Comparisons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is straight ranking?

A

Ranking all employees from best to worst.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is forced distribution ranking?

A

Taking all employees and forcing them to fit a specific distribution (grading on a curve)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is paired comparisons ranking?

A

Comparing all employees to one another in individual pairs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Can comparative methods be used to eliminate biases in rankings?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are 5 examples of individual subjective rating scales?

A 
Graphic Rating Scales
BARS (Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales)
BOS (Behavioral Observation Scales)
Forced Choice
Behavioral Checklist
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is a graphic rating scale?

A

A scale that rates employees based on a likert scale of job dimensions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is BARS?

A

Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scale
It’s based on critical incidents to measure success or lack of successful. It’s time-consuming to develop and only measures hypothetical situations and not daily activities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is BOS?

A

Behavioral Observation Scales

Checking off behaviors an employee performs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the forced choice rating scale?

A

You are provided with a pair of adjectives that are similarly desirable or undesirable and you are forced to choose which best describes the employee.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is a behavioral checklist?

A

You are given a list of adjectives and you choose which adjectives best describe a person.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is Management by Objectives (MBO)?

A

Managers, employees, and supervisors come up with goals together, and then the employee is involved with measuring their progress towards these goals. They tend to increase motivation and productivity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is a rater error?

A

When a rater is making an error based on the task performed. This includes the strictness set, leniency set, and central tendency set.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the recency bias?

A

When we rate people over an extended period of time we are more influenced by their most recent performance than by behaviors that occurred longer ago.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is an attribution error?

A

When someone you don’t like performs poorly, you attribute it to an internal personal characteristic they possess, but if we like the person we tend to attribute their poor performance to situational factors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is Frame of Reference (FOR) training?

A

A strategy for reducing rater error in which raters are given clear and specific training about what constitutes a specific rating with examples.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are some forms of training/staff development?

A

Non-Participative, Individual Participative, Group Participative, and Job Rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are some examples of non-participative training?

A

Watching a video or listening to a lecture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are some examples of individual participative training?

A

Programmed Instruction or Simulation/Vestibule Training

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is Programmed Instruction?

A

A combination of book-led and computer software training. It’s a good was of training a large group of participants individually, but simultaneously.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is simulation/vestibule training?

A

It simulates the job situation, but is not identical. This is often used when on-the-job training would be too hazardous.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are some factors that may affect training?

A 
Individual differences
Pre-training expectations
Self-efficacy
Motivation
Active vs. Passive Practice
Massed vs. Spaced Practice
Whole vs. Part Learning
Transfer of training
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What tasks are overlearning most important for?

A

Tasks you don’t do frequently or will need to be done under stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What can improve the transfer of training?

A

Overlearning
Identical Elements
Feedback
Reinforcement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is John Holland’s Theory of Career Development?

A

Personality-Jobs Fit Theory
It focuses on matching an individual’s personality and individual traits with job traits
RIASEC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

RIASEC is associated with which theorist?

A

John Holland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What does RIASEC stand for?

A 
Realistic
Investigative
Artistic
Social
Enterprising
Conventional
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the self-directed search?

A

It’s a tool used in John Holland’s career theory in which an individual ends up with a 1 to 3 letter code that represents their work preferences (RIASEC code)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is congruence according to John Holland?

A

The match between your personality and the job environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is consistency according to John Holland?

A

How consistent your RIASEC code is. It’s determined by how close your first two codes are on the hexagon and is related to increased job stability.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is differentiation according to John Holland?

A

How distinct your RIASEC profile is

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

How distinct your personality profile is, according to John Holland is called ____________

A

Differentiation

67
Q

How consistent your RIASEC code is as determined by how close the first two codes are on the hexagon is termed _______________

A

Consistency

68
Q

What is the term for John Holland’s match between your personality and job environment?

A

Congruence

69
Q

Explain Donald Super’s Career Theory

A

Super developed the career rainbow, which explains changes that occur from career entry to retirement. He believes that career patterns are affected by SES, abilities, personality, and opportunities to which you are exposed. He believed that we all have numerous different life roles we experience as we strive to develop a career into which we integrate these multiple roles. He believed we express our self-concept through our choice of career.

70
Q

According to Donald Super, how is self-concept expressed?

A

Through one’s choice of career

71
Q

What are Super’s 5 stages of career development?

A 
Growth
Exploration
Establishment
Maintenance
Decline
72
Q

According to Super, what is career maturity?

A

The ability to master tasks of one stage before moving onto the next stage.

73
Q

What is Super’s term for the ability to master tasks of one stage before moving onto the next stage?

A

Career Maturity

74
Q

Explain John Krumboltz’s career theory

A

It’s a social learning theory that states career development is based on social learning. We choose careers based on what we learn through modeling and reinforcement.

75
Q

Explain Tiedman and O’Hara’s career theory

A

This theory focuses on the opposed process of differentiation and integration. It focuses on decision making, as decisions structure career development.

76
Q

What did Tiedman and O’Hara mean by Differentiation?

A

Being able to make distinctions about ourselves and our environments. Who are we compared to others? What are the components of specific jobs?

77
Q

What did Tiedman and O’Hara mean by Integration?

A

Unifying what we know about ourselves and our jobs to make better decisions

78
Q

According to Tiedman and O’Hara, what are the 2 stages of every decision?

A

Anticipating

Implementing and Adjusting

79
Q

Explain Schein’s career theory

A

This is Career anchor Theory, which states that a person’s self-concepts acts to anchor or stabilize them in terms of their career decisions

80
Q

What is theory X?

A

Scientific Management Approach
Leaders believe people are no more than an extension of a machine. People are considered inherently lazy, dishonest, and stupid, so leaders are autocratic, aggressive, and use physical intimidation

81
Q

What is Theory Y?

A

The Human Relations Approach

This puts more focus on people than productivity

82
Q

What is the Scientific Management Approach?

A

Leaders believe people are no more than an extension of a machine. People are considered inherently lazy, dishonest, and stupid, so leaders are autocratic, aggressive, and use physical intimidation

83
Q

The Hawthorne Study affected which management style/approach?

A

Human Relations Approach (Theory Y)

84
Q

What was the purpose of the Hawthorne study?

A

To determine how environment factors affect productivity

85
Q

What did the Hawthorne study find?

A

Psychological factors had a greater impact on job productivity than physical factors

86
Q

What is the Hawthorne Effect?

A

Behavior changes when being observed

87
Q

What is the term for behavior change as a result of being observed?

A

The Hawthorne Effect

88
Q

What are the 3 types of leaders?

A

Authoritarian
Autocratic/Democratic
Lassaiz-Faire

89
Q

What leadership style leads to increased productivity?

A

Authoritarian and Autocratic

90
Q

According to reward and punishment theories, what is linked to greater job productivity and satisfaction?

A

Performance contingent rewards/punishments

91
Q

Explain Fiedler’s LPC Theory

A

LPC means least preferred co-worker. Leaders are classified by how high of a rating they would give their LPC co-worker. High LPC’s are relationship oriented and would give their LPC an overall high score. Low LPC’s are task oriented and would give their LPC a low score. The theory suggests that task effectiveness is determined by situational factors as well as LPC rating.

92
Q

Which type of leader is preferred in difficult tasks with a low likelihood of success?

A

Low LPC

93
Q

Which type of leader is preferred in tasks with a moderate likelihood of success?

A

High LPC

94
Q

Which type of leader is preferred in tasks with a high likelihood for success?

A

Low LPC

95
Q

Low LPC leaders are preferred for what types of tasks?

A

Difficult or Easy Tasks

96
Q

High LPC leaders are preferred for what types of tasks?

A

Moderate Difficulty Tasks

97
Q

Explain Broom and Yetten’s Model Leadership

A

This is a decision-making model that states that the degree of participation in decision making should depend on the importance of a decision and how quickly it needs to be made

98
Q

Explain Situational Leadership

A 
This model states that a leader's method of communication should be determined based on the employee's readiness to perform. It includes the following 4 methods ranked from least to most ready to perform:
Telling
Selling
Participating
Delegating
99
Q

What is a transactional leader?

A

Someone who influences subordinates through daily interactions

100
Q

What is a transformational leader?

A

Someone that can bring about change in subordinates

101
Q

What are 5 types of power that can be ascribed to someone?

A 
Reward Power
Coercive Power
Legitimate Power
Referent Power
Expert Power
102
Q

What is reward power?

A

A person has the power, because they give the rewards.

103
Q

What is coercive power?

A

Power that comes because of the ability to punish

104
Q

What is legitimate power?

A

Power based on position in the organization

105
Q

What is referent power?

A

Power based on admiration

106
Q

What is expert power?

A

Power based on having an expertise or skill

107
Q

What kind of power is a result of the ability to reward?

A

Reward Power

108
Q

What kind of power is given as a result of the ability to punish?

A

Coercive Power

109
Q

What kind of power is given based on one’s position within the organization?

A

Legitimate Power

110
Q

What kind of power is based on admiration?

A

Referent Power

111
Q

What kind of power is based on having an expertise or skill?

A

Expert Power

112
Q

What is the Rational Economic Model of Decision-Making

A

Also known as the Classical Approach
The problem needs to be clearly defined and this approach requires developing and evaluation ALL POSSIBLE solutions before choosing one

113
Q

What is the Administrative Model of Decision-Making

A

Also known as the Behavioral/Satisfycing Style
This model is useful with ambiguous problems or problems for which it is not possible to evaluate or know all alternatives, or problems that require quick solutions. This model uses the first satisfactory alternative when making a decision.

114
Q

What are some Needs Theories of motivation?

A

Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs
Herzberg’s Theory
ERG Theory
Machlellan’s Acquired Needs Theory

115
Q

What is Herzberg’s Theory of Motivation?

A

Two Factor Theory (Motivator Hygiene Theory) states that what leads to satisfaction is different than what leads to dissatisfaction. Lower level hygiene needs are based on job context, and are likely to lead to dissatisfaction if not met. Upper level motivator needs refer to job content and are likely to lead to satisfaction if met.

116
Q

According to Herzberg, what are examples of hygiene factors?

A

Supervisor
Working conditions
Pay
Peer Relationships

117
Q

According to Herzberg, what are examples of motivating factors?

A

Achievement
Responsibility
Opportunity

118
Q

What is Job Enrichment?

A

Expanding jobs to give people more role in creating their jobs. This is vertical loading.

119
Q

What are some positive consequences of job enrichment?

A

Increases satisfaction and productivity. Decreases turnover and absenteeism.

120
Q

What is Job Enlargement?

A

Horizontal Loading. It expands the variety of tasks, but not increased responsibility or autonomy.

121
Q

What is ERG Theory?

A

This theory suggests three needs: Existence, Relatedness, and Growth. If one need is met, it may become stronger.

122
Q

What are the 3 needs in ERG theory?

A

Existence
Relatedness
Growth

123
Q

What is Machlellan’s Acquired Needs Theory?

A

There are three needs: Need for Achievement, Need for Affiliation, and Need for Power, which are achieved over time.

124
Q

Which 3 needs are explained in Machlellan’s Acquired Needs Theory?

A

Need for Achievement
Need for Affiliation
Need for Power

125
Q

What are some cognitive theories of motivation?

A

VIE Theory
Equity Theory
Goal Setting Approach

126
Q

What is VIE Theory?

A

Also known as General Expectancy Theory or Valence Instrumentality Expectancy Theory. It states that what motivates us is based on how we perceive 3 things, our expectancy of success, our expectation of a reward, and the value of the reward expected. All need to be present to be motivated.

127
Q

What is Valence in VIE theory?

A

The value of the reward expected

128
Q

What is Instrumentality in VIE Theory?

A

The expectation of a reward

129
Q

What is Expectancy in VIE theory?

A

The expectation of success

130
Q

What is Equity Theory?

A

Judging our input and output relative to others to determine if our output is equitable. Inequity is motivating and will cause us to adjust our performance.

131
Q

You are working in PSU and seeing 20 clients each week. Your co-worker, who earns the same pay as you, sees 10 clients a week. According to equity theory, what is likely to happen?

A

You are likely to begin seeing less clients.

132
Q

What are the 5 principles of Goal Setting Approach?

A 
Setting Specific Goals
Intermediate to High Level of Difficulty
Workers need Feedback
Self-Efficacy Affects Performance
Employees need to Accept the Goals
133
Q

What has the greatest effect on job satisfaction?

A

Genetics

134
Q

How does pay relate to job satisfaction?

A

Can lead to dissatisfaction, but not satisfaction

135
Q

How does Age relate to job satisfaction?

A

The older we get, the more satisfied we are likely to be

136
Q

How does gender affect job satisfaction?

A

It doesn’t

137
Q

How does race affect job satisfaction?

A

Whites appear more satisfied than minorities, which is most significant at the management level

138
Q

What are the effects of occupational level on job satisfaction?

A

Higher occupational level is related to more satisfaction

139
Q

What is Organizational Development?

A

It’s based on the idea that organizations constantly need to self-monitor and self-assess to plan for change. Strengths and weaknesses are assessed to determine the ability of the organization to cope with change from the outside environment. Lots of money is spent on this with very little effect.

140
Q

What is an additive task?

A

The performance of all group members is combined for a single result

141
Q

What is a disjunctive task?

A

A task in which the outcome is affected by only the strongest or most effective member

142
Q

What is a conjunctive task?

A

A task in which the group’s overall accomplishment is limited by the least effective person

143
Q

What characteristics lead to more cohesive groups?

A 
Similar Personalities
Smaller Size
Less Diversity
Team Rewards
Outside Pressures
Difficulty Joining the Group
Frequent Interactions
144
Q

What is risky shift?

A

The tendency for people in part of a group to make a riskier decision than if they were to make the decision as an individual

145
Q

What is the term for the tendency for people in part of a group to make a riskier decision than if they were to make the decision as an individual

A

Risky Shift

146
Q

What is Response Polarization?

A

Having a view become more extreme when in the presence of like-minded individuals

147
Q

What is the term for having a view become more extreme when in the presence of like-minded individuals?

A

Response Polarization

148
Q

What are the effects of a compressed workweek?

A

Reduced anxiety and turnover
Increased Satisfaction
No effect on Productivity

149
Q

What are the effects of flex time?

A

May increase morale and productivity

Decreases absenteeism and turnover

150
Q

What is the most effective way to increase safety on the work site?

A

Safety Incentive Programs

151
Q

What are the 4 levels of criteria that can be used to assess the effectiveness of training programs?

A

Reaction Criteria
Learning Criteria
Behavioral Criteria
Results Criteria

152
Q

Explain Brousseau and Driver’s Career theory

A

Their decision dynamics career model emphasizes a person’s career concept, which refers to how the person envisions his or her ideal career path

153
Q

What are Brousseau and Driver’s 4 career paths?

A

Linear
Expert
Spiral
Transitory

154
Q

What is a Linear Career Concept?

A

When a person views her progress as involving a progressive upward movement in terms of authority and responsibility

155
Q

Which career concept involves a progressive upward movement in terms of authority and responsibility?

A

Linear Career Concept

156
Q

What is an Expert Career Concept?

A

When a person views his career as involving a lifelong commitment to an occupational specialty and focuses on developing his/her knowledge and skills within that specialty.

157
Q

Which career concept involves a lifelong commitment to an occupational specialty and focuses on developing his/her knowledge and skills within that specialty?

A

Expert Career Concept

158
Q

What is a Spiral Career Concept?

A

When a person views his career as involving periodic moves across occupational specialties or disciplines.

159
Q

Which career concept involves periodic moves across occupational specialties or disciplines?

A

Spiral Career Concept

160
Q

What is a Transitory Career Concept?

A

When a person considers the ideal career as involving frequent job changes, often to jobs in unrelated fields.

161
Q

Which career concept considers the ideal career as involving frequent job changes, often to jobs in unrelated fields?

A

Transitory Career Concept

162
Q

Explain the Theory of Work Adjustment

A

The TWA describes satisfaction, tenure, and other job outcomes as the result of the correspondence between the worker and his work environment on the dimensions of satisfaction and satisfactoriness. Satisfaction depends on the the degree to which the characteristics of the job correspond with his needs and values. Satisfactoriness depends on the correspondences between a worker’s skill and the demands of the job.

163
Q

What is Satisfaction according to TWA?

A

The degree to which the characteristics of the job correspond with an individual’s needs and values.

164
Q

What is Satisfactoriness according to TWA?

A

The degree to which an individual’s skills match the demands of the job.

EPPP Audio (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions