Industrial/Organizational Psychology Flashcards

(164 cards)

1
Q

What was the result of Title VII of the Civil Rights Act?

A

Employers can no longer discriminate against employees or potential employees on the basis of a protected status.

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2
Q

What are the Uniform Guidelines of Employee Selection?

A

A test that adversely affects hiring, promotion, or selection of applicants constitutes discrimination. (However, you can still use the test if the test has been validated as useful, but no alternatives are available)

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3
Q

What was the result of Griggs v. Duke Power Company?

A

Tests of general broad abilities, specifically those in which minorities pass at much lower rates than Whites, are unfair for employment and promotion. Any tests used for hiring must be specific for the job skills needed.

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4
Q

What is Adverse Impact?

A

Based on the 4/5 Concept or 80% rule.

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5
Q

Using the 80% rule, if 20/100 White applicants are hired, how many Black Applicants would need to be hired to not be adversely impacted?

A

At least 16% of the total number of Black Applicants (so if there were 10 Black Applicants, 2 would need to be hired).

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6
Q

What is unfairness?

A

Unfairness occurs when two group score similarly on a criterion, but differently on a predictor test. If this predictor test is used to choose applicants, the minority will appear lower and be less likely to be chosen based on the predictor cutoff. However, they are likely to perform just as well on the criterion, even though the test does not show this.

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7
Q

Differential Validity

A

The validity of the test is different for different groups. This means the predictor does not predict the criterion in the same manner for all individuals. It’s likely to lead to unfairness.

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8
Q

If a test has parallel regression lines for different groups, the test can be said to have ____________.

A

Differential Validity

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9
Q

What is job analysis?

A

Gathering information about the job, including necessary tasks, skills, tools, and education needed to perform the job successfully.

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10
Q

Why is job analysis done?

A

To determine hiring criteria, training issues, and provide feedback about job performance.

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11
Q

What is the critical incident technique?

A

A systematic approach at looking at what leads to successful vs. unsuccessful outcomes on the job

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12
Q

The critical incident technique is a part of what?

A

Job Analysis

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13
Q

What is a job evaluation?

A

Figuring out how much money a job is worth to the organization.

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14
Q

What are some methods of employee selection?

A

Biodata, Interviews, Assessment Centers, and References/Letters of Recommendation

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15
Q

What is biodata?

A

It includes biographical information including education and employment history.

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16
Q

What is the difference between a standard and a weighted application?

A

When applications are weighted, some information is given more weight than others when making decisions.

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17
Q

What is the Biographical Information Blank?

A

It covers an applicants life history in greater detail. It includes items correlated with successful job outcomes. They are excellent predictors of job success and good predictors of job turnover. However, they’re not widely used, because of how cumbersome they are.

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18
Q

What employee selection technique is considered least valid?

A

Interviews

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19
Q

What can be done to add to the validity of interviews?

A

Making interviews structured, having multiple interviewers, and training interviewers

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20
Q

What is the First Impression Bias?

A

The tendency for the initial impression of a candidate to remain throughout the interview.

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21
Q

What is the Negative Information Bias?

A

The tendency for one or two small pieces of negative information to cause you to overlook the positive.

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22
Q

What is the Contrast Effect?

A

When you rate the person you’re interviewing in comparison to the person who interviewed directly before them.

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23
Q

What is the Halo Effect?

A

When we generalize traits based on one characteristic. Can be positive or negative. The most common halo affect is that of attractiveness.

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24
Q

What are assessment centers?

A

They are simulated testing. You put potential job applicants into a simulated job situation and observe and evaluate them. This process allowed you to obtain a work sample, but it time consuming and complicated. It’s generally only used by upper level management. It has excellent criterion validity.

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25
What are two examples of tasks used in assessment centers?
The In Basket Technique and the Leaderless Group Discussion
26
What are some types of tests used for personnel selection?
Wonderlick Personnel Test, Aptitute tests, Personality Tests, Interests Tests, Work Sample Tests, Test Batteries
27
What are the 3 different approaches for employee selection?
Multiple Regression Approach Multiple Cut-Off Approach Multiple Hurdles
28
What is the Multiple Regression Approach to employee selection?
A multiple regression equation is used to make a decision based on multiple predictors. This approach is compensatory, because a low score in a one area can be compensated for by a high score in another area.
29
What does it mean if a test in compensatory?
Low scores and high scores can balance each other out
30
What is the multiple cut-off approach to employee selection?
Multiple different areas are evaluated and you must meet or exceed the cut-off in every area of evaluation.
31
What is the multiple hurdles method of employee selection?
Predictors are arranged in a specific order, and candidates must meet or exceed each hurdle successively before moving onto the next hurdle.
32
What 3 things contribute to employee performance?
Motivation Ability Opportunities
33
What is the purpose of performance appraisals?
To decide salary and bonuses and to give feedback to the employee
34
What type of objective measures are used in performance appraisals?
Output | Errors
35
What are 3 types of Comparative Subjective Ranking?
Straight Rating Forced Distribution Paired Comparisons
36
What is straight ranking?
Ranking all employees from best to worst.
37
What is forced distribution ranking?
Taking all employees and forcing them to fit a specific distribution (grading on a curve)
38
What is paired comparisons ranking?
Comparing all employees to one another in individual pairs.
39
Can comparative methods be used to eliminate biases in rankings?
No
40
What are 5 examples of individual subjective rating scales?
``` Graphic Rating Scales BARS (Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales) BOS (Behavioral Observation Scales) Forced Choice Behavioral Checklist ```
41
What is a graphic rating scale?
A scale that rates employees based on a likert scale of job dimensions.
42
What is BARS?
Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scale It's based on critical incidents to measure success or lack of successful. It's time-consuming to develop and only measures hypothetical situations and not daily activities.
43
What is BOS?
Behavioral Observation Scales | Checking off behaviors an employee performs
44
What is the forced choice rating scale?
You are provided with a pair of adjectives that are similarly desirable or undesirable and you are forced to choose which best describes the employee.
45
What is a behavioral checklist?
You are given a list of adjectives and you choose which adjectives best describe a person.
46
What is Management by Objectives (MBO)?
Managers, employees, and supervisors come up with goals together, and then the employee is involved with measuring their progress towards these goals. They tend to increase motivation and productivity.
47
What is a rater error?
When a rater is making an error based on the task performed. This includes the strictness set, leniency set, and central tendency set.
48
What is the recency bias?
When we rate people over an extended period of time we are more influenced by their most recent performance than by behaviors that occurred longer ago.
49
What is an attribution error?
When someone you don't like performs poorly, you attribute it to an internal personal characteristic they possess, but if we like the person we tend to attribute their poor performance to situational factors.
50
What is Frame of Reference (FOR) training?
A strategy for reducing rater error in which raters are given clear and specific training about what constitutes a specific rating with examples.
51
What are some forms of training/staff development?
Non-Participative, Individual Participative, Group Participative, and Job Rotation
52
What are some examples of non-participative training?
Watching a video or listening to a lecture
53
What are some examples of individual participative training?
Programmed Instruction or Simulation/Vestibule Training
54
What is Programmed Instruction?
A combination of book-led and computer software training. It's a good was of training a large group of participants individually, but simultaneously.
55
What is simulation/vestibule training?
It simulates the job situation, but is not identical. This is often used when on-the-job training would be too hazardous.
56
What are some factors that may affect training?
``` Individual differences Pre-training expectations Self-efficacy Motivation Active vs. Passive Practice Massed vs. Spaced Practice Whole vs. Part Learning Transfer of training ```
57
What tasks are overlearning most important for?
Tasks you don't do frequently or will need to be done under stress
58
What can improve the transfer of training?
Overlearning Identical Elements Feedback Reinforcement
59
What is John Holland's Theory of Career Development?
Personality-Jobs Fit Theory It focuses on matching an individual's personality and individual traits with job traits RIASEC
60
RIASEC is associated with which theorist?
John Holland
61
What does RIASEC stand for?
``` Realistic Investigative Artistic Social Enterprising Conventional ```
62
What is the self-directed search?
It's a tool used in John Holland's career theory in which an individual ends up with a 1 to 3 letter code that represents their work preferences (RIASEC code)
63
What is congruence according to John Holland?
The match between your personality and the job environment
64
What is consistency according to John Holland?
How consistent your RIASEC code is. It's determined by how close your first two codes are on the hexagon and is related to increased job stability.
65
What is differentiation according to John Holland?
How distinct your RIASEC profile is
66
How distinct your personality profile is, according to John Holland is called ____________
Differentiation
67
How consistent your RIASEC code is as determined by how close the first two codes are on the hexagon is termed _______________
Consistency
68
What is the term for John Holland's match between your personality and job environment?
Congruence
69
Explain Donald Super's Career Theory
Super developed the career rainbow, which explains changes that occur from career entry to retirement. He believes that career patterns are affected by SES, abilities, personality, and opportunities to which you are exposed. He believed that we all have numerous different life roles we experience as we strive to develop a career into which we integrate these multiple roles. He believed we express our self-concept through our choice of career.
70
According to Donald Super, how is self-concept expressed?
Through one's choice of career
71
What are Super's 5 stages of career development?
``` Growth Exploration Establishment Maintenance Decline ```
72
According to Super, what is career maturity?
The ability to master tasks of one stage before moving onto the next stage.
73
What is Super's term for the ability to master tasks of one stage before moving onto the next stage?
Career Maturity
74
Explain John Krumboltz's career theory
It's a social learning theory that states career development is based on social learning. We choose careers based on what we learn through modeling and reinforcement.
75
Explain Tiedman and O'Hara's career theory
This theory focuses on the opposed process of differentiation and integration. It focuses on decision making, as decisions structure career development.
76
What did Tiedman and O'Hara mean by Differentiation?
Being able to make distinctions about ourselves and our environments. Who are we compared to others? What are the components of specific jobs?
77
What did Tiedman and O'Hara mean by Integration?
Unifying what we know about ourselves and our jobs to make better decisions
78
According to Tiedman and O'Hara, what are the 2 stages of every decision?
Anticipating | Implementing and Adjusting
79
Explain Schein's career theory
This is Career anchor Theory, which states that a person's self-concepts acts to anchor or stabilize them in terms of their career decisions
80
What is theory X?
Scientific Management Approach Leaders believe people are no more than an extension of a machine. People are considered inherently lazy, dishonest, and stupid, so leaders are autocratic, aggressive, and use physical intimidation
81
What is Theory Y?
The Human Relations Approach | This puts more focus on people than productivity
82
What is the Scientific Management Approach?
Leaders believe people are no more than an extension of a machine. People are considered inherently lazy, dishonest, and stupid, so leaders are autocratic, aggressive, and use physical intimidation
83
The Hawthorne Study affected which management style/approach?
Human Relations Approach (Theory Y)
84
What was the purpose of the Hawthorne study?
To determine how environment factors affect productivity
85
What did the Hawthorne study find?
Psychological factors had a greater impact on job productivity than physical factors
86
What is the Hawthorne Effect?
Behavior changes when being observed
87
What is the term for behavior change as a result of being observed?
The Hawthorne Effect
88
What are the 3 types of leaders?
Authoritarian Autocratic/Democratic Lassaiz-Faire
89
What leadership style leads to increased productivity?
Authoritarian and Autocratic
90
According to reward and punishment theories, what is linked to greater job productivity and satisfaction?
Performance contingent rewards/punishments
91
Explain Fiedler's LPC Theory
LPC means least preferred co-worker. Leaders are classified by how high of a rating they would give their LPC co-worker. High LPC's are relationship oriented and would give their LPC an overall high score. Low LPC's are task oriented and would give their LPC a low score. The theory suggests that task effectiveness is determined by situational factors as well as LPC rating.
92
Which type of leader is preferred in difficult tasks with a low likelihood of success?
Low LPC
93
Which type of leader is preferred in tasks with a moderate likelihood of success?
High LPC
94
Which type of leader is preferred in tasks with a high likelihood for success?
Low LPC
95
Low LPC leaders are preferred for what types of tasks?
Difficult or Easy Tasks
96
High LPC leaders are preferred for what types of tasks?
Moderate Difficulty Tasks
97
Explain Broom and Yetten's Model Leadership
This is a decision-making model that states that the degree of participation in decision making should depend on the importance of a decision and how quickly it needs to be made
98
Explain Situational Leadership
``` This model states that a leader's method of communication should be determined based on the employee's readiness to perform. It includes the following 4 methods ranked from least to most ready to perform: Telling Selling Participating Delegating ```
99
What is a transactional leader?
Someone who influences subordinates through daily interactions
100
What is a transformational leader?
Someone that can bring about change in subordinates
101
What are 5 types of power that can be ascribed to someone?
``` Reward Power Coercive Power Legitimate Power Referent Power Expert Power ```
102
What is reward power?
A person has the power, because they give the rewards.
103
What is coercive power?
Power that comes because of the ability to punish
104
What is legitimate power?
Power based on position in the organization
105
What is referent power?
Power based on admiration
106
What is expert power?
Power based on having an expertise or skill
107
What kind of power is a result of the ability to reward?
Reward Power
108
What kind of power is given as a result of the ability to punish?
Coercive Power
109
What kind of power is given based on one's position within the organization?
Legitimate Power
110
What kind of power is based on admiration?
Referent Power
111
What kind of power is based on having an expertise or skill?
Expert Power
112
What is the Rational Economic Model of Decision-Making
Also known as the Classical Approach The problem needs to be clearly defined and this approach requires developing and evaluation ALL POSSIBLE solutions before choosing one
113
What is the Administrative Model of Decision-Making
Also known as the Behavioral/Satisfycing Style This model is useful with ambiguous problems or problems for which it is not possible to evaluate or know all alternatives, or problems that require quick solutions. This model uses the first satisfactory alternative when making a decision.
114
What are some Needs Theories of motivation?
Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs Herzberg's Theory ERG Theory Machlellan's Acquired Needs Theory
115
What is Herzberg's Theory of Motivation?
Two Factor Theory (Motivator Hygiene Theory) states that what leads to satisfaction is different than what leads to dissatisfaction. Lower level hygiene needs are based on job context, and are likely to lead to dissatisfaction if not met. Upper level motivator needs refer to job content and are likely to lead to satisfaction if met.
116
According to Herzberg, what are examples of hygiene factors?
Supervisor Working conditions Pay Peer Relationships
117
According to Herzberg, what are examples of motivating factors?
Achievement Responsibility Opportunity
118
What is Job Enrichment?
Expanding jobs to give people more role in creating their jobs. This is vertical loading.
119
What are some positive consequences of job enrichment?
Increases satisfaction and productivity. Decreases turnover and absenteeism.
120
What is Job Enlargement?
Horizontal Loading. It expands the variety of tasks, but not increased responsibility or autonomy.
121
What is ERG Theory?
This theory suggests three needs: Existence, Relatedness, and Growth. If one need is met, it may become stronger.
122
What are the 3 needs in ERG theory?
Existence Relatedness Growth
123
What is Machlellan's Acquired Needs Theory?
There are three needs: Need for Achievement, Need for Affiliation, and Need for Power, which are achieved over time.
124
Which 3 needs are explained in Machlellan's Acquired Needs Theory?
Need for Achievement Need for Affiliation Need for Power
125
What are some cognitive theories of motivation?
VIE Theory Equity Theory Goal Setting Approach
126
What is VIE Theory?
Also known as General Expectancy Theory or Valence Instrumentality Expectancy Theory. It states that what motivates us is based on how we perceive 3 things, our expectancy of success, our expectation of a reward, and the value of the reward expected. All need to be present to be motivated.
127
What is Valence in VIE theory?
The value of the reward expected
128
What is Instrumentality in VIE Theory?
The expectation of a reward
129
What is Expectancy in VIE theory?
The expectation of success
130
What is Equity Theory?
Judging our input and output relative to others to determine if our output is equitable. Inequity is motivating and will cause us to adjust our performance.
131
You are working in PSU and seeing 20 clients each week. Your co-worker, who earns the same pay as you, sees 10 clients a week. According to equity theory, what is likely to happen?
You are likely to begin seeing less clients.
132
What are the 5 principles of Goal Setting Approach?
``` Setting Specific Goals Intermediate to High Level of Difficulty Workers need Feedback Self-Efficacy Affects Performance Employees need to Accept the Goals ```
133
What has the greatest effect on job satisfaction?
Genetics
134
How does pay relate to job satisfaction?
Can lead to dissatisfaction, but not satisfaction
135
How does Age relate to job satisfaction?
The older we get, the more satisfied we are likely to be
136
How does gender affect job satisfaction?
It doesn't
137
How does race affect job satisfaction?
Whites appear more satisfied than minorities, which is most significant at the management level
138
What are the effects of occupational level on job satisfaction?
Higher occupational level is related to more satisfaction
139
What is Organizational Development?
It's based on the idea that organizations constantly need to self-monitor and self-assess to plan for change. Strengths and weaknesses are assessed to determine the ability of the organization to cope with change from the outside environment. Lots of money is spent on this with very little effect.
140
What is an additive task?
The performance of all group members is combined for a single result
141
What is a disjunctive task?
A task in which the outcome is affected by only the strongest or most effective member
142
What is a conjunctive task?
A task in which the group's overall accomplishment is limited by the least effective person
143
What characteristics lead to more cohesive groups?
``` Similar Personalities Smaller Size Less Diversity Team Rewards Outside Pressures Difficulty Joining the Group Frequent Interactions ```
144
What is risky shift?
The tendency for people in part of a group to make a riskier decision than if they were to make the decision as an individual
145
What is the term for the tendency for people in part of a group to make a riskier decision than if they were to make the decision as an individual
Risky Shift
146
What is Response Polarization?
Having a view become more extreme when in the presence of like-minded individuals
147
What is the term for having a view become more extreme when in the presence of like-minded individuals?
Response Polarization
148
What are the effects of a compressed workweek?
Reduced anxiety and turnover Increased Satisfaction No effect on Productivity
149
What are the effects of flex time?
May increase morale and productivity | Decreases absenteeism and turnover
150
What is the most effective way to increase safety on the work site?
Safety Incentive Programs
151
What are the 4 levels of criteria that can be used to assess the effectiveness of training programs?
Reaction Criteria Learning Criteria Behavioral Criteria Results Criteria
152
Explain Brousseau and Driver's Career theory
Their decision dynamics career model emphasizes a person's career concept, which refers to how the person envisions his or her ideal career path
153
What are Brousseau and Driver's 4 career paths?
Linear Expert Spiral Transitory
154
What is a Linear Career Concept?
When a person views her progress as involving a progressive upward movement in terms of authority and responsibility
155
Which career concept involves a progressive upward movement in terms of authority and responsibility?
Linear Career Concept
156
What is an Expert Career Concept?
When a person views his career as involving a lifelong commitment to an occupational specialty and focuses on developing his/her knowledge and skills within that specialty.
157
Which career concept involves a lifelong commitment to an occupational specialty and focuses on developing his/her knowledge and skills within that specialty?
Expert Career Concept
158
What is a Spiral Career Concept?
When a person views his career as involving periodic moves across occupational specialties or disciplines.
159
Which career concept involves periodic moves across occupational specialties or disciplines?
Spiral Career Concept
160
What is a Transitory Career Concept?
When a person considers the ideal career as involving frequent job changes, often to jobs in unrelated fields.
161
Which career concept considers the ideal career as involving frequent job changes, often to jobs in unrelated fields?
Transitory Career Concept
162
Explain the Theory of Work Adjustment
The TWA describes satisfaction, tenure, and other job outcomes as the result of the correspondence between the worker and his work environment on the dimensions of satisfaction and satisfactoriness. Satisfaction depends on the the degree to which the characteristics of the job correspond with his needs and values. Satisfactoriness depends on the correspondences between a worker's skill and the demands of the job.
163
What is Satisfaction according to TWA?
The degree to which the characteristics of the job correspond with an individual's needs and values.
164
What is Satisfactoriness according to TWA?
The degree to which an individual's skills match the demands of the job.