Stage 2 Oral Questions w/ Approach Chart Questions Flashcards
The flight instruments are divided into what two systems? What instruments make up the systems?
Gyroscopic System
- Attitude Indicator
- Heading Indicator
- Turn Coordinator
Pitot-Static System
- Airspeed
- Altimeter
- Vertical Speed Indicator
The three gyroscopic instruments are what?
How does the Gyroscopic System work?
Draw it out.
Gyroscopic Instruments
- Attitude Indicator - powered by vacuum system
- Heading Indicator - powered by vacuum system
- Turn Coodinator - powered by electrical system
The two characteristics of gyroscopes are what?
Rigidity in space - refers to the principle that a wheel with a heavily weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain fixed in the plane which it is spinning. By mounting this wheel, or gyroscope on a set of gimbals, the gyro is able to rotate freely in any plane
Precession - When a outside force tries to tilt a spinning gyro, the gyro responds as if the force had been applied at a point 90 degrees in the direction of rotation
Standard rate of turn is what?
How long does it take to turn 360 degrees?
What is the Angle of Bank Formula?
3 degrees per second
2 minutes to turn 360 degrees
Angle of Bank = True Airspeed ÷ 10 + 5
Describe the airframe, engine, and propeller for the Archer ii.
Airframe is of aluminum alloy construction
Engine
- Four cylinder
- Direct Drive
- Horizontally Opposed
- 180 Horsepower
- 2700 rpm
Propleller is a fixed-pitch type.
Describe the fuel System.
Draw it out.
Total Capacity - 50 Gal / 25 gal each wing
Usable Fuel - 48 Gal / 24 gal each wing
100 or 100LL aviation grade fuel
Describe the electrical system.
14-volt, 60 amp alternator, and a 12-volt battery
Draw out the pitot-static system
The ______ in the instrument is a black glass ball sealed inside a curved glass tube that is partially filled with a liquid for damping. This ball measures the relative strength of the force of gravity and the force of inertia caused by a turn.
The inclinometer in the instrument is a black glass ball sealed inside a curved glass tube that is partially filled with a liquid for damping. This ball measures the relative strength of the force of gravity and the force of inertia caused by a turn.
Describe the vacuum system
The system consists of an engine driven vacuum pump, a vacuum regulator, a filter and the necessary plumbing.
Name the types of airspeed
“G” Ice-T
Indicated airspeed (IAS) is the airspeed indicator reading (ASIR) uncorrected for instrument, position, and other errors.
Calibrated airspeed (CAS) is indicated airspeed corrected for instrument errors, position error (due to incorrect pressure at the static port) and installation errors.
Equivalent airspeed (EAS) is defined as the speed at sea level that would produce the same incompressible dynamic pressure as the true airspeed at the altitude at which the vehicle is flying.
True airspeed [(V_t)] is the speed of the aircraft relative to the atmosphere. The true airspeed and heading of an aircraft constitute its velocity relative to the atmosphere.
Ground speed is the speed of the aircraft relative to the ground rather than through the air, which can itself be moving relative to the ground.
What are the types of altutudes?
Absolute altitude – the vertical distance of an aircraft above the terrain.
Indicated altitude – the altitude read directly from the altimeter (uncorrected) after it is set to the current altimeter setting.
Pressure altitude – the altitude when the altimeter setting window is adjusted to 29.92. Pressure altitude is used for computer solutions to determine density altitude, true altitude, true airspeed, etc.
True altitude – the true vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level. Airport, terrain, and obstacle elevations found on aeronautical charts are true altitudes.
Density altitude – pressure altitude corrected for non-standard temperature variations. Directly related to an aircraft’s take off, climb, and landing performance.
Which instrument has diaphrams and aneroid waffers?
Altimeter has an aneroid waffer which expands and contracts as atmospheric pressure from the static source changes.
The airspeed indicator uses a diaphram that ram pressure pushes on.
The Vertical Speed Indicator has a diaphram with a calibrated leak
What is standard takeoff minimums?
1 SM visibility for single-and twin-engine airplanes.
1/2 SM for airplanes with more than 2 engines
When a triangle containing a “T” appears in the notes section, it signifies ________.
When a triangle containing a “T” appears in the notes section, it signifies the airport has nonstandard IFR takeoff minimums. Pilots should refer to the DPs section of the TPP to determine takeoff minimums.
When a triangle containing an “A” ( ) appears in the notes section, it signifies the airport has ________
When a triangle containing an “A” ( ) appears in the notes section, it signifies the airport has nonstandard IFR alternate minimums. Civil pilots should refer to the Alternate Minimums Section of the TPP to determine alternate minimums. Military pilots should refer to appropriate regulations.
What is prevailing visibility?
Runway visibility value (RVV)?
Runway visual Range (RVR)?
Prevailing visibility - The greatest distance a weather observer or tower personnel can see throughout one-half the horizon. Reported in SM or fractions of miles.
Runway visibility value (RVV) - The visibility determined for a particular runway by a device called a transmissometer, located near the runway.
Runway visual Range (RVR) - Based on what a pilot in a moving aircraft should see when looking down the runway from the approach end.
What is a DP?
An instrument departure procedure (DP) is a preplanned IFR procedure published in graphic or textual formats to provide pilots with obstruction clearance from the terminal area to the enroute structure.
What are the 2 types of departure procedures?
Obstacle Departure Procedure (ODP) - ODPs provide obstruction clearance via the least onerous route from the terminal area to the appropriate en route structure. ODPs are recommended for obstruction clearance and may be flown without ATC clearance unless an
alternate departure procedure (SID or radar vector) has been specifically assigned by ATC. Graphic ODPs have (OBSTACLE) printed in the procedure title (e.g., GEYSR THREE DEPARTURE (OBSTACLE), CROWN ONE DEPARTURE (RNAV)(OBSTACLE)).
- Only provides obstruction clearance.
- May be flown without an ATC clearance unless a SID or other instructions are assigned. (e.g. radar vectors)
- Graphic ODP denote “Obstacle” in the chart title.
- All new RNAV ODPs are available in graphical form.
- Found in the front of NACO chart booklets, arranged alphabetically by city name.
- Jeppesen charts show ODPs under the airport diagram (x0-9) page, or, at larger airports, on a separate chart.
Standard Instrument Departure Procedure (SID) - SIDs are ATC procedures printed for pilot/controller use in graphic form to provide obstruction clearance and a transition from the terminal area to the appropriate en route structure. SIDs are primarily designed for system enhancement and to reduce pilot/controller workload. ATC clearance must be received prior to flying a SID.
- Provide obstruction clearance and helps reducing radio congestion and workload by simplifying ATC clearances.
- Pilot NAV SIDs – Pilot navigates by charted routes with minimal radio instructions.
- Vector SIDs –Navigation is based on radar vectors. Routes are not printed on the chart.
- Some SIDs depict non-standard radio failure procedures.
- File ”NO SIDs” in the remarks of your flight plan if you choose not to use them.
- RNAV SIDs and all graphical RNAV ODPs require RNAV 1 performance. (±1 NM for 95% of the total flight time).
A _____ usually contains an initial set of instructions that apply to all aircrafts, followed by one or more transition routes that require you to navigate to the appropriate fix within the enroute structure.
pilot nav DP
During a ______, ATC provides radar vectors that start just after takeoff and continue until you reach your filed or assigned route. It is similar to the pilot nav DP, except for the absence of departure routes and transitions.
vector DP
_________ enables you to make precise VOR accuracy checks from most locations on an airport. This is possible because it broadcast s signal for only one radial - 360 degrees.
VOR test facilities (VOTs)
Tune you VOR receiver and listen for a series of dots or a continuous tone that identifies the facility as a VOT. Determine that the needle centers, + or - _____ degrees (ground or airborne), when the course selector is set to____ degrees with a TO indication, or _____ degrees with a FROM indication. If using an RMI, the bearing pointer should indicate ____ degrees + or - ____ degrees.
With an airborne checkpoint, the maximum permissible course error is + or - ____ degrees.
Tune you VOR receiver and listen for a series of dots or a continuous tone that identifies the facility as a VOT. Determine that the needle centers, + or - 4 degrees (ground or airborne), when the course selector is set to 180 degrees with a TO indication, or 360 degrees with a FROM indication. If using an RMI, the bearing pointer should indicate 180 degrees + or -4 degrees.
With an airborne checkpoint, the maximum permissible course error is + or - 6 degrees.
What are the 5 T’s
T - Turn
T - Time
T - Twist
T - Throttle
T - Talk
What are the different types of VOR Tests?
BADVAG
- Bench test +/- 4 (360 from)
- VOT +/- 4
- Ground Check +/- 4
- Airborne Check +/- 6
- Dual VOR Check 4 Degree Maximum Variatio
B- Bench (+/-4 )
A-Airborne (+/-6 )
D-Dual (+/-4 )
V-VOT (+/- 4 )
A-Airway (+/-6)
G-Ground (+/-4)
Name 2 types of VOR errors.
Cone of confusion
Reverse sensing
Can you substitute gps for dme?
Yes, you can use your IFR GPS in lieu of ADF or DME, provided you have a current database.
GPS can be used in lieu of DME and ADF on all localizer-type approaches as well as VOR/DME approaches, including when charted NDB or DME transmitters are temporarily out of service. It also clarifies that IFR GPS satisfies the requirement for DME at and above Flight Level 240 specified in FAR 91.205(e). This approval represents a major step toward removing the need to retain DME or ADF in our cockpits for any reason.
What is (RNAV)?
What is a waypoint?
Area navigation (RNAV).
Allows a pilot to fly a selected course to a predetermined point without the need to overfly ground-based navigation facilities, by using waypoints.
A waypoint is a special geographical location used for enroute, departure, arrival, and instrument approach definition, and for navigation progress reporting purposes
What is a STAR?
Standard Terminal Arrival Routes
STARs depict prescribed routes to transition the instrument pilot from the en route structure to a fix in the terminal area from which an instrument approach can be conducted. If a pilot does not have the appropriate STAR, write “No STAR” in the flight plan. However, if the controller is busy, the pilot might be cleared along the same route and, if necessary, the controller has the pilot copy the entire text of the procedure.
Standard Terminal Arrival Routes (STARs) have been established to simplify clearance delivery procedures for arriving aircraft at certain areas having high density traffic. A STAR serves a purpose parallel to that of a DP for departing traffic.
- Serves as a transition from the en route structure to a point from which an approach can begin.
- Transitions routes connect en route fixes to the basic STAR procedure.
- Usually named according to the fix at which the basic procedure begins.
- As with SIDs, you may state “No STARs” in your flight plan remark section if you choose not to use them.
- RNAV STARS require RNAV 1 performance.
What are the holding patterns speeds?
6,000 ft and below - 200 kts
Below 14,000 ft - 230 kts
Above 14,000 ft - 265 kts
What is a ILS?
A instrument landing system (ILS) is a precision approach navigational aid which provides highly accurate course, glide slope, and distance guidance to a given runway
A standard holding pattern entry from the 180 degree sector is called what?
A standard holding pattern entry from within the 110 degree sector is called what?
A standard entry from the 70 degree holding pattern sector is called what?
Direct entry
Parallel Entry.
Teardrop Entry
What is this section called
Pilot Briefing Information Section
What is this section called?
Plan View
What is this section called?
Profile View
What is this section called?
Minimums Section
What is this section called?
Airport Scketch
What does the ‘A’ inside the triangle mean?
non standard alternates exists at thr airport
What does MALSR and the symbol below it mean?
Medium imtensity approach lighting system
What does the star mean?
What does CTAF mean?
What does ‘L’ mean?
The facility operates Part-time. If only operates part time, a CTAF frequency will be also listed.
Common traffic advisory frequency (CTAF)
‘L’ means pilot control airport lighting is available and activated through the listed frequency.
What does this area mean?
It is charted to scale.
What do these symbols mean?
Spot elevation in MSL
What does it mean when contour images are added?
Obstacles are atleast 4000 ft above airport elevation or above 2000 ft above airport elevation within 6 NM of the runway
What does the small circle mean?
Minimum safe altitude (MSA) provides 1000 ft clearance over all obstacles within 25 NM of the Nav-aid. Clearance is at 3100 ft. and based on the ‘LOM/IAF’ outer marker. The identifier for the Nav-aid is ‘HS’.
What does this symbol mean?
Thats the navigational aid for the airport. It is the primary because it is enclosed in a bolded box.
What does this symbol mean?
It is a ‘Feeder Route’ to help transition from the enroute structure to the approach. The information provided is the altitude, course, and the distance.
What is the purpose of this symbol?
It is there to help define a certain location or position. In this example, it is used to define the SNACK location. It is NOT supposed to be flown because it is a thinner line with no altitude information.
What does this symbol mean?
A ‘Line Break’ means the distance to the Nav-aid is not drawn to scale.
What does this symbol mean?
Initial Approach Fix (IAF) is used to align the aircraft with the approach course.
There will sometimes be more than one to accomodate arrivals from different locations.
What does this symbol mean?
Identifies all procedual tracks that are part of the approach procedure. It has the magnetic course and sometimes will have altitude and distance information.
What does this symbol mean?
No procedural turn
What does this symbol mean?
The ‘up and out’ dashed lined is missed approach track. It coinsides with the upper right texual discription. If a Holding pattern is also necessary, it will also have a dashed lined
What does this symbol mean?
The minimum altitude because there is a line below the number. If there is a line below and above, this means a ‘mandatory altitude’. Should the be no lines above or below, this means it is only a recommended altitude. If there is a line only above, this means Maximum altitude.
What does this symbol mean?
Non precision Final Approach Fix (FAF). Above is the altitude at the final approach fix.
What does this symbol mean?
The Visual Decent Point (VDP). A point where a normal decent from the MDA to the runway can be made provided that visual requirements are met.
What section is this?
What is it dependent on?
How is approach speed calculated?
The lowest minumums are usually for waht?
What is the names for 298, 560, & 740?
- Landing Minumums - the lowest altitude you can decend to in instrument conditions and the minimum visibility requirements for a specific approach.
- It is dependent on the type of aircraft you are flying, 5 categories A-E based on approach speeds. A is the slowest, E is the fastest (usually fast military aircrafts).
- Approach speeds calculation is 1.3 x Vso
- Lowest minimums are usually for precision approaches.
- 298 is the Decision Height DH, because it is a precision approach. 560 is the Minimum Decent Altitude MDA because it is a non precision approach. 740 and the other 560 is just known as “The Minimums”.
What do these numbers mean?
Visibility requirements expressed in statue miles or as Runway Visual Range RVR. RVR is usually a 1 or 2 digit number and converted into feet by adding 2 zeros at the end. Ex: 24 = 2,400 ft
What do these numbers mean?
Height above a certain airport reference. For straight in landings, it is used as the Height Above Touchdown (HAT). For circling approached, it is called the Height Above the Airport (HAA).
What do these numbers mean?
Ceiling and visibility requirements for military aircraft ONLY.
Landing minimums assumes all equipement fuctions properly. What do you do if a piece of equipment is inoperative before lading the approach?
Refer to the inoperative component or visual aid table infront of the booklet for any adjustments.
What is this section for?
Minimums for RNAV approaches.
What is GLS?
Minimum approaches that require the Wide Area Agmentation System (WASS) for precision GPS approaches. In this example they are not in use.
What is LNAV / VNAV DA?
What is LNAV MDA?
Lateral and Vertical Navigation step down GPS precision approach. DA is the Decision Altitude.
LNAV is a non-precision approach. MDA is the minimum decend altitude.
Why is the Seal Beach VOR frequency (115.7) underlined?
There is no voice transmission on that frequency.
What is this section for?
Lapse time between the Final Approach Fix (FAF) to the Missed Approach Point (MAP)
When cleared for a final Intrument approach, what four pieces of information should you expect to hear and have to read back?
Assigned Heading, altitude, approach clearance, and frequency change.
