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Pharmacology > Station Exam > Flashcards

Station Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What does a 1:1000 concentration represent in percent

A

.1%

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2
Q

What is epinephrine used for

A

Anaphylactic shock

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3
Q

Why would you use lidocaine with epinephrine as a local anesthetic to remove a pea size wart from a dog’s paw

A

Because it causes vasoconstriction

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4
Q

What is the classification of Benadryl

A

Antihistamine

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5
Q

What are three separate antibiotic classes

A

Penicillin, cephalosporin, beta-lactamase inhibitor

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6
Q

What is the classification of antirobe

A

Lincosamide

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7
Q

What is the classification of clavaseptin

A

Beta-lactamase inhibitor

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8
Q

What is the classification for Zeniquin

A

Fluroquinolone

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9
Q

What is the classification for Amoxil

A

Penicillin

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10
Q

What is the classification for baytril

A

Fluroquinolone

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11
Q

What is the classification for apo-doxy tabs

A

Tetracycline

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12
Q

What is the classification for novo lexin

A

Cephalosporin

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13
Q

What is the classification for S1 25

A

Sulfonamide

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14
Q

What is the classification for tylosin

A

Macrolide

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15
Q

What is the general classification for atropine and glycopyrrolate

A

Anticholinergic

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16
Q

Between atropine and glycopyrrolate which will have longer duration of action in the cat and what is the reason for that

A

Glycopyrrolate and it is due to no atropinase enzyme

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17
Q

List two reasons why atropine and glycopyrrolate are used as preanesthetic’s

A

Prevent secretions and restore cardiac rate

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18
Q

List three corticosteroids

A

Dexamethasone, prednisone, prednisolone

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19
Q

Out of those three corticosteroids which would be used in an emergency anaphylactic reaction

A

Dexamethasone

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20
Q

Which enteral product requires the liver to metabolize it to the active ingredient

A

Prednisone

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21
Q

Which enteral product does not require the liver to metabolize it to the active ingredient

A

Prednisolone

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22
Q

What is the classification for Rimadyl, Medicam, Tolfedine, deramax

A

Nsaid

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23
Q

What is cartrophen

A

Polysulfate sodium

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24
Q

What is triancinolone acetonide

A

Corticosteroid

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25
Q

What is the classification for nystatin

A

Antifungal

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26
Q

What is the classification for neomycin sulfate

A

Aminoglycosides

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27
Q

What is the classification for gramicidin

A

Antibiotic

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28
Q

What is the classification for miconazole nitrate

A

Antifungal

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29
Q

What is the classification for polymyxin B

A

Antibiotic

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30
Q

What is the classification for prednisolone acetate

A

Anti inflammatory

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31
Q

What is the classification for thiostrepton

A

Antibiotic

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32
Q

What is the classification for triamcinolone acetonide

A

Corticosteroid

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33
Q

What is the classification for gentamicin

A

Antibiotic

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34
Q

What is the classification for betamethasone

A

Glycorticoid (antiinflammatory)

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35
Q

What is the classification of clotrimazole

A

Antifungal

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36
Q

What is the classification for fusidic acid

A

Antibacterial

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37
Q

What is special about the dosage for Baytril in cats

A

Do not exceed dose as it causes retinal damage

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38
Q

What is special about aspirin

A

Causes a high risk of gastric bleeding

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39
Q

What is special about Tylenol for cats

A

Toxic

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40
Q

What is special about lidocaine intravenous use for cats

A

Cats are more sensitive to overdose

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41
Q

What is itrafungal used for

A

Antifungal/ ringworm

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42
Q

For preemptive pain control when should you give buprenorphine

A

15 to 30 minutes before surgery

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43
Q

In order to reverse buprenorphine why does the reversal agent have to be given repeatedly (pharmacokinetics)

A

Due to the fact that it disperses widely throughout the body tissue

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44
Q

What does high receptor avidity mean

A

It binds to many receptor strongly

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45
Q

Explain using pharmacokinetics why buprenorphine is long acting

A

It binds with high avidity so it takes a long time to disassociate from the receptors

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46
Q

Why is buprenorphine stored in the amber vile

A

Due to the fact that it is light-sensitive

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47
Q

What are the symptoms of euphoria in a cat

A

Mydriasis, pacing, facial rubbing

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48
Q

How long does buprenorphine last

A

8hr

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49
Q

How does buprenorphine compared to morphine

A

30 times as potent

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50
Q

What are special instructions you give to a client when you give Medicam

A

Shake well, give with the meal, discontinue if vomiting or diarrhea

51
Q

Which organ function should be tested for before giving Rimadyl long term and explain why

A

The liver due to the fact that the biotransformation occurs there.

52
Q

Explain the pharmacodynamics of Medicam using cox 1 and cox 2

A

Cox2 makes prostaglandins. Cox1 makes mucosa. If you block Cox2 you are an anti-inflammatory.

53
Q

What is a lyophile

A

Freeze dried

54
Q

Why do you only give a dose of convenia every 14 days

A

Due to the fact that the therapeutic index is maintained for two weeks. Highly protein-bound and slowly releases

55
Q

How is convenia eliminated from the body

A

Majority of it is excreted unchanged in the urine. There’s also minor excretion of the unchanged drug in the bile.

56
Q

What is special about convenia

A

Inhibits cell wall synthesis

57
Q

What is an endectocide

A

External and internal parasites

58
Q

Why is Ivomec safe for mammals

A

Because it does not cross the blood brain barrier

59
Q

What is propalin used for

A

Urinary incontinence

60
Q

What is the classification of propalin

A

Alpha adrenergic

61
Q

Other than propalin, what other drug could be prescribed for urinary incontinence

62
Q

What effect does angiotensin II have on the body

A

Controls vasoconstriction and release of aldosterone

63
Q

How is the liver involved in the pharmacokinetics of Fortekor

A

Converts Benazeprilhydrochloride to Benazeprilat.

64
Q

Describe the pharmacodynamics of fortekor

A

Ace inhibitor that blocks angiotensin from converting to the second form. The drug prevents vasoconstriction and hypertension

65
Q

Explain how vetmedin is an ionotrophic drug that reduces after load

A

Increases calcium sensitivity of myofilaments. Inhibits phosphodiesterase

66
Q

What is a contraindication for vetmedin

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy or aortic stenosis

67
Q

What is the classification of Naloxone and what is it used for

A

Opioid antagonist and an opioid overdosage

68
Q

What is praziquantel effective against and how does it work

A

Tapeworms. Acts by causing the tapeworm to lose the ability to resist digestion

69
Q

What is pyrantel pamoate effective against and how does it work

A

Hookworms and roundworms. Works by causing spastic paralysis

70
Q

What is febantel effective against and how does it work

A

Whip worms. Blocks parasite metabolism

71
Q

Is advantage nine considered a drug

A

No it is a pesticide.

72
Q

Does advantage nine require a prescription

A

No because it is a pesticide not a drug

73
Q

Does advantage nine go systemically

A

It distributes into sebaceous glands

74
Q

How Is advantage 2 different than advantage

A

Contains pyriproxyfen and advantage 2 is for dogs

75
Q

What is imidacloprid effective against

A

Fleas, mites and lice

76
Q

What is moxidectin

A

Hookworms, ascarids and heartworm

77
Q

What endoparasites is moxidectin not effective against

78
Q

What is an important warning for k9 advantage

A

Only for dogs and toxic to cats

79
Q

How is k9 advantix 2 different from advantix

A

You can only use it if you’re over 8 weeks and it contains pyriproxyfen

80
Q

How long is preventic’s duration of action

81
Q

What is the antidote if the dog ingeste a preventic collar

82
Q

What is a suspension

A

A dispersion of solids in a liquid

83
Q

When should program be given

A

Once a month, one month before fleas begin

84
Q

How is program classified

A

Insect development inhibitor

85
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of the active ingredient in program

A

Stops production of chitin

86
Q

How is profender excreted

A

By faecal route.

87
Q

Is profender metabolized by the liver

88
Q

Is sentinel systemic

A

Yes because it goes into the blood

89
Q

How is sentinel excreted

A

In the urine

90
Q

Would atropine be an antidote to sentinel overdose

A

No because it doesn’t inhibit acetylcholinesterase

91
Q

What part of the flea life cycle is affected by sentinel

92
Q

Why should puppies be dewormed every 2 weeks

A

To prevent re infection by ascarids

93
Q

Why is it recommended to start revolution one month before flea season

A

Insures fleas infesting the animal are killed and no viable flea eggs are produced. Breaks the flea cycle

94
Q

What is the most common adverse reaction to trifexis

95
Q

In which case would trifexis be contraindicated

A

In dogs with a history of epilepsy or seizures

96
Q

Explain the pharmacodynamics of fenbental in drontal plus

A

It blocks the parasites metabolism causing energy exchange breakdown and inhibited glucose uptake

97
Q

What is praziquantel effective against which group of parasites

98
Q

What is the concentration imadocloprid in advantage in mg/ml

99
Q

How is advantage 2 different from advantage

A

Contains pyriproxyfen and advantage 2 is for dogs t

100
Q

Which interceptor will be prescribed for a 55kg dogue de bordeaux

A

1 white tablet and 1 green tablet

101
Q

Name two insect growth regulators

A

Pyriproxyfen, lufenuron, methoprene

102
Q

Name 4 Avermectins

A

Ivermectin, moxidectin, milbemycin, selamectin

103
Q

What is the mechanism of action for sulcrafate

A

Gastromucosal protectants

104
Q

What is the mechanism of action of famotidine

A

H2 receptor antagonists

105
Q

What is the mechanism of action for amphogel

106
Q

What is the mechanism of action for omeprazole

A

Proton pump inhibitors

107
Q

What is the mechanism of action of misoprostol

A

Prostaglandin e-1 analogs

108
Q

What is the category of laxative with dulcolax

109
Q

What is the category of laxative for metamucil

A

Bulk producing agents

110
Q

What is the category of laxative for laxatone

111
Q

What is the category of laxative of lactulose

A

Hyperosmotic agent

112
Q

What is the category of laxative for ducusate sodium

A

Surfactants/stool softener

113
Q

What does epi stand for

A

Enzymatic pancreatic insuffiency

114
Q

What breed is predisposed to epi

A

German shepherd

115
Q

What food is used for dogs with epi

A

GI:low fat

116
Q

Describe the type of medication that will help a dog with epi

A

A supplement with pancreatic enzymes in it so the dog can digest food

117
Q

What condition would famotidine be used to treat

A

Antiacid- renal failure

118
Q

Name 2 animals that cannot vomit

A

Horses, rabbits

119
Q

What kind of drug is cerenia

A

Antiemetic

120
Q

How does sucralfate work to treat or prevent gastric ulcers

A

Binds to the surface of the ulcer to prevent further damage from the HCL

121
Q

Name two types of intestinal motility patterns

A

Segmentation, peristalsis

122
Q

Give one example of peripheral acting emetics

A

H2o2

Ipecac

123
Q

What would be an emetic for a feline patient

124
Q

What emetic would you use on a dog who ate chocolate

A

Apomorphine given in the conjunctiva

Pharmacology (15 decks)

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