Instrument Oral Exam (blue book + additionals) Flashcards
1
Q
An applicant for an instrument rating must have at least how much and what type of flight time as pilot?
(14 CFR 61.65)
A
An applicant must have:
a) 50 hours of x-ctry flight time as PIC, of which at least 10 hrs must be in planes
b) 40 hrs of act. or sim inst. time ( on the areas of operation specified)
c) 15 hrs of inst flihgt training from an authorized instructor in the a/c catagory for which the inst rating is sought
d) 3 hrs of training appropriate to the inst rating sought from an auth instructor, in prep for the practical test w/in the 60 days preceding the date of test
e) 250 NM x-ctry conducted under IFR, incl. 3 diff approaches
2
Q
When is an instrument rating required?
A
When ops are conducted:
a) under IFR rules (IFR flight plan)
b) wx conditions less than the min for VFR flight
c) In class A airspace,
d) Under special VFR within Class B, C, D, and class E surface areas between sunset and sunrise.
3
Q
what are the recency of experience requirements to be PIC of a flight under IFR
A
a) BFR
b) to carry passengers, 3 T.O.’s and landings w/in the preceding 90 days (full stop at night)
c) w.in the preceding 6 mts logged under actual or sim inst. conditions, either in flight in the appropriate catagory of a/c or in a flight sim or flight training device—-
- at least 6 inst. approaces
- holding procedures and
- intercepting and tracking courses through the use of nav equipment.
4
Q
If a pilot allows thier currency to expire what can be done to become current again?
A
Pilot is current for 6 mths after the check ride or profeciency check, then if allowed the 6 mths to expire w/out doing the 6 approaches holding proc, etc. pilot is not able to file IFR and give another 6 mths “grace period” to accomplish the approaches etc. If that grace period is allowed to expire then the pilot may become current again by completing a instrument proficiency check.
5
Q
Define appropriately rated safety pilot.
A
Pilot must hold at least a private pilot cert. they must also have a current medical cert and be current in the catagory and class of a/c being flown.
6
Q
what information must a pilot in command be familiar with before a flight?
WKRAFT
A
All available information including:
a) Weather reports and forecasts
b) Known ATC delays
c) Runway lengths of intended use
d) Alternatives if the flight cannot be completed as planned
e) Fuel requirements
f) Takeoff and landing distances
7
Q
What are the fuel requirements for flight in IFR conditions?
A
the a/c must carry enough fuel to fly to the first airport of intended landing (including the approach) the alt. airport (if required), and thereafter, for 45 minutes at normal cruise speed. If any alternate airport is not required, enough fuel must be carried to fly to the destination airport and land with 45 min of fuel remaining.
8
Q
What a/c instruments are required for IFR ops?
GRABCARD
A
generator or alternator of adequate capacity
radios
Altimeter
ball
clock
attitude indicator
rate of turn
directional gyro
9
Q
what are the required tests and inspections of aircraft and equipment to be legal for IFR flight
AVIATES
A
- Airworthyness Directives
- VOR w/in preceding 30 days- record kept in bound logbook
- Inspection 100 hr. if operated for hire (must have annual). record kept in a/c / engine log
- Altimeter w.in preceding 24 mts
- Transponder w/in preceding 24 mts
- ELT 1/2 batt. life or 1hr cumulative use
- Static/ Pitot System w/in preceding 24 mts.
10
Q
May portable electronic devices be operated on board an a/c?
A
No person may operate nor may any PIC allow the operation of any portable electronic device:
a) On a/c operated by an air carrier or commercial operator; or
b) On any other a/c while it is operated under IFR
11
Q
what documents must be on board an a/c to make it legal for IFR flight?
ARROW
A
Airworthyness Cert
Registration Cert
Radio Station Licence (International Ops)
Owner’s Manual or Operating Limitations
Weight and balance data
12
Q
When can you cancel your IFR flight plan?
A
An IFR flight plan may be canceled at any time the flight is operating in VFR conditions outside of Class A airspace. Pilots must be aware that other procedures may be applicable to a flight that cancels an IFR flight plan within an area where a special program, such as a designated TRSA, Class C airspace, or Class B airspace, has been established
13
Q
When using GPS for nav underIFR , how often must the database be updated?
A
Every 28 days for IFR ops
14
Q
When must a pilot file an IFR flight plan?
A
Prior to departure from within or prior to entering controlled airspace, a pilot must submit a complete flight plan and recieve clearance from ATC if weather conditions are below VFR mins. The pilot should file the flight plan at least 30 mins prior to the estimated time of departure to preclude a possible delay in receiving a departure clearance from ATC
15
Q
What is a composite flight plan?
A
It is a flight plan that specifies VFR for a portion and IFR for another.
16
Q
what type of aircraft equipment determines your “special equipment” suffix when filing an IFR flight plan?
TARDA
A
TACAN- only equipment
Area Navigation Equipment (RNAV)- LORAN, INS
Radar beacon transponder
DME equipment
Advanced Area Navigation Equipment- (GPS), (GNSS)global navigation satellite system
17
Q
The requested altitude on an FAA flight plan form (Block 7) represents which altitude for the route of flight- the initial, lowest, or highest?
A
Enter only the initial requested altitude in this block. When more than one IFR altitude or flight level is desired along the route of flight, it is best to make a subsequent request direct to the controller.
18
Q
What are the alternate airport requirements?
1-2-3 Rule
A
If from 1 hr prior to 1 hr after your planned ETA at the destination airport, the weather is forecast to be at least 2,000 ft ceilings and 3 mile vis., no alternate is required. If less than 2,000 and 3 miles an alternate must be filed using the following criteria:
a) If an IAP is published for that airportm the alternate airport minimums specified in that procedure or, if none are specified, the following mins–
- Precision approach procedure: ceiling 600’ and vis. 2 stat. miles
- Nonprecision approaches: ceiling 800’ and vis. 2 stat. miles.
b) If no IAP has been published for that airport, the ceiling and visibility minimums are those allowing descent from the MEA, approach, and landing under basic VFR.
19
Q
What is the definition of the term ceiling?
A
Ceiling is defined as the height above the earth’s surface of the lowest layer of clouds or obscuring phenomena reported as “broken, overcast or obscuration” and not classified as “thin or partial”
20
Q
What minimums are to be used on arrival at the alternate?
A
If an instrument approach procedure has been published for that airport, the minimums specified in that procedure are used.
21
Q
what are preferred routes and where can they be found?
A
Preferred routes are those established between busier airports to incrase system efficiency and capacity. preferred routes are listed in the Airport/Facilities Directory.
22
Q
What are Enroute Low Altitude Charts?
A
Enroute low-altitude charts provide aeronautical information for navigation under IFR conditions below 18,000’ MSL. These charts are revised every 56 days.
23
Q
What are Enroute high atlitute charts?
A
Enroute high altitude charts are designed for navigation at or above 18,000’ MSL. This four color chart series includes the jet route structure; VHF NAVAID’s w/ freq., identification, channel, geographic coordinates; selected airports; reporting points. Revised every 56 days.
24
Q
What are area charts?
A
Area charts furnish terminal information azt a laorge scale in congested areas such as Dallas/Ft. Worth, Atlanta, etc. Multiple area charts are printed in one publication and are revised every 56 days.
25
Where can information on possible navigational aid limitations be found?
The airport/facilities directory.
26
What other useful information can be found in the Airport Facilities Directory which might be helpful in route planning?
SPAAVE
* Special notices- FSS, GADO, Weather Service office phone numbers.
* Preferred IFR routes- high and low altitude.
* Aeronautical Chart Bulletins- recent changes after publication.
* ARTCC- locations and sector frequencies.
* VOR reciever checkpoints- locations and frequencies
* Enroute Flight Advisory Services- locations and communications outlets.
27
What are NOTAMS?
Notices To Airmen (NOTAM)- Time critical aeronautical information, which is of either a temporary nature or not known sufficiently in advance to permit publication on aeronautical charts or in other operational publications, recieves immediate dissemination via the National NOTAM System. It is aeronautical informationthat could affect a pilot's decision to make a flight. It includes such information as airport or primary runway closures, changes in the status of navigational aids, ILS's, radar service availability, and other information essential to planned en route, terminal, or landing operations.
28
What are the three catagories of NOTAMS?
NOTAM (D) - A NOTAM given (in addition to local) distant dissimenation beyond the area of responsibility of the FLight Service Station. These NOTAMs will be stored and available until canceled. NOTAM (D)s contain information on all civil public use airports and navigational facilities that are part of the National Airspace System. NOTAM (D) items are serious enough to affect the usability of an airport or a certain facility.
NOTAM (L)- A NOTAM given local dissemination by voice and other means to staisfy local user requirements. NOTAM (L) info may cover items such as taxiway closures, persons and or equip. near or crossing runways, airport rotating beacon outages, and other info that would have little impact on non- local ops.
FDC NOTAM- The National Flight Data Center will issue these NOTAMs when it becomes necessary to disseminate info which is regulatory in nature. FDC NOTAMs contain items such as amendments to published IAPs and other current aeronautical charts. They are also used to advertise temporary flight restrictions caused by natural disasters or large scale public events that may generate congestion of air traffic over a site.
29
what type of NOTAMs will be omitted from a pilot briefing if not specifically requested by the pilot?
NOTAM (D) info and FDC NOTAMs that have been published in the Notices to Airmen Publication (NTAP) are not included in pilot briefings unless a review of the NTAP is specifically requested by the pilot. Also, NOTAM (L) info is distributed locally only and is not attached to the hourly wx reports. A separate file of local NOTAMs is maintained at each FSS for facilities in ther area only. NOTAM (L) info for other FSS areas must be specifically requested, and the request made directly to the FSS with responsibility for the airport concerned.
30
Where can NOTAM info be obtained?
a) Nearest FSS
b) DUATS vendors
c) NTAP printed NOTAMs; not normally a briefing. Pilots must make a specific request for them during briefing. The NTAP is also available online from the FAA's website.
31
Will a FSS briefer provide GPS NOTAMs as part of a standard briefing?
No. A pilot must request GPS NOTAMs during a preflight briefing from an AFSS briefer
32
What instruments operate from the pitot static system.
The pitot static sys operates the altimeter, vertical-speed indicator, and airspeed indicator
33
How does the altimeter work?
In an altimeter, aneroid wafers expand and contract as atmospheric pressure changes, and through a shaft and gear linkage, rotate pointers on the dial of the instrument.
34
What are the limitations that a pressure altimeter is subject to?
Nonstandard pressure and temperature:
a) Temp variations expand or contract the atmosphere and raise or lower pressure levels that the altimeter senses.
* On a warm day- the pressure level is higher than on a standard day. The altimeter indicates lower than actual altitude.
* On a cold day- The pressure level is lower than on a standard day. The altimeter indicates higher than actual altitude.
b) Changes in surface pressure also affect pressure levels at altitude.
* Higher than standard pressure- The pressure level is higher than on a standard day. The altimeter indicates lower than actual altitude.
* Lower than standard pressure- the pressure level is lower than on a standard day. The altimeter indicates higher than actual altitude.
REMEMBER: High to low or hot to cold look out below!
35
For IFR flight what is the max allowable error for an altimeter?
If the altimeter is off field elevation by more than 75' with the correct pressure set in the Kollsman window, it is considered to be unreliable.
36
Identify and define the different types of altitudes.
T PAID
Indicated - read off the instrument.
Pressure - indicated when 29.92 set in the altimeter.
True - MSL
Absolute - AGL
Density - pressure altitude corrected for non-standard temp.
37
How does an airspeed indicator operate?
measures the difference between ram pressure from the Pitot head and the atmospheric pressure from the static source.
38
what are the limitations the airspeed indicator is subject to?
It must have proper flow of air in the pitot/ static system.
39
For IFR flight what is the max allowable error for an altimeter?
If the altimeter is off field elevation by more than 75' with the correct pressure set in the Kollsman window, it is considered to be unreliable.
40
How does an airspeed indicator operate?
measures the difference between ram pressure from the Pitot head and the atmospheric pressure from the static source.
41
what are the limitations the airspeed indicator is subject to?
It must have proper flow of air in the pitot/ static system.
42
What are the errors that the airspeed indicator is subject to?
PDC
Position error- Caused by the static ports sensing erroneous static pressure; slipstream flow causes disturbances at the static port preventing sctual atmospheric pressure measurement. It varies with airspeed, altitude, configuration and may be a plus or minus value.
Density error- Changes in altitude and temp are not compensated for by the instrument.
Compressibility error- caused by the packing of air into the pitot tube at high airspeeds, resulting in higher than normal indications. It usually occurs above 180 KIAS.
43
What are the different types of aircraft speeds?
TG ICE
Indicated- Read off the instrument; uncorrected for instrument or system errors.
Calibrated- IAS corrected for instrument and position errors; obtained from the POH/AFM for various flap and landing gear configurations.
Equivalent- CAS corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at altitude.
True- CAS corrected for nonstandard temp. and press. obtained from a flight computer, AFM, or the A/S indicator slide computer.
Groundspeed- TAS corrected for wind; speed across the ground; use the flight computer.
44
What airspeeds are indicated by the various color codes found on the dial of an airspeed indicator?
White arc- Flap operating range
* Bottom of white arc- Flaps down stall speed
* Top of white arc- Max airspeed for flaps- down flight.
Green arc- normal operating range
* bottom of green arc- flaps up stall speed
* top of green arc- max airspeed for rough air
Yellow arc- structural warning area
* Bottom of yellow arc- Max a/s for tough air
* top of yellow arc- Never exceed a/s.
Red radial line- never exceed airspeed.
45
How does the VSI work?
changing pressures expand and contract a diaphram connected to the indicating needle through gears and levers. The VSI is connected to the static pressure line through a calibrated leak; it measures differential pressure.
46
What are the limitations of the VSI?
It is not accurate until the aircraft is stabilized. Sudden or abrupt changes in the a/c attitude will cause erroneous inst. readings as airflow fluctuates over the static port. These changes are not reflected immediately by the VSI due to the calibrated leak.
47
What instruments are affected when the static port freezes?
Airspeed indicator- Accurate at the altitude frozen as long as static pressure in the indicator and the system equals outside pressure. If the aircraft descends, the airspeed indicator will read high, if you ascend it will read low.
Altimeter- Indicates the altitude at which the system is blocked.
VSI- Will indicate level flight.
48
What is the corrective action if the pitot tube freezes? If the static port freezes?
For piot tube- turn on the pitot tube heat
For static system- Use alternate air if available or break the face of a static instument (either the VSI or A/S indicator)
49
What indications should you expect while using alternate air?
in many unpressurized a..c equipped with a pitot static tube, an alternate source of static press is provided for emergency use. If the alternate source is vented inside the airplane, where static press is usually lower than outide, selection of the alt static source may result in the following instrument indications:
* Altimeter- Reads higher than normal
* A/S indicator- Indiatd a/s reads greater than normal
* VSI- momentarily shows a climb
50
What instruments contains gyroscopes?
Attitude indicator, heading indicator and turn coordinator/ indicator
51
Name Several types of power sources commonly used to power the gyroscopic instruments in an aircraft.
In some planes, all the gyros are vacuum or pressure systems providee the power for the heading and attitude indicators, while the electrical system provides the power for the turn coordinator.
52
How does the vacuum sys operate?
The vacuum or pressure sys spins the gyro by drawing a stream of air against the rotor vanes to spin the rotor at high speeds, essentially the same as a water wheel or turbine operates. The amount of vacuum or press required for inst operation varies by manufacturer and is usually between 4.5 to 5.5 in Hg. One source of vacuum for the gyros installed in light a/c is the vane type engine driven pump, mounted on the accesssory case of the engine.
53
How does the turn coordinator operate?
The turn part of the inst. uses precession to indicate direction and approximate rate of tuen. A gyro reacts by trying to move in reaction to the force applied, thus moving the miniature a/c in proportion to the rate of turn. The inclinometer in the instrument is a black glass ball sealed inside a curved glass tube that is partially filled with a liquid. The ball measures the relative strength of the force of graity and the force of inertia caused by a turn.
54
What info does the turn coordinator provide?
The mini a/c in the turn coordinator displays the rate of turn, rate of roll and direction of turn.
The ball in the tube indicates the quality of turn (slip or skid)
slip- ball on the inside of turn; not enough rate of turn for the amt of bank.
skid- ball to the outside of turn; too much rate of turn for the amount of bank.
55
What is the source of power for the turn coordinator?
Turn coordinator gyros can be driven by either air or electricity; some are dual- powered. Typically the turn coordinator is electrically powered, but always refer to the AFM for specs.
56
What are the limitations of the heading indicator?
They vary with the particular design and make of instrument: on some heading indicators in light, airplanes, the limits are approximately 55 deg of pitch and 55 deg of bank. When either of these attitude limits are exceeded, the inst "tumbles" or "spills" and no longer gives the corrct indication until it is reset with the caging knob. Many modern instruments used are designed in such a manner that they will not tumble.
57
What type of error is the heading indicator subject to?
Because of precession, caused chiefly by friction, the heading indicator will creeep or drift from the heading it is set to. Max allowable precession is 3 degrees in 15 mins
58
How does the attitude indicator work?
the gyrp in the attitude indicator is mounted on a horizontal plane and depends upon rigidity in space for its operation. The horizon bar represents the true horizon and is fixed to the gyro; it remains in a horizontal plane as the plane is pitched or banked about its lateral or longitudinal axis, indicating the attitude of the airplane relative to the true horizon.
59
What are the limitations of an attitude indicator?
Limits depend upon the make and model of the instrument; bank limits are usually from 100 deg to 110 deg and pitch limits are usually from 60 deg to 70 deg. if either limit is exceeded th instrument will tumble or spill and will give incorrect indications until restabilized. Some modern attitude indicators are designed so they will not tumble.
60
Is the attitude indicator subject to errors?
Attitude indicators are free from most errors, but depending upon the speed with which the erection sys functions, there may be a slight nose up indication during a rapid acceleration and a nose down indication during a rapid deceleration. There is also a possibility of a small bank angle and pitch error after a 180 deg turn. On rollout from a 180 deg turn the AI will indicate a slight climb and turn in the opposite direction of rollout. These inherent errors are small and correct themselves within a min or so after returning to straight and level flight.
61
How does the magnetic compass work?
Magnets mounted on the compass card align themselves parallel to the earth's lines of magnetic force.
62
What limitations does the magnetic compass have?
The float assembly of the compass is balanced on a pivot, which allows free rotation of the card and allows it to tilt at an angle up to 18 deg.
63
What are the various compass errors?
VDMONA, ANDS, UNOS
Oscillation error- erratic movement of the compass card caused by turbulence or rough control techniquie
Deviation- Due to electrical and magnetic disturbances in the a/c.
Variation- Angular difference between true and magnetic north; Reference isogonic lines of variation.
Dip errors:
a) acceleration- On east or west headings. while accelerating, the compass shows a turn to the north, and when decelerating, it shows a turn to the south.
Remember: ANDS
Accelerate
North
Decelerate
South
b) Northerly turning error- The compass leads in the south half of a turn, and lags in the north half of a turn.
Remember: UNOS
Undershoot
North
Overshoot
South
64
At what rate does atmospheric presssure decrease with an increase in altitude?
Atmospheric pressure decreases approximately 1" Hg per 1,000 feet.
65
What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level?
15 deg C, and 29.92 Hg are standard at sea level.
66
State the general characteristics in regard to the flow of air around high and low pressure systems in the northern hemisphere.
Low pressure- air flows inward, upward and counterclockwise
High pressure- Air flows outward, downward and clockwise.
67
What causes the winds aloft to flow parallel to the isobars?
The coriolis force causes winds aloft to flow parallel to the isobars.
68
Why do surface winds generally flow across isobars at an angle?
Surface friction causes winds to flow across isobars at an angle.
69
When temperature and dew point are close together (within 5 deg), what type of weather is likely?
Visible moisture is likely, in the form of clouds, dew or fog.
70
What factor primarily determines the type and vertical extent of clouds?
The stability of the atmosphere determines type and vertical extent of clouds.
71
What is the difference between a stable and unstable atmosphere?
An unstable atmosphere is one in which, if air is displaced vertically, it will continue to move vertically; a stable atmosphere is one which tends to resist any vertical movement of air.
72
How do you determine the stability of the atmosphere?
By obsercing the acrual lapse rate and comparing it to the dry adiabatic rate of 3 deg per 1000'. The "K" index of a stability chart is also a means of determining stability prior to flight.
73
List the effects of stable and unstable air on clouds, turbulence, precipitation, and visibility.
stable= SSSF
Stable-
Clouds... Stratiform
turbulence... smooth
Precipitation... steady
Visibility... Fair to poor
Unstable-
Clouds... Cumuliform
turbulence... rough
Precipitation... showery
Visibility... good
74
What are the two main types of icing?
Structural and induction are the two main types of icing.
75
Name four types of structural ice.
Clear ice- Forms when large drops strike the a/c surface and slowly freeze.
Rime ice- Small drops strike the aircraft and freeze rapidly.
Mixed ice- Combination of the above; supercooled water drops varying in size.
Frost- Ice crystal deposits formed by sublimation when temp/dew point is below freezing.
76
What conditions are necessary for structural icing to occur?
Visible moisture and below- freezing temps at the point moisture strikes the a/c are necessary.
77
Which type of structural icing is more dangerous, rime or clear?
Clear ice is typically the most hazardous ice encountered. It is hard, heavy and tenacious. Clear ice forms when, after initial impact, the remaining liquid portion of the drop flows out over the a/c surface, gradually freezing as a smooth sheet of solid ice. This happens when drops are large, such as in rain or in cumuliform clouds. its removal by deicing equipment is especially difficult due to the fact that it forms as it flows away from the deicing equipment.
78
What factors must be present for a thunderstorm to form?
To form a thunderstorm there must be:
a) A source of lift (heating, fast moving front)
b) Unstable air (non standard lapse rate)
c) High moisture content(temperature and dew point are close)
79
What are squall line thunderstorms?
A squall line is a non frontal, narrow band of active thunderstorms. Often it developss ahead of a cold front in moist, unstable air, but it may also develop in unstable air far removed from any front. The line may be too long to easily detour and too wide and severe to penetrate. It often contains severe steady state thunderstorms and presents the single most intense weather hazard to a/c. It usually forms rapidly, reaching a max intensity during the late afternoon and the first few hours.
80
State two basic ways fog may form.
Fog forms:
a) by cooling air to the dew point.
b) By adding moisture to the air.
81
Name several types of fog.
Radiation Fog
Advection
Upslope
Precipitation
Ice
82
What causes radiation fog?
Advection fog forms when moist air moves over colder ground or water. It is most common along coastal areas but often develops deep in continental ares. Unlike radiation fog it may occur with winds, cloudy skies, over a wide geographic area, and at any time of the day or night. It deepens as wind speed increases up to about 15 knots; wind much stronger than 15 kts lifts the fog into a layer of low stratus or cumulus.
83
Define upslope fog.
Upslope fog forms as a result of moist, stable air being cooled adiabatically as it moves up sloping terrain. Once the upslope wind ceases, the fog dissipates. Unlike radiation fog, it can form under cloudy skies. It is common along the eastern slopes of the Rockies and somewhat less frequent east of the appalachians; can often be quite dense and extend to high altitudes.
84
Define ice fog
Ice fog occurs in cold weather when the temp is much below freezing and water vapor sublimates directly as ice crystals. Conditions favorable for its formation are the same as for radiation fog except for cold temperature, usually -25 deg (F)or colder. It occurs mostly in the arctic regions , but is not unkonwn in middle latitudes during the cold season. Ice fog can be quite blinding to someone flying into the sun.
85
What is precipitation induced fog?
When relatively warm rain or drizzle falls through cool air, evaporation from the precipitation saturates the cool air and forms fog. Precipitation induced fog can become quite dense and continue for an extended period of time. This fog may extend over large areas, completely suspending air ops. It is most commonly associated with warm fronts, but can occur with slow moving cold fronts and with stationary fronts.
86
Other than fog, what are several other examples of IFR weather producers?
Other examples of common IFR producers are low clouds (stratus), haze, smoke, blowing obstructions to vision and precipitation. Fog and low stratus restrict navigation by visual reference more often than all other weather phenomena.
87
What is the primary means of obtaining a weather briefing?
The primary source of preflight weather briefings is an individual briefing obtained from a briefer at the AFSS/FSS
88
What are some examples of other sources of weather information?
Telephone Info Briefing Service (TIBS)(AFSS)
Transcribed Weather Broadcast (TWEB)
Telephone Access to TWEB (TEL-TWEB)
Weather and aeronautical information from numerous private industries sources.
The Direct User Access Terminal System (DUATS)
89
What pertinent information should a weather briefing include?
Name 9 things
Adverse conditions
VFR flight not recommended
Synopsis
Current Conditions
Enroute forecast
Destination forecast
Winds Aloft
Notices to Airmen (NOTAMs)
ATC delay
In addition, upon request pilots may obtain the following from AFSS/FSS briefers: Info on Special Use Airspace (SUA), SUA related airspace and MTR activity within the flight plan area and a 100 NM extension around the flight plan area, a review of printed NOTAM publications, approximate density altitude data, information on air traffic services and rules, customs/ immigration procedures, ADIZ rules, search and rescue, LORAN-C NOTAMs, acailable military NOTAMs, and runway friction measurement value NOTAMs, GPS RAIM availability, and other assistance as required.
90
What is "EFAS"?
Enroute Flight Advisory Service (EFAS) is a service specifically designed to provide enroute aircraft with timely and meaningful weather advisories pertinent to the type of flight intened, route of flight and altitude. EFAS is also a central collection and distribution point for pilot- reported wx info (PIREPS). EFAS provides communications capabilities for aircraft flying at 5,000 ' AGL to 17,500 ' MSL on a common freq of 122.0 MHz. It is also known as "Flight Watch" Discrete EFAS freq have been est. to ensure comms coverage from 18000 through 45000' MSL, Sercing in each specific ARTCC area. These discrete frequencies may be used below 18000' when coverage permits reliable communication.
91
What is HIWAS?
Hazardous In Flight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) is a continuous broadcast of in flight weather advisories including summarized Aviation Weather Warnings, SIGMETs, Convective SIGMETs, Center Weather Advisories, AIRMETs, and urgent PIREPs. Hiwas is an additional source of hazardous weather information which makes data available on a continous basis.
92
What is a METAR?
The aviation routine weather report (METAR) is the weather observer's interpretation of the weather conditions at a given site and time. It is used by the aviation community and the National Weather Service (NWS) to determine the flying category (VFR, MVFR, IFR) of the airport, as well as produce the Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF).
93
IFR Flight Time Requirements
50 hours cross country as PIC (at least 10 in airplanes)
40 hours Instrument (actual or simulated)
15 hours instrument dual training from CFI (in same type)
3 hours instrument training within 60 days prior to test
250 NM cross-country conducted under IFR with 3 different types of approaches
94
When is Instrument Rating required?
On IFR Flight Plan
In Class A Airspace
In weather conditions less than VFR
Under special VFR within Class B, C, D, and E surface areas between sunset and sunrise (night)
95
Recency-of-experience requirements for IFR
6 instrument approaches, holding patterns, and intercepting/tracking of courses using navigation aids within the preceding six months.
3 take-offs and landings within preceding 90 days (full stop at night) to carry passengers
Biennial flight review
96
If instrument currency expires, what can be done to become current again?
Within six months of expiration, complete the requirements (instrument approaches, holding patterns, and intercepting/tracking courses) with a safety pilot in simulated IFR conditions only. After that, must get a check with an examiner, authorized instructor, or FAA-approved person.
97
Requirements of safety pilot
Possess a current medical certificate
Possess a private pilot's license with appropriate category/class ratings
If flight is conducted on an IFR flight plan, safety pilot must have instrument rating
98
Info a PIC must be familiar with before a flight
All available information, including:
a) weather reports and forecasts
b) fuel requirements
c) alternatives if flight cannot be completed as planned
d) known ATC delays
e) runaway lengths of intended use
f) takeoff and landing distances
99
What are fuel requirements for flight in IFR conditions?
With alternate airport: enough fuel to fly to intended airport (holding pattern included), then to alternate, then for 45 minutes after at cruise speed
Without alternate airport: enough to fly to destination airport and land with 45 min fuel remaining
100
Before conducting IFR flight using GPS equipment for navigation, what checks should be made?
a) verify that GPS equipment is properly installed and certified for planned IFR
b) verify that database is current (not expired)
c) review the GPS NOTAM/RAIM information for planned route of flight
101
Aircraft instruments/equipment required for IFR flight
G - generator or alternator of sufficient capacity
R - radios for navigation
A - altimeter (sensitive)
B - ball (for turn coordination)
C - clock with sweep-second hand
A - attitude indicator
R - rate-of-turn coordinator
D - directional gyro
D - DME / RNAV (for flight at FL240 and above if VOR equipment necessary for planned route)
102
Required tests/inspections of aircraft/equipment for IFR flight
A - annual
V - VOR (30 days)
1 - 100 hour
A - altimeter (24 months)
T - transponder (24 months)
E - ELT (12 months)
Pitot/static system (within past 24 months)
103
Portable electronic devices on aircraft
Not allowed, especially on commercial operators/carriers or any aircraft operated IFR.
Exceptions: portable voice recorders, hearing aids, heart pacemakers, electric shavers, or any other portable electronic devices that will not cause interference with NAV/COM.
104
Documents on board to be legal for IFR
A - airworthiness certificate
R - registration certificate
R - radio station license (if international operations)
O - owner's manual or operating limitations
W - weight and balance data
105
How often is GPS waypoint information updated?
Every 28 days, and maintained by National Flight Data Center (NFDC)
106
When must pilot file an IFR flight plan?
Prior to departure from within or prior to entering controlled airspace: submit flight plan and receive clearance from ATC if weather conditions are below VFR minimums. File 30 minutes prior to departure to preclude delay in receiving departure clearance.
107
When can you cancel IFR flight plan?
Any time the flight is operated during VFR conditions outside of Class A.
Be aware that other procedures may be applicable in area, such as designated TRSA, Class C, or Class B.
108
What type of aircraft equipment determines your "special equipment" suffix when filing IFR?
a) radar beacon transponder
b) DME equipment
c) TACAN-only equipment
d) Area Navigation equipment (RNAV) - LORAN, INS
e) Advanced Area Navigation equipment - Global Positioning System (GPS)/Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS)
f) Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) authorization
109
Block 7 of flight plan - altitude specified?
Initial altitude, make subsequent requests to controller when in air
110
\*\*Alternate Airport Requirements\*\*
1-2-3 rule: Alternate required if from 1 hour before to 1 hour after forecast arrival at destination airport has 2000 foot ceilings and less than 3 SM visibility. Alternate requirements:
a) If IAP is published for alternate, use those minimums, otherwise 600-2 (600 foot ceilings, 2 SM visibility) for Precision Approach, and 800-2 for Nonprecision Approach
b) If no IAP has been published, ceiling and visibility minimums are those required for descent from MEA, approach, and land under basic VFR
111
Define "ceiling"
Height above Earth's surface (AGL) of lowest cloud layer defined as obscured, broken, overcast, but not thin or partial.
112
What are preferred routes, and where can they be found?
Routes in high traffic areas that ATC designates to- and from- busy airports. Found in A/FD
113
What are Enroute Low-Altitude Charts?
Provide aeronautical information for navigation under IFR conditions below 18,000 feet MSL (under Class A). Revised every 56 days.
114
What are Enroute High-Altitude Charts?
Provide information for navigation above 18,000 feet MSL. Four-color chart series includes jet route structure; VHF NAVAIDs with frequency, identification, channel, geographic coordinates; selected airports; reporting points. Revised every 56 days.
115
What are "area charts"?
Area charts show congested terminal areas such as Dallas/FW or Atlanta at a large scale. They are included with subscriptions to any conterminous US set Low (Full set, East or West sets). Revised every 56 days.
116
Where can information on possible navigational aid limitations be found?
NOTAMs as well as A/FDs will contain current limitations
117
What are the required reports for equipment malfunction under IFR-controller airspace?
a) Failure of VOR, TACAN, ADF, or low frequency navigation receiver capability
b) GPS anomalies while using IFR-certified GPS/GNSS receivers
c) Complete or partial loss of ILS receiver capability
d) Impairment of air/ground communication capability
e) Loss of any other equipment installed in the aircraft which may impair safety and/or the ability to operate in IFR
118
How can IFR clearance be obtained?
a) At airport with ATC tower in operation, clearance may be received from ground control or specific clearance delivery frequency
b) At airports without a tower or FSS on field, or in outlying area:
- Clearance may be received over radio through remote communication outlet (RCO) or over telephone
- Clearance delivery frequency is available that is usable at airports within specific area, say Class B airspace
- If above not available, clearance can be received from ARTCC once airborne as long as you stay in Class E airspace VFR
Ask the nearest FSS for appropriate means.
119
What does "cleared as filed" mean?
ATC will issue abbreviated this statement of IFR clearance based on route of flight as filed in the IFR flight plan
120
Which clearance items are given in an abbreviated IFR clearance?
C - Clearance Limit (destination airport or fix)
R - Route (initial heading)
A - Altitude (initial altitude)
F - frequency (departure)
T - transponder (squawk code)
Note: ATC procedures require controller to state the Departure Procedure (DP) within Route info if applicable as well
121
What does "clearance void time" mean?
When operating from non-towered field, this is the time after which the IFR clearance is voided and pilot must report intentions to ATC (within 30 minutes)
122
What does "hold for release" mean when included in IFR clearance?
Delays the aircraft's departure for traffic management reasons. May not depart under IFR clearance until a release time or additional instructions are provided by ATC
123
Minimums necessary for IFR takeoff under 14 CFR Part 91? Under Parts 121, 125, 129, or 135?
```
Part 91: None
Other Parts (assuming Takeoff Minimums not prescribed for that airport under Part 97): 1 SM visibility for aircraft with 2 engines or less, 1/2 SM for aircraft with 3 or more engines
```
124
What is "good operating practice" in determining takeoff minimums for IFR flight?
Use the minima in the Instrument Approach Procedure for that airport. If none available, use basic VFR minimums (1000 feet ceilings, 3 miles)
125
What are DPs and why are they necessary?
Departure Procedures (DPs) are preplanned IFR procedures that provide obstruction clearances from runway to enroute airway. Provides obstacle clearance protection and, at busier airports, increases efficiency by reducing communication and departure delays. Pilots under Part 91 are strongly encouraged to file and fly a DP at night, during marginal VMC and IMC, when one is available.
126
What are two types of DPs?
a) Obstacle Departure Procedures (ODPs) - textually/graphically,
obstruction clearance via least burdensome route,
No need for ATC clearance unless alternate departure procedure (SID or radar vector) has been specifically assigned by ATC.
b) Standard Instrument Departures (SIDs) -
always graphically,
obstruction clearance and transition,
system enhancement and reduce pilot/controller workload,
ATC clearance must be received prior
127
What criteria are used to provide obstruction clearance during departure?
Based on:
pilot crossing departure end of runway \> 35 ft above that elevation,
climbing to 400 ft above runway before making initial turn
maintaining minimum climb gradient of 200 ft/NM (unless required to level off by crossing restriction). Gradient may vary based on obstacles.
128
Where are DPs located?
Listed by airport in "IFR Take-Off Minimums and Departure Procedures," Section C of the Terminal Procedures Publications
129
Must you accept a SID if assigned one?
No. Since they're only graphical, if the pilot does not have access or does not have equipment to fly the SID, he or she can notify ATC verbally (less preferred) or when filing the flight plan specify "NO SID".
130
How does pilot determine if takeoff minimums are not standard and/or departure procedures are published for an airport?
A "triangle T" or "trouble T" (black triangle with a T inside it) will be placed in notes sections of the instrument procedure chart. Signifies non-standard take-off minimums.
131
When a DP specifies a climb gradient in excess of 200 ft/NM, what significance should this have?
There will be no obstacle departure procedure (ODP) if pilot can turn in any direction from a runway and remain clear of obstacles (satisfies diverse departure criteria). SID may be provided for ATC reasons. Otherwise, the DP was designed with a steeper than normal gradient or specifies departure route for purposes of avoiding obstacles near runway end.
132
Climb gradient of 300 ft/NM at a ground speed of 100 knots requires what rate of climb?
300 \* (100/60) = 500 ft/min
133
What is recommended climb rate procedure, when issued a climb to an assigned altitude by ATC?
Climb at Vy (or Vx if necessary) until 1000 feet below. Then 500-1500 fpm until assigned altitude is reached.
(If ATC does not use "At Pilot's Discretion" nor impose climb/descent restrictions, pilot should initiate change in altitude immediately upon acknowledgement of clearance).
134
What are different methods of checking the accuracy of VOR equipment?
VOR Test Signal (VOT) check; +/- 4 deg
Ground checkpoint; +/- 4 deg
Airborne checkpoint; +/- 6 deg
Dual VOR check; within 4 deg of each other
Select a radial over a known ground point; +/- 6 deg
A repair station can use a radiated test signal, but only technician performing test can make an entry in the logbook
135
What records must be kept concerning VOR checks?
Each person making a VOR check shall enter the date, place and bearing error, and sign the aircraft log
136
Where can a pilot find the location of airborne/ground checkpoints and VOT testing stations?
A/FD
137
What procedure is used when checking VOR receiver accuracy with a VOT?
Tune in the VOT frequency of 108.0 MHz. With CDI centered, the OBS should read 0 degrees FROM and 180 degrees TO (remember "Cessna 182" - 180 TO for VOR accuracy checks using a VOT)
138
Where is altitude encoding transponder equipment required?
In general, need Mode C Transponder when:
a) At or above 10,000 feet MSL over contiguous US/DC, excluding airspace below 2,500 feet AGL
b) Within 30 miles of Class B airspace primary airport, below 10,000 feet MSL
c) Within and above all Class C airspace, up to 10,000 feet MSL
d) Within 10 miles of certain airports, excluding that outside Class D surface area and below 1,200 feet AGL
e) All aircraft flying into, within, or across the contiguous US ADIZ
139
What are important transponder codes to know?
1200 - VFR
7500 - Hijacking
7600 - Communications Failure
7700 - Emergency
140
Discuss transponder operation in the event of a two-way communications failure
Adjust the transponder to reply on Mode A/3, Code 7600 (pilot should understand that aircraft might not be in area of radar coverage)
141
Would an incorrect altimeter setting have an effect on Mode C altitude info transmitted by your transponder?
No, since Mode C altitude info is preset to 29.92. Check your own altimeter if controller indicates that altitude readout is invalid.
142
What are ALS, VASI, PAPI, and REIL?
ALS - Approach Light System
VASI - Visual Approach Slope Indicator
PAPI - Precision Approach Path Indicator
REIL - Runway End Identifier Lights
143
What color are runway edge lights?
White, except on instrument runways, yellow replaces white on the last 2000 feet/half the runway length (whichever is less) as caution zone
144
What colors and color combinations are standard airport rotating beacons?
Lighted land airport - White / Green
Lighted sea airport - White / Yellow
Military airport - 2 White / Green
145
What does operation of rotating beacon at airport during daylight hours mean?
In Class B, C, D, and E surface areas, operation of beacon during daylight indicates below VFR conditions (under 1000 ft ceilings, less than 3 SM visibility). ATC clearance then required to land, takeoff and fly in the traffic pattern.
146
What are runway touchdown zone markings?
Identify touchdown zone for landing - provides distance information in 500-ft increments (one, two, three rectangular bars arranged symmetrically in pairs about runway centerline).
147
What is purpose of runway aiming point markings?
Visual aiming point for landing aircraft. Two rectangular markings (broad white stripe, each side of centerline and approximately 1000 ft from landing threshold.
148
How far down a runway does the touchdown zone extend?
First 3000 feet of runway, beginning at threshold. (Used to determine touchdown zone elevation in the development of straight-in landing minimums for instrument approaches)
149
What is RWSL?
Runway Status Light System - fully automated system that provides runway status to pilots/surface vehicle operators to clearly indicate when it is unsafe to enter, cross or takeoff from runway. Two statuses: ON - lights illuminated red, OFF - lights not illuminated
150
Does lack of illumination of RWSL give a pilot permission to enter, cross, or takeoff from runway?
No, RWSL is independent safety enhancement so you still need ATC clearance to do these things.
151
What are important altitudes to know?
(6 specifically for instrument)
MEA, MOCA, MCA, MRA, MAA, OROCA
152
MEA
Minimum En-Route Altitude:
ensures acceptable navigational signals & obstacle clearance
153
MOCA
Minimum Obstacle Clearance Altitude:
ensures obstacle clearance requirements (on routes) & navigational signal coverage within 25 SM (22 NM) of VOR
154
MCA
Minimum Crossing Altitude:
lowest altitude at certain fixes at which aircraft must cross when proceeding in the direction of a higher MEA
155
MRA
Minimum Reception Altitude:
lowest altitude at which intersection can be determined
156
MAA
Maximum Authorized Altitude:
maximum usable altitude or flight level for route/airspace that ensures adequate reception of navaid signals
157
OROCA
Off-Route Obstacle Clearance Altitude:
obstruction clearance by 1000 ft in non-mountainous terrain (2000 ft in mountainous terrain). May not provide signal coverage from ground-based navaids, ATC radar, or communications coverage.
158
If no applicable minimum altitude is prescribed (no MEA or MOCA), what minimum altitudes apply for IFR operations?
Minimum altitudes are:
mountainous terrain - at least 2000 ft above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 NM from course
other than mountainous terrain - at least 1000 ft above highest obstacle within horizontal distance of 4 NM from course
159
What cruising altitudes while operating under IFR in controlled airspace (A, B, C, D, E)? In uncontrolled airspace (G)?
Controlled: altitude/flight level that ATC assigns
Uncontrolled:
below 18,000 ft MSL: 0 to 179 deg (magnetic course) - odd thousand MSL; 180 to 359 deg - even thousand MSL
above 18,000 ft MSL: 0 to 179 deg (magnetic course) - odd flight level; 180 to 359 deg - even flight level
160
On a direct flight not flown on radials or courses of established airways or routes, what points serve as compulsory reporting points?
Each and every point used to define that particular route.
161
What are "unpublished" RNAV routes?
Direct routes based on area navigation capability, between waypoints defined in terms of latitude/longitude coordinates, degree-distance fixes, or offsets from established routes/airways at specified distance and direction. Radar monitoring by ATC is required on all unpublished RNAV routes.
162
What reports should be made to ATC at all times without a specific request?
Vacating any previously assigned altitude/FL for newly assigned one
Altitude change will be made if operating on a VFR-On-Top clearance
When unable to climb/descend at a rate of at least 500 fpm
When approach has been missed (request clearance for specific action; i.e. to alternate airport, another approach, etc)
Change in average true speed (at cruise) when it varies by 5% or 10 knots (whichever is greater) from that filed in the flight plan
The time and altitude or flight level upon reaching a holding fix or point that pilot is cleared to
When leaving any assigned holding fix or point
Any loss, in controlled airspace, of VOR, TACAN, ADF, low -frequency navigation receiver capability, GPS anomalies while using installed IFR-certified GPS/GNSS receivers, complete or partial loss of ILS receiver capability or impairment of ground/air communications capability
any information relating to the safety of flight
upon encountering weather or hazardous conditions not forecast
163
What reporting requirements are required by ATC when not in radar contact?
a) When leaving FAF inbound on the final (nonprecision) approach, or when leaving the outer marker (corresponding fix) inbound on final (precision) approach
b) A corrected estimate at anytime you realize that a previously estimated estimate is more than 3 minutes off
164
What information should be included in every position report?
a) Identification
b) Position
c) Time
d) Altitude/Flight Level
e) Type of flight plan
f) ETA and name of next reporting point
g) Pertinent remarks
165
Are you required to report unforecast weather encountered enroute?
Yes, must report weather conditions which have not been forecast or hazardous conditions that have been forecast to ATC.
166
Explain the terms "maintain" and "cruise" as they pertain to IFR altitude assignment
Maintain: maintain last altitude assigned
Cruise: assigns a block of airspace to pilot, from minimum IFR altitude up to and including altitude in cruise clearance. Pilot may level off at any intermediate altitude and climb/descent may be made at discretion of pilot. Once descends and verbally reports leaving altitude in the block, may not return to that altitude without additional clearance.
167
Can a cruise clearance authorize you to execute an approach at the destination airport?
Yes. ATC may issue cruise clearance that allows you to execute an approach upon arrival at destination airport.
168
Why would pilot request a VFR-On-Top clearance?
If in VFR conditions, pilot may want to be able to choose altitude based on reasons like turbulence, favorable winds aloft, etc. Applies also to pilots desiring to climb through a cloud, haze, smoke, or other meteorological formation and then either cancel IFR flight plan or stay on VFR-On-Top Clearance, may request a climb to VFR-On-Top
169
Is VFR-On-Top clearance a VFR clearance or an IFR clearance? Which airspace prohibits VFR-On-Top clearances?
Yes it is IFR clearance. Class A prohibits such clearances.
170
What operational procedures must pilots on IFR flight plans adhere to when operating VFR-On-Top?
a) Fly at appropriate altitude
b) Comply with the VFR visibility and distance from cloud criteria
c) Comply with IFR rules that are applicable to this flight; i.e., minimum IFR altitudes, position reporting, radio communications, course to be flown, adherence to ATC clearance, etc
171
What is a "clearance limit" and when is it received?
Pilot is cleared to a fix within or just outside destination airport area (not to the actual airport), and needs to wait until receive a long-range clearance direct from center controller
172
What information will ATC provide when they a request a hold at a fix where the holding pattern is not charted?
a) Direction of holding from the fix (N, NE, E, SE, S, SW, S, NW)
b) Holding fix (may be omitted if previously transmitted in clearance limit)
c) Radial, course, bearing, airway or route on which the aircraft is to hold
d) Leg length in miles if DME or RNAV is to be used (specified in minutes on pilot request or if controller considers it necessary)
e) Direction of turns if holding pattern is nonstandard (left turns nonstandard)
f) Time to expect further clearance (EFC) and any pertinent additional delay information.
173
What are maximum airspeeds permitted for aircraft while holding?
MHA - 6000 ft --\> 200 KIAS
6001 - 14000 ft --\> 230 KIAS
14001 ft - and above --\> 265 KIAS
Note: Holding patterns in middle range may be restricted to max airspeed of 210 KIAS
174
What is a nonstandard versus standard holding pattern? What are leg lengths of standard holding pattern.
Nonstandard - turns to left
Standard - turns to right.
Standard leg lengths - 1 minute inbound at or below 14000 ft MSL; 1.5 min inbound above 14000 ft MSL
175
Describe procedure for crosswind correction in holding pattern
Compensate for wind effects primarily by drift correction on the inbound and outbound legs. When outbound, triple inbound drift correction to avoid major turning adjustments.
176
What action is appropriate when approaching a holding fix at an airspeed in excess of maximum holding speed?
Start speed reduction within 3 min or less from fix. Speed may be reduced earlier, but ATC must be advised of change.
177
Why is it important for pilot to receive an EFC time with initial holding instructions?
If you lose two-way radio communication, EFC allows you to depart holding fix at a definite time. Plan last lap of holding pattern to leave fix as close as possible to exact time.
178
Describe different recommended entry methods for holding
Parallel
Teardrop
Direct
179
If assigned a DME/GPS hold, what procedures should be used?
Same entry and holding procedures, except that distances (NM) are used in lieu of time values. Controller or IAP chart will specify length of outbound leg.
180
When does the timing for the outbound leg in a holding pattern begin?
Begins over/abeam the fix, whichever occurs later. If abeam position cannot be determined, start timing when turn to outbound is completed.
181
What regulations apply concerning supplemental oxygen?
a) 12,500 - 14,000 ft MSL: crew must use supplemental oxygen after 30 minutes
b) 14,000 ft MSL - 15,000 ft MSL: crew must use supplemental oxygen continuously
c) above 15,000 ft MSL: crew and passengers must be provided with supplemental oxygen
182
When may the PIC of aircraft deviate from ATC clearance?
Only in case of emergency
183
If emergency action requires deviation from 14 CFR Part 91, must a pilot submit a written report, and if so, to whom?
Only if requested by ATC, submitted within 48 hours to manager of that ATC facility
184
Concerning two-way radio communications failure in VFR, what is procedure for altitude, route, leaving holding fix, descent for approach, and approach selection?
VFR: Continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable
185
Concerning two-way radio communications failure in IFR, what is procedure for altitude, route, leaving holding fix, descent for approach, and approach selection?
IFR:
a) Route
A - Assigned...by route assigned in last ATC clearance
V - Vectored...go direct from point of radio failure to fix, route, airway in vector clearance
E - Expected...by route that ATC has advised may be expected
F - Filed...by the route filed in flight plan
b) Altitude (highest of following altitudes for the route segment being flown)
M - Minimum...minimum altitude for IFR operations
E - Expected...altitude/flight level ATC has advised to expect in further clearance
A - Assigned...altitude/flight level assigned in last ATC clearance
c) Leave clearance limit:
- when clearance limit is fix from which approach begins (IAF, FAF), commence descent/approach as close as possible to EFC (expect-further- clearance) time if one has been received; if one has not been received, t hen close to arrive at estimated time of arrival (ETA)
- If clearance limit not fix from which approach begins, leave at EFC time (if assigned) otherwise try arriving as close to ETA
186
What does Single-Pilot Resource Management refer to?
SRM refers to effective use of /all/ available resources: human resources, hardware, and information. HR includes dispatchers, weather briefers, maintenance personnel, and air traffic controllers. SRM is similar to Crew Resource Management.
187
What procedure would you use if all communication and navigation equipment failed (complete electrical system failure)?
a) First determine you have complete loss. Determine cause (check circuit breakers, alternator, ammeter, etc)
b) Review preflight weather briefing for nearest VFR; determine heading and altitude and proceed to VFR conditions using VFR altitudes
c) If VFR conditions are not within range of aircraft, get off airway and determine heading to unpopulated area relatively free of obstacles (rural, large lake, ocean)
d) Establish descent on a specific heading to VFR conditions; proceed VFR to nearest airport
188
What angular deviation from a VOR course is represented by half-scale deflection of the CDI?
Full scale deflection - 10 degrees
Half scale deflection - 5 degrees
Each mark - 2 degrees
189
What is reverse sensing?
VOR needle indicates reverse of normal operation (fly away from needle to get on course, rather than to needle). Happens when flying inbound on back course or outbound on front course of ILS.
190
Procedure for determining intercept angle when intercepting a VOR radial?
a) Turn to heading parallel desired course, in same direction as course to be flown
b) Determine the difference between the radial to be intercepted and the radial on which you are located
c) Double the difference to determine the interception angle which will not be less than 20 degrees nor greater than 90 degrees
d) Rotate the OBS to the desired radial or inbound course
e) Turn to intercept heading
f) Hold heading constant until CDI centers
g) Turn to the magnetic heading corresponding to selected course, and follow tracking procedures inbound or outbound
Note: steps a-c may be omitted if you turn directly to intercept the course without initially turning to parallel the desired course
191
What degree of accuracy can be expected in VOR navigation?
VOR navigation is accurate to +/- 1 degree
192
If a thunderstorm is inadvertently encountered, what flight instrument and what procedure should be used to maintain control of the aircraft?
Attitude indicator - establish power for recommended maneuvering speed and attempt to maintain a constant attitude only. Do not attempt to maintain a constant altitude!
193
What are conditions needed for major structural icing to form?
a) Aircraft must fly through visible moisture, such as rain or cloud droplets
b) Temperature at the point where moisture strikes the aircraft must be 0 deg C or colder. Aerodynamics cooling can lower temp of airfoil to 0 deg C even though ambient temp is a few degrees warmer
194
What action is recommended if you inadvertently encounter icing conditions?
a) Move to altitude with significantly colder temperatures (no moisture)
b) Move to altitude with temps that are above freezing
c) Fly to area clear of visible moisture
d) Change heading and fly to area of known non-icing conditions
195
Which type of precipitation produces most hazardous icing conditions?
Freezing rain
196
If icing inadvertently encountered, how would your landing approach procedure be different?
a) Maintain more power during approach
b) Maintain higher airspeed
c) Expect a higher stall speed (occurs earlier)
d) Expect a longer landing roll
e) A "no flaps" approach is recommend (avoid stall)
f) Maintain a consistently higher altitude than normal
g) Avoid a missed approach (get it right the first time)
197
Within what frequency range to VORs operate?
108.0 MHz to 117.975 MHz (VHF band)
198
What is meaning of a single coded identification received only once every 30 seconds from a VORTAC station?
The DME component is operative, but VOR component is inoperative. If no ID is received, facility has been taken off the air for tune-up or repair, even though intermittent or constant signals are received.
199
Will all VOR stations have capability for providing distance information to aircraft equipped with DME?
No, only VOR/DME, VORTAC, ILS/DME, and LOC/DME stations can provide distance information to aircraft equipped with DME.
200
For IFR operations off established airways, the "Route of Flight" portion of an IFR flight plan should list VOR navaids which are no further than what distance from each other?
Above 18,000 ft MSL: 80 NM
Below 14,500 ft AGL or 18,00 ft MSL: 200 NM
201
Within what frequency range do NDBs normally operate?
