Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Pharmacology > Quizzes > Flashcards

Quizzes Flashcards

0
Q

What is a common anticholinergic agent used in vet medicine

A

Atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

A cholinergic blocker is a drug that blocks the action of acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors of the _________ nervous system

A

Parasympathetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What happens when atropine is used in eyedrops

A

It causes the pupils to dilate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Why is atropine used as a preanesthetic

A

To protect the heart from bradycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Propranolol is an example of what category of drugs

A

Beta blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the adrenergic receptor that is located in the heart. They increase the heart rate, strength of contraction. Propanol is an example

A

Beta 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What type of adrenergic receptor causes smooth muscle surrounding blood vessels in the skin to constrict. Acepromazine blocks it

A

Alpha 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What adrenergic receptors are located on the ends of adrenergic neurons, where they help regulate the release of norepinephrine. Dormitor is an agonist.

A

Alpha 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What adrenergic receptor when stimulated they cause Bronchodilation. Ventolin is an agonist

A

Beta 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Where will atropine and glycopyrolate have their effect

A

Muscarinic receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What part of the autonomic nervous system is associated with fight or flight

A

Sympathetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What neurotransmitter is associated with fight or flight

A

Norepinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What neurotransmitter is for cholinergic sites

A

Acetylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the class of the drug

A

NSAID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What Are two other drugs that are also in this class

A

Metacam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the two client recommendations that go with this drug

A

Give with a meal

Discontinue use if animal is vomiting or has diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

True or false: the above class of drugs should be able to provide enough analgesia to allow an animal with a broken leg to be positioned for a radiograph of the leg without using anesthesia

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

True or false: cox 1 maintains physiologic functions such as modulation of renal blood flow and synthesis of gastric mucosa

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are three different classes of drugs that are used as a pre anesthetic

A

NSAID, opiate and tranquilizers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the reason for using an nsaid

A

Good anti inflammatory which ultimately helps to reduce pain. Less inflammation is less pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is an opiate

A

Helps to stop the body from receiving pain. It stops pain before it even starts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is a tranquilizer used for

A

Works well in conjunction with opiates. Calms animal which makes the knocking down process easier.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Where are enteral drugs are administered

A

Rectally and orally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What can pharmacokinetics be defined as

A

The method of absorption, metabolism, and excretion of a drug by the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
What can pharmacodynamics be defined by
The method by which the function of the living body is affected by the drug
25
What can therapeutic dose be defined by
The method by which the drug has the desired effect with minimal toxicity
26
Most excretion of drugs occurs via the
Liver bile and kidneys
27
WhEre does most biotransformation of drugs occurs in
The liver
28
Describe 3 aspects of the veterinarian client patient relationships for rx
☺️Veterinarian must be available for a follow up appointment ☺️Veterinarian must have seen the animal within a year and know about its medical history ☺️Veterinarian must make a decision for treatment based on the specific symptoms
29
Why are certain prescription drugs are also control drugs
They're drugs that have the potential for human abuse
30
State two parenteral methods to administer medication
Iv im
31
Use pharmacokinetics to explain why the oral amoxil is ineffective at treating otitis externa
It is ineffective because it does not reach the outer ear, it goes into the bloodstream and there is no real major blood supply to the outer ear so it is excreted out instead of going into the ear to treat the bacteria.
32
What drug is an alpha 2 agonist
Decided dormitor
33
What drug is an alpha 1 antagonist
Acepromazine
34
What drug is a beta blocker
Propanolol
35
What drug is a beta 2 agonist
Ventolin
36
What drug is a benzodiazepine tranquilizer
Valium
37
What drug is a phenothiazine tranquilizer
Acepromazine
38
What drug is an anticholinergic
Atropine
39
What drug is the reversal agent for dormitor
Antisedan
40
What drug is a long acting barbiturate
Phenobarbital
41
Where are barbiturates metabolized by
Liver
42
What is a side effect of barbiturates
They are potent depressors of the respiratory system
43
What drug is used to stimulate breathing if a dog stops breathing
Dopram or doxapram
44
If a dog is experiencing an anaphylactic reaction, what emergency drug will be used
Epinephrine
45
What is apo morphine used for
To induce vomiting in dogs
46
What is neuroleptanalgesia
Tranquilizer and narcotic
47
What are two common drugs used to control or prevent seizures in dogs
Phenobarbital and kBr
48
Name a drug that is very useful in seizures but has too short of a half life to prevent them
Diazepam
49
Give an example where clomipramine is used for in cats and dogs
For animals with aggression
50
What is Naloxone used for in vet medicine
It is an opiate reversal agent
51
How can addisons develop after being on corticosteroids
If the adrenal cortex is not being used as frequently due to negative feedback then it will shrink and be unable to produce acth
52
What are two precautions to take to prevent the development of addisons
Wean off of dosage until you're at lowest possible dose that works. Take it every other day so that the AC won't shrink.
53
Name two organs possibly damaged by rimadyl
Liver and kidney
54
Using pharmacokinetics explain why fentanyl is administered as a patch rather than an oral med
It has a very short half life as a pill and is metabolized by the liver too quickly and it doesn't have the 24hr to reach the stable state and is instead excreted in the urine
55
How long does a fentanyl patch last
72hr
56
What are short term effects of corticosteroid use
Polyphagia
57
What are long term effects of corticosteroid use
Delayed healing
58
What is the classification of trimeprazine tartrate
Antihistamine
59
What is the classification of prednisolone
Cortisone.
60
Name a beta lactamase inhibitor
Clavamox
61
In what class of antibiotic drugs are nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity potential side effects
Aminoglycosides
62
What medication is used to treat pasturella infection in rabbits and requires you to use gloves Because it causes aplastic anemia and blood dyscrasia
Chloramphenicol
63
Baytril, zeniquin and Orbax all belong to which group of antibiotics
Fluoroquinolones
64
What is a side effect of baytril being dosed in cats at a higher dosing schedule
Retinal damage
65
What is the clAss of antibiotics most commonly prescribed to treat mycoplasma or lymes is
Tetracyclines
66
What is the pharmacodynamics of penicillin
Destroys the cell wall
67
What does griseofulvin act on
Dermatophytes
68
Butorphanol is an opioid that is often used for analgesic properties but it also used in other clinical scenarios as
An antitissutive agent
69
Aminophylline and theophylline are ________ derivatives
Methylxanthine
70
What are expectorants
Drugs that liquify and dilute the viscus secretions of the respiratory tract, thereby helping to evacuate those secretions
71
Name a disease in cats were acyclovir would be used
Rhinovirus
72
In what diseases would interferon be used
Fiv, felv
73
Pseudoephedrine, ephedrine and phenyleprine are examples of what
Decongestants
74
Name a cholinergic blocker that dries up bronchial secretions and causes Bronchodilation
Antihistamine
75
Name a beta 2 adrenergic agent that causes Bronchodilation
Ventolin
76
Name the toxic ingredient in chocolate
Theobromine
77
What is igr
Insect growth regulator
78
What is praziquantel used for
Tapeworms
79
Ivermectin and moxidectin are part of which class
Avermectins
80
``` Identify which of the 4 is not a monthly heartworm preventative. Milbemycin oxime Selamactin Heart guard plus Diethylcarbamazine ```
Diethylcarbamazine
81
What is a topical solution that controls roundworms, hookworms, tapeworms
Profender
82
Praziquantel is the active ingredient found in what medication
Droncit
83
An organophosphate is a substance that can interfere with the function of the nervous system by inhibiting which enzyme
Cholinesterase
84
What dog breed is most susceptible to ivermectin toxicosis
Collie
85
T/F: heartworm disease can be acquired from a blood transfusion taken from a heartworm positive dog that has circulating microfilariae.
False
86
What is the name of the product that is an oral flea adulticide that causes rapid death of fleas
Cap star
87
What is the antidote for organophosphate toxicity
Atropine
88
List two monthly heartworm preventative but not fleas
Heart guard and interceptor
89
List two monthly flea only preventatives
Advantage, program
90
List 3 monthly heartworm and flea preventatives
Revolution, advantage multi and trifexis
91
List one oral flea and tick preventative
Bravecto
92
How is sentinel different than interceptor
Different active ingredients
93
How is capstar excreted
Unchanged in the urine. 1 day- dogs 2 days- cats
94
Explain to an owner how they should administer lopatol
Fast dog, give it to him in the morning with adequate water and 1/4 food. Give rest of food at dinner time
95
A 6 week 1lb kitten was given 2 tablets of milbemax- how concerned are you ?
I am, it's a 16x overdose.
96
How much ivermectin per kg will a 5kg dog receive
13ug/kg
97
For revolution, what is the difference in concentration of the drug between the cat and dog products
The dog concentration is 2x the cat concentration
98
In which case would trifexis be contraindicated
In dogs with a history of epilepsy or seizures
99
How much fenbendazole is in 5g of panacur?
1110 mg
100
How many tablets of pyran 35 would a 7kg cat get
4 tablets
101
How many ml of strongid T to deworm a 25kg dog
2.5ml
102
What is a faster than normal heart rate
Tachycardia
103
When situations cause spontaneous depolarization of cardiac muscle or abnormalities of the conduction system what might occur
Arrhythmia
104
CHF chronic congestive heart failure or results when the pumping ability of the heart is impaired to the extent that sodium and water are retained in an effort to compensate for inadequate cardiac output. It is associated with all of the following: exercise intolerance, ascites, pulmonary edema, diaphragmatic hernia except..........
Diaphragmatic hernia
105
What is digitalis. It is obtained from the dried leaves of the plant digitalis purpurea.
Cardiac glycoside
106
True or false: gloves do not have to be worn when applying nitroglycerin
False
107
What can Furosemide cause in patients
Hypokalemia
108
Name a common Ionatropic cardiac medicine prescribed for congestive heart failure
Vetmedin
109
Name a common ace inhibitor are used in the veterinary medicine
Fortekor
110
Name a drug that will be given to Jack to treat or help manage pulmonary edema
Lasix
111
By which route would lasix be given in order for it to be in Jack's system within 10 to 20 minutes
Intramuscular
112
Name a drug that can be given to Jack to help manage his general anxiety because of not being able to breathe
Morphine
113
What two active hormones are produced by the thyroid gland
T3 and T4
114
What is the concentration of Caninsulin
U40
115
How do you resuspend insulin
Rolling tube in hands. Don't shake it
116
Name the structures of the pancreas that produces insulin
Islets of langerhans or beta cells
117
When and how should the owner feed the cat
Feed 2x per day small portion of intake in the morning and night
118
When should the owner give Caninsulin
Morning and night
119
Describe how the owner should inject the Caninsulin
Sub cutaneously on alternate sides
120
What medical condition does topazole (methimazole) treat
Hyperthyroid
121
Name two treatments other than topazole for hyperthyroid
Radioactive iodine and surgical removal of adenoma
122
Estrogen in the form of diethylstilbestrol can be use to treat what problem in the dog
Urinary incontinence
123
If you draw up 20 U with a U 40 syringe- how many mls have you drawn up
0.5 ml

Pharmacology (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions