Instrument Oral Exam (blue book + additionals) Flashcards
An applicant for an instrument rating must have at least how much and what type of flight time as pilot?
(14 CFR 61.65)
An applicant must have:
a) 50 hours of x-ctry flight time as PIC, of which at least 10 hrs must be in planes
b) 40 hrs of act. or sim inst. time ( on the areas of operation specified)
c) 15 hrs of inst flihgt training from an authorized instructor in the a/c catagory for which the inst rating is sought
d) 3 hrs of training appropriate to the inst rating sought from an auth instructor, in prep for the practical test w/in the 60 days preceding the date of test
e) 250 NM x-ctry conducted under IFR, incl. 3 diff approaches
When is an instrument rating required?
When ops are conducted:
a) under IFR rules (IFR flight plan)
b) wx conditions less than the min for VFR flight
c) In class A airspace,
d) Under special VFR within Class B, C, D, and class E surface areas between sunset and sunrise.
what are the recency of experience requirements to be PIC of a flight under IFR
a) BFR
b) to carry passengers, 3 T.O.’s and landings w/in the preceding 90 days (full stop at night)
c) w.in the preceding 6 mts logged under actual or sim inst. conditions, either in flight in the appropriate catagory of a/c or in a flight sim or flight training device—-
- at least 6 inst. approaces
- holding procedures and
- intercepting and tracking courses through the use of nav equipment.
If a pilot allows thier currency to expire what can be done to become current again?
Pilot is current for 6 mths after the check ride or profeciency check, then if allowed the 6 mths to expire w/out doing the 6 approaches holding proc, etc. pilot is not able to file IFR and give another 6 mths “grace period” to accomplish the approaches etc. If that grace period is allowed to expire then the pilot may become current again by completing a instrument proficiency check.
Define appropriately rated safety pilot.
Pilot must hold at least a private pilot cert. they must also have a current medical cert and be current in the catagory and class of a/c being flown.
what information must a pilot in command be familiar with before a flight?
WKRAFT
All available information including:
a) Weather reports and forecasts
b) Known ATC delays
c) Runway lengths of intended use
d) Alternatives if the flight cannot be completed as planned
e) Fuel requirements
f) Takeoff and landing distances
What are the fuel requirements for flight in IFR conditions?
the a/c must carry enough fuel to fly to the first airport of intended landing (including the approach) the alt. airport (if required), and thereafter, for 45 minutes at normal cruise speed. If any alternate airport is not required, enough fuel must be carried to fly to the destination airport and land with 45 min of fuel remaining.
What a/c instruments are required for IFR ops?
GRABCARD
generator or alternator of adequate capacity
radios
Altimeter
ball
clock
attitude indicator
rate of turn
directional gyro
what are the required tests and inspections of aircraft and equipment to be legal for IFR flight
AVIATES
- Airworthyness Directives
- VOR w/in preceding 30 days- record kept in bound logbook
- Inspection 100 hr. if operated for hire (must have annual). record kept in a/c / engine log
- Altimeter w.in preceding 24 mts
- Transponder w/in preceding 24 mts
- ELT 1/2 batt. life or 1hr cumulative use
- Static/ Pitot System w/in preceding 24 mts.
May portable electronic devices be operated on board an a/c?
No person may operate nor may any PIC allow the operation of any portable electronic device:
a) On a/c operated by an air carrier or commercial operator; or
b) On any other a/c while it is operated under IFR
what documents must be on board an a/c to make it legal for IFR flight?
ARROW
Airworthyness Cert
Registration Cert
Radio Station Licence (International Ops)
Owner’s Manual or Operating Limitations
Weight and balance data
When can you cancel your IFR flight plan?
An IFR flight plan may be canceled at any time the flight is operating in VFR conditions outside of Class A airspace. Pilots must be aware that other procedures may be applicable to a flight that cancels an IFR flight plan within an area where a special program, such as a designated TRSA, Class C airspace, or Class B airspace, has been established
When using GPS for nav underIFR , how often must the database be updated?
Every 28 days for IFR ops
When must a pilot file an IFR flight plan?
Prior to departure from within or prior to entering controlled airspace, a pilot must submit a complete flight plan and recieve clearance from ATC if weather conditions are below VFR mins. The pilot should file the flight plan at least 30 mins prior to the estimated time of departure to preclude a possible delay in receiving a departure clearance from ATC
What is a composite flight plan?
It is a flight plan that specifies VFR for a portion and IFR for another.
what type of aircraft equipment determines your “special equipment” suffix when filing an IFR flight plan?
TARDA
TACAN- only equipment
Area Navigation Equipment (RNAV)- LORAN, INS
Radar beacon transponder
DME equipment
Advanced Area Navigation Equipment- (GPS), (GNSS)global navigation satellite system
The requested altitude on an FAA flight plan form (Block 7) represents which altitude for the route of flight- the initial, lowest, or highest?
Enter only the initial requested altitude in this block. When more than one IFR altitude or flight level is desired along the route of flight, it is best to make a subsequent request direct to the controller.
What are the alternate airport requirements?
1-2-3 Rule
If from 1 hr prior to 1 hr after your planned ETA at the destination airport, the weather is forecast to be at least 2,000 ft ceilings and 3 mile vis., no alternate is required. If less than 2,000 and 3 miles an alternate must be filed using the following criteria:
a) If an IAP is published for that airportm the alternate airport minimums specified in that procedure or, if none are specified, the following mins–
- Precision approach procedure: ceiling 600’ and vis. 2 stat. miles
- Nonprecision approaches: ceiling 800’ and vis. 2 stat. miles.
b) If no IAP has been published for that airport, the ceiling and visibility minimums are those allowing descent from the MEA, approach, and landing under basic VFR.
What is the definition of the term ceiling?
Ceiling is defined as the height above the earth’s surface of the lowest layer of clouds or obscuring phenomena reported as “broken, overcast or obscuration” and not classified as “thin or partial”
What minimums are to be used on arrival at the alternate?
If an instrument approach procedure has been published for that airport, the minimums specified in that procedure are used.
what are preferred routes and where can they be found?
Preferred routes are those established between busier airports to incrase system efficiency and capacity. preferred routes are listed in the Airport/Facilities Directory.
What are Enroute Low Altitude Charts?
Enroute low-altitude charts provide aeronautical information for navigation under IFR conditions below 18,000’ MSL. These charts are revised every 56 days.
What are Enroute high atlitute charts?
Enroute high altitude charts are designed for navigation at or above 18,000’ MSL. This four color chart series includes the jet route structure; VHF NAVAID’s w/ freq., identification, channel, geographic coordinates; selected airports; reporting points. Revised every 56 days.
What are area charts?
Area charts furnish terminal information azt a laorge scale in congested areas such as Dallas/Ft. Worth, Atlanta, etc. Multiple area charts are printed in one publication and are revised every 56 days.
Where can information on possible navigational aid limitations be found?
The airport/facilities directory.
What other useful information can be found in the Airport Facilities Directory which might be helpful in route planning?
SPAAVE
- Special notices- FSS, GADO, Weather Service office phone numbers.
- Preferred IFR routes- high and low altitude.
- Aeronautical Chart Bulletins- recent changes after publication.
- ARTCC- locations and sector frequencies.
- VOR reciever checkpoints- locations and frequencies
- Enroute Flight Advisory Services- locations and communications outlets.
What are NOTAMS?
Notices To Airmen (NOTAM)- Time critical aeronautical information, which is of either a temporary nature or not known sufficiently in advance to permit publication on aeronautical charts or in other operational publications, recieves immediate dissemination via the National NOTAM System. It is aeronautical informationthat could affect a pilot’s decision to make a flight. It includes such information as airport or primary runway closures, changes in the status of navigational aids, ILS’s, radar service availability, and other information essential to planned en route, terminal, or landing operations.
What are the three catagories of NOTAMS?
NOTAM (D) - A NOTAM given (in addition to local) distant dissimenation beyond the area of responsibility of the FLight Service Station. These NOTAMs will be stored and available until canceled. NOTAM (D)s contain information on all civil public use airports and navigational facilities that are part of the National Airspace System. NOTAM (D) items are serious enough to affect the usability of an airport or a certain facility.
NOTAM (L)- A NOTAM given local dissemination by voice and other means to staisfy local user requirements. NOTAM (L) info may cover items such as taxiway closures, persons and or equip. near or crossing runways, airport rotating beacon outages, and other info that would have little impact on non- local ops.
FDC NOTAM- The National Flight Data Center will issue these NOTAMs when it becomes necessary to disseminate info which is regulatory in nature. FDC NOTAMs contain items such as amendments to published IAPs and other current aeronautical charts. They are also used to advertise temporary flight restrictions caused by natural disasters or large scale public events that may generate congestion of air traffic over a site.
what type of NOTAMs will be omitted from a pilot briefing if not specifically requested by the pilot?
NOTAM (D) info and FDC NOTAMs that have been published in the Notices to Airmen Publication (NTAP) are not included in pilot briefings unless a review of the NTAP is specifically requested by the pilot. Also, NOTAM (L) info is distributed locally only and is not attached to the hourly wx reports. A separate file of local NOTAMs is maintained at each FSS for facilities in ther area only. NOTAM (L) info for other FSS areas must be specifically requested, and the request made directly to the FSS with responsibility for the airport concerned.
Where can NOTAM info be obtained?
a) Nearest FSS
b) DUATS vendors
c) NTAP printed NOTAMs; not normally a briefing. Pilots must make a specific request for them during briefing. The NTAP is also available online from the FAA’s website.
Will a FSS briefer provide GPS NOTAMs as part of a standard briefing?
No. A pilot must request GPS NOTAMs during a preflight briefing from an AFSS briefer
What instruments operate from the pitot static system.
The pitot static sys operates the altimeter, vertical-speed indicator, and airspeed indicator
How does the altimeter work?
In an altimeter, aneroid wafers expand and contract as atmospheric pressure changes, and through a shaft and gear linkage, rotate pointers on the dial of the instrument.
What are the limitations that a pressure altimeter is subject to?
Nonstandard pressure and temperature:
a) Temp variations expand or contract the atmosphere and raise or lower pressure levels that the altimeter senses.
- On a warm day- the pressure level is higher than on a standard day. The altimeter indicates lower than actual altitude.
- On a cold day- The pressure level is lower than on a standard day. The altimeter indicates higher than actual altitude.
b) Changes in surface pressure also affect pressure levels at altitude.
- Higher than standard pressure- The pressure level is higher than on a standard day. The altimeter indicates lower than actual altitude.
- Lower than standard pressure- the pressure level is lower than on a standard day. The altimeter indicates higher than actual altitude.
REMEMBER: High to low or hot to cold look out below!
For IFR flight what is the max allowable error for an altimeter?
If the altimeter is off field elevation by more than 75’ with the correct pressure set in the Kollsman window, it is considered to be unreliable.
Identify and define the different types of altitudes.
T PAID
Indicated - read off the instrument.
Pressure - indicated when 29.92 set in the altimeter.
True - MSL
Absolute - AGL
Density - pressure altitude corrected for non-standard temp.
How does an airspeed indicator operate?
measures the difference between ram pressure from the Pitot head and the atmospheric pressure from the static source.
what are the limitations the airspeed indicator is subject to?
It must have proper flow of air in the pitot/ static system.
For IFR flight what is the max allowable error for an altimeter?
If the altimeter is off field elevation by more than 75’ with the correct pressure set in the Kollsman window, it is considered to be unreliable.
How does an airspeed indicator operate?
measures the difference between ram pressure from the Pitot head and the atmospheric pressure from the static source.
what are the limitations the airspeed indicator is subject to?
It must have proper flow of air in the pitot/ static system.
What are the errors that the airspeed indicator is subject to?
PDC
Position error- Caused by the static ports sensing erroneous static pressure; slipstream flow causes disturbances at the static port preventing sctual atmospheric pressure measurement. It varies with airspeed, altitude, configuration and may be a plus or minus value.
Density error- Changes in altitude and temp are not compensated for by the instrument.
Compressibility error- caused by the packing of air into the pitot tube at high airspeeds, resulting in higher than normal indications. It usually occurs above 180 KIAS.
What are the different types of aircraft speeds?
TG ICE
Indicated- Read off the instrument; uncorrected for instrument or system errors.
Calibrated- IAS corrected for instrument and position errors; obtained from the POH/AFM for various flap and landing gear configurations.
Equivalent- CAS corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at altitude.
True- CAS corrected for nonstandard temp. and press. obtained from a flight computer, AFM, or the A/S indicator slide computer.
Groundspeed- TAS corrected for wind; speed across the ground; use the flight computer.
What airspeeds are indicated by the various color codes found on the dial of an airspeed indicator?
White arc- Flap operating range
- Bottom of white arc- Flaps down stall speed
- Top of white arc- Max airspeed for flaps- down flight.
Green arc- normal operating range
- bottom of green arc- flaps up stall speed
- top of green arc- max airspeed for rough air
Yellow arc- structural warning area
- Bottom of yellow arc- Max a/s for tough air
- top of yellow arc- Never exceed a/s.
Red radial line- never exceed airspeed.
How does the VSI work?
changing pressures expand and contract a diaphram connected to the indicating needle through gears and levers. The VSI is connected to the static pressure line through a calibrated leak; it measures differential pressure.
What are the limitations of the VSI?
It is not accurate until the aircraft is stabilized. Sudden or abrupt changes in the a/c attitude will cause erroneous inst. readings as airflow fluctuates over the static port. These changes are not reflected immediately by the VSI due to the calibrated leak.
What instruments are affected when the static port freezes?
Airspeed indicator- Accurate at the altitude frozen as long as static pressure in the indicator and the system equals outside pressure. If the aircraft descends, the airspeed indicator will read high, if you ascend it will read low.
Altimeter- Indicates the altitude at which the system is blocked.
VSI- Will indicate level flight.
What is the corrective action if the pitot tube freezes? If the static port freezes?
For piot tube- turn on the pitot tube heat
For static system- Use alternate air if available or break the face of a static instument (either the VSI or A/S indicator)
What indications should you expect while using alternate air?
in many unpressurized a..c equipped with a pitot static tube, an alternate source of static press is provided for emergency use. If the alternate source is vented inside the airplane, where static press is usually lower than outide, selection of the alt static source may result in the following instrument indications:
- Altimeter- Reads higher than normal
- A/S indicator- Indiatd a/s reads greater than normal
- VSI- momentarily shows a climb
What instruments contains gyroscopes?
Attitude indicator, heading indicator and turn coordinator/ indicator
Name Several types of power sources commonly used to power the gyroscopic instruments in an aircraft.
In some planes, all the gyros are vacuum or pressure systems providee the power for the heading and attitude indicators, while the electrical system provides the power for the turn coordinator.
How does the vacuum sys operate?
The vacuum or pressure sys spins the gyro by drawing a stream of air against the rotor vanes to spin the rotor at high speeds, essentially the same as a water wheel or turbine operates. The amount of vacuum or press required for inst operation varies by manufacturer and is usually between 4.5 to 5.5 in Hg. One source of vacuum for the gyros installed in light a/c is the vane type engine driven pump, mounted on the accesssory case of the engine.
How does the turn coordinator operate?
The turn part of the inst. uses precession to indicate direction and approximate rate of tuen. A gyro reacts by trying to move in reaction to the force applied, thus moving the miniature a/c in proportion to the rate of turn. The inclinometer in the instrument is a black glass ball sealed inside a curved glass tube that is partially filled with a liquid. The ball measures the relative strength of the force of graity and the force of inertia caused by a turn.
What info does the turn coordinator provide?
The mini a/c in the turn coordinator displays the rate of turn, rate of roll and direction of turn.
The ball in the tube indicates the quality of turn (slip or skid)
slip- ball on the inside of turn; not enough rate of turn for the amt of bank.
skid- ball to the outside of turn; too much rate of turn for the amount of bank.
What is the source of power for the turn coordinator?
Turn coordinator gyros can be driven by either air or electricity; some are dual- powered. Typically the turn coordinator is electrically powered, but always refer to the AFM for specs.
What are the limitations of the heading indicator?
They vary with the particular design and make of instrument: on some heading indicators in light, airplanes, the limits are approximately 55 deg of pitch and 55 deg of bank. When either of these attitude limits are exceeded, the inst “tumbles” or “spills” and no longer gives the corrct indication until it is reset with the caging knob. Many modern instruments used are designed in such a manner that they will not tumble.
What type of error is the heading indicator subject to?
Because of precession, caused chiefly by friction, the heading indicator will creeep or drift from the heading it is set to. Max allowable precession is 3 degrees in 15 mins
How does the attitude indicator work?
the gyrp in the attitude indicator is mounted on a horizontal plane and depends upon rigidity in space for its operation. The horizon bar represents the true horizon and is fixed to the gyro; it remains in a horizontal plane as the plane is pitched or banked about its lateral or longitudinal axis, indicating the attitude of the airplane relative to the true horizon.
What are the limitations of an attitude indicator?
Limits depend upon the make and model of the instrument; bank limits are usually from 100 deg to 110 deg and pitch limits are usually from 60 deg to 70 deg. if either limit is exceeded th instrument will tumble or spill and will give incorrect indications until restabilized. Some modern attitude indicators are designed so they will not tumble.
Is the attitude indicator subject to errors?
Attitude indicators are free from most errors, but depending upon the speed with which the erection sys functions, there may be a slight nose up indication during a rapid acceleration and a nose down indication during a rapid deceleration. There is also a possibility of a small bank angle and pitch error after a 180 deg turn. On rollout from a 180 deg turn the AI will indicate a slight climb and turn in the opposite direction of rollout. These inherent errors are small and correct themselves within a min or so after returning to straight and level flight.
How does the magnetic compass work?
Magnets mounted on the compass card align themselves parallel to the earth’s lines of magnetic force.
What limitations does the magnetic compass have?
The float assembly of the compass is balanced on a pivot, which allows free rotation of the card and allows it to tilt at an angle up to 18 deg.
What are the various compass errors?
VDMONA, ANDS, UNOS
Oscillation error- erratic movement of the compass card caused by turbulence or rough control techniquie
Deviation- Due to electrical and magnetic disturbances in the a/c.
Variation- Angular difference between true and magnetic north; Reference isogonic lines of variation.
Dip errors:
a) acceleration- On east or west headings. while accelerating, the compass shows a turn to the north, and when decelerating, it shows a turn to the south.
Remember: ANDS
Accelerate North Decelerate South
b) Northerly turning error- The compass leads in the south half of a turn, and lags in the north half of a turn.
Remember: UNOS
Undershoot
North
Overshoot
South
At what rate does atmospheric presssure decrease with an increase in altitude?
Atmospheric pressure decreases approximately 1” Hg per 1,000 feet.
What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level?
15 deg C, and 29.92 Hg are standard at sea level.
State the general characteristics in regard to the flow of air around high and low pressure systems in the northern hemisphere.
Low pressure- air flows inward, upward and counterclockwise
High pressure- Air flows outward, downward and clockwise.
What causes the winds aloft to flow parallel to the isobars?
The coriolis force causes winds aloft to flow parallel to the isobars.
Why do surface winds generally flow across isobars at an angle?
Surface friction causes winds to flow across isobars at an angle.
When temperature and dew point are close together (within 5 deg), what type of weather is likely?
Visible moisture is likely, in the form of clouds, dew or fog.
What factor primarily determines the type and vertical extent of clouds?
The stability of the atmosphere determines type and vertical extent of clouds.
What is the difference between a stable and unstable atmosphere?
An unstable atmosphere is one in which, if air is displaced vertically, it will continue to move vertically; a stable atmosphere is one which tends to resist any vertical movement of air.
How do you determine the stability of the atmosphere?
By obsercing the acrual lapse rate and comparing it to the dry adiabatic rate of 3 deg per 1000’. The “K” index of a stability chart is also a means of determining stability prior to flight.
List the effects of stable and unstable air on clouds, turbulence, precipitation, and visibility.
stable= SSSF
Stable-
Clouds… Stratiform
turbulence… smooth
Precipitation… steady
Visibility… Fair to poor
Unstable-
Clouds… Cumuliform
turbulence… rough
Precipitation… showery
Visibility… good
What are the two main types of icing?
Structural and induction are the two main types of icing.
Name four types of structural ice.
Clear ice- Forms when large drops strike the a/c surface and slowly freeze.
Rime ice- Small drops strike the aircraft and freeze rapidly.
Mixed ice- Combination of the above; supercooled water drops varying in size.
Frost- Ice crystal deposits formed by sublimation when temp/dew point is below freezing.
What conditions are necessary for structural icing to occur?
Visible moisture and below- freezing temps at the point moisture strikes the a/c are necessary.
Which type of structural icing is more dangerous, rime or clear?
Clear ice is typically the most hazardous ice encountered. It is hard, heavy and tenacious. Clear ice forms when, after initial impact, the remaining liquid portion of the drop flows out over the a/c surface, gradually freezing as a smooth sheet of solid ice. This happens when drops are large, such as in rain or in cumuliform clouds. its removal by deicing equipment is especially difficult due to the fact that it forms as it flows away from the deicing equipment.
What factors must be present for a thunderstorm to form?
To form a thunderstorm there must be:
a) A source of lift (heating, fast moving front)
b) Unstable air (non standard lapse rate)
c) High moisture content(temperature and dew point are close)
What are squall line thunderstorms?
A squall line is a non frontal, narrow band of active thunderstorms. Often it developss ahead of a cold front in moist, unstable air, but it may also develop in unstable air far removed from any front. The line may be too long to easily detour and too wide and severe to penetrate. It often contains severe steady state thunderstorms and presents the single most intense weather hazard to a/c. It usually forms rapidly, reaching a max intensity during the late afternoon and the first few hours.
State two basic ways fog may form.
Fog forms:
a) by cooling air to the dew point.
b) By adding moisture to the air.
