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Instrument Flight Theory > Instrument Jeopardy > Flashcards

Instrument Jeopardy Flashcards

1
Q

This refers to the principle that a wheel with a heavily weighted rim spun rapidly tends to remain fixed in the plane in which it is spinning.

A

What is Rigidity in Space?

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2
Q

This is what allows the wheel or gyroscope to rotate freely in any plane.

A

What are Gimbals?

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2
Q

The layer of atmosphere from the surface to an altitude which varies between 24,000 and 50,000 feet. It is characterized by a decrease in temperature with altitude.

A

What is the Troposphere?

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2
Q

Usually marked only with the runway number and a centerline, but threshold markings may be included if the runway is used, or intended to be used, for international commercial operations, and aiming point markings may be included on runways 4,000 feet or longer used by jet aircraft.

A

What is a Visual Runway?

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2
Q

A preplanned IFR procedure published in graphic or textual formats to provide pilots with obstruction clearance from the terminal area to the enroute structure.

A

What is a Instrument departure procedure (DP)?

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2
Q

A preplanned IFR procedure published in graphic or textual formats to provide pilots with obstruction clearance from the terminal area to the enroute structure.

A

What is a Instrument departure procedure (DP)?

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3
Q

When an outside force tries to tilt a spinning gyro, the gyro responds as if the force had been applied at a point 90 degrees further around in the direction of rotation.

A

What is Precession?

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3
Q

The layer that has an abrupt change in temperature lapse rate and acts as a lid which confines most water vapor and the associated weather in the troposphere.

A

What is the Tropopause?

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3
Q

Used with an instrument approach that does not have an electrical glide slope for approach glide path information. This type of runway has the visual markings, plus the threshold and aiming point markings.

A

What is Nonprecision instrument runway?

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3
Q

Usually contains an initial set of instructions that apply to all aircraft, followed by one or more transition routes that require you to navigate to the appropriate fix within the enroute structure. The PIC is primarily responsible for navigation.

A

What is a Pilot nav DP?

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3
Q

Usually contains an initial set of instructions that apply to all aircraft, followed by one or more transition routes that require you to navigate to the appropriate fix within the enroute structure. The PIC is primarily responsible for navigation.

A

What is a Pilot nav DP?

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4
Q

A turn at a rate of 3 degrees per second.

A

What is Standard Rate of Turn?

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4
Q

The layer of atmosphere above the troposphere. Severe thunderstorms may extend into this atmosphere.

A

What is the Stratosphere?

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4
Q

Served by nonvisual precision approach aids, such as the instrument landing system (ILS). The ILS uses an electrical glide slope to provide glide path information during the approach. Touchdown zone markings are coded to provide distance information in 500 foot increments and aiming point markings are located approximately 1,000 feet from the landing threshold.

A

What are Precision instrument runways?

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4
Q

The greatest distance a weather observer or tower personnel can see throughout one-half the horizon. This visibility, which need not be continuous, is reported in statute miles or fractions of miles and recorded on the aviation routine weather report (METAR).

A

What is Prevailing/Tower visibility?

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4
Q

The greatest distance a weather observer or tower personnel can see throughout one-half the horizon. This visibility, which need not be continuous, is reported in statute miles or fractions of miles and recorded on the aviation routine weather report (METAR).

A

What is Prevailing/Tower visibility?

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5
Q

The rate of turn is too slow for the angle of bank, and the ball moves to the inside of the turn.

A

What is a slip?

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5
Q

The uppermost 2 atmosphere layers which contain almost no atmospheric gases.

A

What is the Mesosphere & Thermosphere?

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5
Q

At airports equipped with an instrument landing system, it is possible for an aircraft near the runway to interfere with the ILS system. In such cases, this second hold line may be placed further from the runway to prevent any interference.

A

What is a ILS Hold Line?

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5
Q

The visibility determined for a particular runway by a device, called a transmissometer, located near the runway. This value is reported in statute miles or fractions of miles, is used in lieu of prevailing visibility in determining minimums for a particular runway.

A

What is Runway visibility value (RVV)?

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5
Q

The visibility determined for a particular runway by a device, called a transmissometer, located near the runway. This value is reported in statute miles or fractions of miles, is used in lieu of prevailing visibility in determining minimums for a particular runway.

A

What is Runway visibility value (RVV)?

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6
Q

The rate of turn is too great for the angle of bank and the ball moves to the outside of the turn.

A

What is a Skid?

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6
Q

A deep layer of charged particles beginning about 30 miles above the surface. The electrical characteristics of the ionosphere can affect radio communications around sunset and sunrise, and during periods of increased solar activity.

A

What is the Ionosphere?

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6
Q

Helps you transition from instrument to visual reference during the approach to landing

A

What is a Approach lighting system (ALS)?

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6
Q

Visibility based on what a pilot in a moving aircraft should see when looking down the runway from the approach end. It value is based on the measurement of a transmissometer near the instrument runway and is reported in hundreds of feet for instance, RVR 12 means 1,200 ft.

A

What is Runway Visual Range (RVR)?

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6
Q

Visibility based on what a pilot in a moving aircraft should see when looking down the runway from the approach end. It value is based on the measurement of a transmissometer near the instrument runway and is reported in hundreds of feet for instance, RVR 12 means 1,200 ft.

A

What is Runway Visual Range (RVR)?

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7
Q

This exists because the magnets in the compass try to point three dimentionally toward the earth’s magnetic north pole, which is located deep inside the earth. To compensate for this downward pull on the north-seeking end of the magnets (in the northern hemisphere), the compass card is weighted at the south end. It is this action of this weight that causes compass errors during turns and during acceleration.

A

What is magnetic dip?

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7
Q

Lines that meteorologist plot when connecting points of equal pressure from different weather reporting stations. These lines are labeled in millibars.

A

What are Isobars?

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7
Q

These systems are a series of brilliant blue-white bursts of flashing light. From pilot viewpoint, these systems give the impression of a ball of light traveling at high speed toward the approach end of the runway. These lighting systems are usually incorporated into other approach light systems.

A

What are Sequenced flashing lights (SFL) and Runway alignment indicator lights (RAIL)?

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7
Q

What are Graphic departure procedures - commonly referred to as DPs?

A

Coded departure routes established to expedite departures at airports with a large volume of traffic. They are generally intended to simplify clearance delivery and departure procedures for both you and air traffic control or they may be designed for the sake of a obstacle clearance. To fly one of these, you must have either a appropriate charted procedure or at least a textual description in your possession, otherwise, you should file “NO DP” in your flight plan.

2 types of Graphic DPs are

  • Obstacle Graphic DPs - which is either a Pilot Nav or Vector
  • ATC DPs (SIDS) - which is also either Pilot Nav or Vector

Pilot Nav is most common.

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7
Q

What are Graphic departure procedures - commonly referred to as DPs?

A

Coded departure routes established to expedite departures at airports with a large volume of traffic. They are generally intended to simplify clearance delivery and departure procedures for both you and air traffic control or they may be designed for the sake of a obstacle clearance. To fly one of these, you must have either a appropriate charted procedure or at least a textual description in your possession, otherwise, you should file “NO DP” in your flight plan.

2 types of Graphic DPs are

  • Obstacle Graphic DPs - which is either a Pilot Nav or Vector
  • ATC DPs (SIDS) - which is also either Pilot Nav or Vector

Pilot Nav is most common.

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8
Q

When rolling into a turn from a northerly heading in the northern hemisphere, the compass swings in the opposite direction of the turn before catching up.

A

What is Northerly turning error?

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8
Q

Resulting pattern revealed from the isobars and indicates the changes in pressure over a distance. When the isobars are spread apart, the gradient is considered to be weak, while closely spaced isobars indicate a strong gradient.

A

What is Pressure Gradient?

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8
Q

High intensity white strobe light placed on each side of the runway to mark the threshold. Their purpose is to provide you with a means of rapidly indentifying the approach end of the runway during reduced visibility.

A

What are Runway End Identifier Lights (REIL)?

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8
Q

Indicates the minimums that are not standard and/or IFR departure procedures are published.

A

What is Take-off minimum and (obstacle) departure procedures?

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8
Q

Indicates the minimums that are not standard and/or IFR departure procedures are published.

A

What is Take-off minimum and (obstacle) departure procedures?

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9
Q

This type of airspeed read directly from the airspeed indicator on an aircraft, driven by the pitot-static system.

A

What is Indicated Airspeed (IAS)?

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9
Q

A center drawn out from isobars surrounded on all sides by lower pressure. These are areas of descending air which can encourage good weather. Airflow leaves a high in a clockwise cyclonic rotation

A

What is a high pressure?

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9
Q

Lights similar to VASI, but the lights are installed in a single row of two or fore-light units.

A

What is a Precision approach path indicator (PAPI)?

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9
Q

What is Radar departure (radar vector)?

A

Often assigned at radar-equipped approach control facilities and requires close coordination with tower. if your flight is to be radar vectored immediately after takeoff, the tower will advise you of the heading or vectors to be flown. Radar DP charts does not contain any departure or transition routes.

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9
Q

What is Radar departure (radar vector)?

A

Often assigned at radar-equipped approach control facilities and requires close coordination with tower. if your flight is to be radar vectored immediately after takeoff, the tower will advise you of the heading or vectors to be flown. Radar DP charts does not contain any departure or transition routes.

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10
Q

This type of airspeed is indicated airspeed corrected for installation and instrument errors such as high agles of attack when the pitot tube does not point straight and level into the relative wind.

A

What is Calibrated Airspeed (CAS)?

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10
Q

A center drawn out from isobars surrounded on all sided by higher pressure. These are areas of rising air which can encourage bad weather. Airflow enters a low in a counterclockwise cyclonic rotation.

A

What is a low presure?

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10
Q

Helps you to maintain centerline during takeoff and landing. They are spaced 50 feet apart and are white in color until the last 3,000 feet where they alternate between white and red. They become all red during the last 1,000 feet.

A

What are Runway centerline lights (RCLS)?

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10
Q

Use by ATC to advise you that your aircraft has been identified and radar flight following will be provided until radar identification has been terminated.

A

What is Radar Contact?

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10
Q

Use by ATC to advise you that your aircraft has been identified and radar flight following will be provided until radar identification has been terminated.

A

What is Radar Contact?

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11
Q

This type of airspeed is calibrated airspeed corrected for adiabatic compressible flow at a particular alitutude. Airspeeds above 200 KIAS and altitudes above 20,000 feet, air is compressed in front of an aircraft as it passes through the air. Compressibility causes abnormally high indications, so this becomes is lower than CAS.

A

What is Equivalent airspeed (EAS)?

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11
Q

An elongated area of high pressure.

A

What is a ridge?

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11
Q

indicated by the green lights.

A

What are Taxiway centerline lights?

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11
Q

A phrase used by ATC to advise you to assume responsibility of you own navigation.

A

What is ‘Resume own navigation’?

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11
Q

A phrase used by ATC to advise you to assume responsibility of you own navigation.

A

What is ‘Resume own navigation’?

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12
Q

This type of airspeed is the actual speed the aircraft moves through undisturbed air.

A

What is True Airspeed?

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12
Q

An elongated area of low pressure.

A

What is a trough?

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12
Q

Indicated by blue lights.

A

What are Taxiway edge light?

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12
Q

Are _____airways below 18,000 MSL and depicted on_____ charts. (2 questions).

A

What are Victor airways/Low altitude enroute charts?

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12
Q

Are _____airways below 18,000 MSL and depicted on_____ charts. (2 questions).

A

What are Victor airways/Low altitude enroute charts?

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13
Q

This is the ratio of the aircraft’s true airspeed to the speed of sound. For example, 0.85 means the aircraft is flying at 85% of the speed of sound at that temperature.

A

What is Mach?

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13
Q

This area can be designated as either a neutral area between two highs or two lows, or the intersection of a ridge and a trough.

A

What is a col?

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13
Q

Indicated by alternating yellow and green lights.

A

What are Taxiway lead-off lights?

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13
Q

Are _____airways above 18,000 MSL and and up to FL450 depicted on_____ charts. (2 questions).

A

What are jet routes/high altitude enroute charts?

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13
Q

Are _____airways above 18,000 MSL and and up to FL450 depicted on_____ charts. (2 questions).

A

What are jet routes/high altitude enroute charts?

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14
Q

Altimeter adjustable for barometric pressure.

A

What is Sensitive Altimeter?

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14
Q

This is caused by airflow moving from a cool, dense, high-pressure area to a warm, less-dense, low-pressure area. Its strength is based on the gradient force.

A

What is wind?

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14
Q
  • Extends from 18,000 feet MSL to FL6000
  • Must be currently instrument rated
  • Must be on a flight plan
  • Aircraft must be IFR equipped
  • DME is required on aircraft above 24,000 feet
  • If DME fails above 24,000 feet, ATC must be notified then you can proceed to next airport where repairs can be made.
A

What is Alpha airspace?

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14
Q

What is located here?

A

Textual DPs normally found at the bottom of Jeppesen charts.

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14
Q

What is located here?

A

Textual DPs normally found at the bottom of Jeppesen charts.

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15
Q

This is what you read on the altimeter when it is correctly adjusted to show your approximate height above mean sea level (MSL).

A

What is Indicated altitude?

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15
Q

The spinning earth under this airflow deflects to the right as it flows out of a high pressure area in the northern hemisphere . This force also deflects winds aloft to be parallel to the isobars but is weakened near the earth due to the friction of the surface and causes winds to cross at a angle to the isobars below 2,000 ft.

A

What is Coriolis force?

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15
Q
  • Extend from surface to 10,000 feet. (normally)
  • Must be at least private pilot or student pilot with endorsement
  • Aircraft must be equipped with either mode S or 4096-code transponder with mode C
A

What is Bravo airspace?

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15
Q

Why is this departure procedure named the Maric Three Departure?

A

DPs are often named after the last fix for the common portion of the procedure prior to the departure transitions.

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15
Q

Why is this departure procedure named the Maric Three Departure?

A

DPs are often named after the last fix for the common portion of the procedure prior to the departure transitions.

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16
Q

This is indicated altitude corrected to compensate for instrument error.

A

What is Calibrated Altitude?

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16
Q

Occurs when heat is added to liquid and changes it into a gas.

A

What is Evaporation?

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16
Q
  • Must have minimum two-way radio equipment
  • Extends from surface to 4,000 feet total
  • Bottom self extends from surface to 4,000 feet with a core radius of 5 NM
  • Top self begins at 1,200 AGL up to 4,000 AGL with a core radius of 10 NM
  • Must establish two-way communications with ATC before entering or operating below shelf.
  • Must have mode C transponder
A

What is Charlie airspace?

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16
Q

What does the THREE mean?

A

The departure procedure has been updated because of significant changes. Should there be any other significant changes in the future, it will be renamed MARIC FOUR.

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16
Q

What does the THREE mean?

A

The departure procedure has been updated because of significant changes. Should there be any other significant changes in the future, it will be renamed MARIC FOUR.

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17
Q

This is displayed on the altimeter when it is set to the standard sea level pressure of 29.92 in. Hg. It is the vertical distance above the theoretical plane, or standard datum plane, where the atmosphere is equal to 29.92.

A

What is pressure altitude?

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17
Q

The change from ice into a vapor.

A

What is sublimation?

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17
Q
  • Extends from surface up to 2,500 feet AGL
  • Lateral limits 4 NM
  • Required to establish communications with tower before entering
  • When tower is closed, airspace becomes Class E if weather observations and reporting are available. If not, it becomes class G.
A

What is Delta airspace?

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17
Q

What is the purpose of a DP?

A

To provide you with a obstacle-free flight path considering your airplane is able to climb at least 200 feet per NM.

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17
Q

What is the purpose of a DP?

A

To provide you with a obstacle-free flight path considering your airplane is able to climb at least 200 feet per NM.

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18
Q

The number of molucules of air per cubic square will either increase or decrease with temperature. This is pressure altititude corrected for non standard temperature.

A

What is density altitude?

18
Q

Occurs when the air becomes saturated and water vapor in the air becomes a liquid.

A

What is condensation?

18
Q
  • Begins at 14,500 feet MSL to 18,000 MSL and extends out 12 NM from the coastlines.
  • Mode C transponder required above 10,000 feet MSL.
  • Consists of Victor Airways that uses VOR or VORTAC as navigation aids. They begin at 1,200 feet AGL, 8 NM wide, and extend up to 18,000 feet.
  • Class E airspace drops down to 700 feet AGL at nontower airports that have an approved instrument approach procedure.
A

What is Echo airspace?

18
Q

What would a second slope of 152 feet per NM be used for?

A

It is used for any obstacles. If a obstacles penetrates the slope gradient, another climb gradient above 200 feet will be specified in the DP.

18
Q

What would a second slope of 152 feet per NM be used for?

A

It is used for any obstacles. If a obstacles penetrates the slope gradient, another climb gradient above 200 feet will be specified in the DP.

19
Q

The actual height of an object above mean sea level.

A

What is True Altitude?

19
Q

When water vapor freezes directly into ice.

A

What is deposition?

19
Q
  • Prohibited areas – flights of aircrafts are prohibited
  • Restricted Areas – permission to fly through a restricted area must be granted by the controlling agency.
  • Warning area – extends from three nautical miles outward from the coast of the U.S and contains activities that may be hazardous to non-participating aircrafts
  • Alert area – high volume of activity, exercise extreme caution
  • Military operations area (M.O.A’s) – before entering MOA under VFR, contact the controlling agency for any advisories. Information is available at any FSS within 100 NM of the area
  • Controlled Firing area – not depicted on aeronautical charts.
A

What are special use airspaces?

20
Q

The actual height of the aircraft above the earth’s surface.

A

What is absolute altitude?

20
Q

All the moisture that air is able hold after cooling to a certain temperature. Once this temperaturet is reached, the air is completely saturated and the relative humidity is 100%.

A

What is dewpoint?

20
Q
  • National security areas (NSA’s) – Avoid flying through NSA’s, check NOTAM for advisories.
  • Airport advisory area – airspace 10 NM around airport with no control tower but has a FSS.
  • Military training routes
  • Parachute jump areas
  • Temporary flight restrictions – FAA will normally issue a NOTAM
  • Terminal radar service areas (TRSAs)
A

What are Other airspaces?

21
Q

This condition leads to unreliable operation of the heading indicator and attitude indicator.

A

What is Low vacuum pressure?

21
Q

This forms when the dewpoint in the atmosphere is below freezing, and the temperature of a collecting surface is below the dewpoint.

A

What is frost?

21
Q

Aircraft entering US domestic airspace from points
outside must provide identification prior to entry of zone.

A

What is the Air defense identification zones (ADIZ)?

22
Q

This is the stalling speed in a specific configuration.

A

What is Vs1?

22
Q

When water condenses to a weight and size that can no longer be supported by the atmosphere.

A

What is precipitation?

22
Q

Temporary time-critical information that may affect pilot’s decision to make a flight such as changes in Navigational Aids, radar reliability, or runways closures.

A

What are Notices to Airmen (NOTAMs)?

23
Q

This is the maximum landing gear operating speed.

A

What is VLO?

23
Q

Water droplets that remain in a liquid state after its temperature has dropped below the freezing point. Once this water droplet hits an object it turns into ice.

A

What is supercooled water?

23
Q
  • Provide air traffic control service to aircraft operating on IFR flight plans in controlled airspace.
  • Central authority for issuing IFR clearance
  • Provide nationwide monitoring of each IFR flight
  • Provides separation of all IFR aircrafts
  • Provides weather information, safetly alerts, and emergency assistance
A

What are Air route traffic control centers (ARTCCs)?

24
Q

This is the Maneuvering speed.

A

What is VA?

24
Q

Water droplets that froze and circulated up and down in the cold atmosphere because it was prevented from falling down to the surface due to strong updrafts.

A

What is hail?

24
Q

Issued when your Mode C altitude readout indicates your flight is below the published minimum safe altitude for that area.

A

What is Terrain or obstruction alert?

25
Q

This is the Overshooting South (adding) Undershooting North (subtracting)formula used to determine bank rollout?

A

What is Final heading +/- Latitude +/- ½ bank angle?

25
Q

Water vapor that freezes into ice (deposition) and drizzles to the ground when the air temperature remains below freezing. When flying, the presence of this indicates temperatures above freezing at your altitude.

A

What is snow?

25
Q

Provided when the controller determines that the minimum separation between an aircraft being controlled and another aircraft could be compromised.

A

What is a Aircraft conflict alert?

26
Q

This is used to correct for magnetic deviation.

A

What is a Compass correction card?

26
Q

The amount of heat absorbed or released by a substance undergoing a change of state at a constant temperature and pressure.

A

What is latent heat?

26
Q

May be issued by ATC in situations where the route segment is relatively short and traffic congestion is not a consideration. You may operate at any altitude between the minimum IFR altitude up to the altitude specified in the clearance. You can change in altitude between the two without having to report it to ATC but if you do, you cannot go back to a higher altitude without ATC clearance.

A

What is a Cruise clearance?

27
Q

With Instrument scanning, this the 1st fundamental skill.

A

What is Cross Check?

27
Q

Example: I have a block of ice and when I introduce heat to that block of ice, it will absorb it, make the surrounding air cooler, and turn into water.

A

What is latent heat of fusion?

27
Q

Sometimes because of delays, you may be cleared to a fix short of your destination

A

What is Expect further clearance (EFC)?

28
Q

This occurs when you stare at a single instrument too long.

A

What is Fixation?

28
Q

Example: I then introduce more heat to the water. As it did when it was a block ice, it will absorb the heat and make the surrounding air cooler until it evaporates.

A

What is latent heat of evaporation?

28
Q

When cleared to a fix just outside of departure terminal area where you will get a frequency change to ARTCC and receive a long-range clearance.

A

What is Short-range clearance?

29
Q

This is Instrument scanning the 2nd fundamental skill.

A

What is Instrument interpretation?

29
Q

Example: Now we have gas air molecules at the end of its road which has nowhere to go except back to where it came from. Rather than introducing heat to the gas, I will introduce cold air to it. The water vapor gas will absorb the cold air, making the surrounding air warmer as it condenses more and more until it turns back into a liquid. This is the reason such violent energy is released when THOUSANDS of tons of moisture condense into a thunderstorm.

A

What is latent heat of condensation?

29
Q

These are charted procedures that help simplify the issuance of a clearance. ATC will assume you have all applicable DP’s and STAR’s and will issue them without request. If you do not intend to use either DP’s or STAR’s, you must say so in the remark section of your flight plan.

A

What are Standard Terminal Arrival Routes (STARs) and Departure Procedures (DPs)?

30
Q

This is the 3rd fundamental skill in instrument flying and the result of cross checking and interpreting the flight instruments.

A

What is Aircraft control?

30
Q

The atmosphere’s resistance to vertical motion. The stability of a parcel air determines whether it rises or sinks in relation to the air around it. Stable air resists vertical movement, while unstable air has a tendency to rise. The combination of temperature and moisture determines the stability of the air and the weather produced.

A

What is stability?

30
Q

“Cleared as filed”, meaning, you are cleared to fly the route contained in your flight plan.

A

What is an Abbreviated IFR departure clearance?

31
Q

instruments that provide the most essential information during a given flight condition.

A

What are primary instruments?

31
Q

3 degrees per 1,000 feet that a parcel of unsaturated air is lifted. Air that is lifted expands due to lower atmospheric pressure. As the air expands, it cools through adiabatic cooling. When condensation occurs in a parcel of rising air, adiabatic cooling is partially offset by warming due to the release of latent heat but the latent heat never completely offsets adiabatic cooling.

A

What is Dry adiabatic lapse rate (DALR)?

31
Q

When the landing will be made on a runway that is not aligned with the approach being flown.

A

What is a Circling approach clearance?

32
Q

instruments which help you maintain the desired indications on the primary instruments.

A

What are Supporting Instruments?

32
Q

The rate of cooling a rising, saturated parcel of air. The actual rate at which it cools varies because saturated air hold much more water vapor at high temperatures, so there is much more latent heat to release when condensation occurs.

A

What is Saturated adiabatic lapse rate (SALR)?

32
Q
  • May be used in lieu of conducting a standard instrument approach procedure
  • Pilot must request it
  • Will be approved with minimum 1 mile visibility and if flight can remain clear of clouds.
A

What is Contact approach?

33
Q

These instruments display immediate attitude and power indications and are calibrated to permit attitude and power adjustments in precise amounts. These power indicators vary with aircraft and may include tachometers, RPM/manifold pressure, engine pressure ratio, fuel flow, etc.

A

What are Control Instruments?

33
Q

When the above air is warmer which also discourages parcels of air from rising, contributing to stability.

A

What is Inversion?

33
Q
  • May be used in lieu of conducting a standard instrument approach procedure
  • May be assigned by ATC or requested by pilot
  • Pilot must have airport in sight, or a proceeding aircraft to be followed in sight
  • Ceiling must be a minimum or 1,000 feet AGL with 3SM visibility.
A

What is a Visual approach?

34
Q

This is the sum of Attitude + Power.

A

What is performance?

34
Q

The level at which the temperature and dewpoint converge, and a cloud forms in the rising air. Below this level, the rising air parcel cools at the DALR and above the level, it cools at the SALR. With dewpoint decreasing at 1 degree (F) per 1,000 feet, and a DALR of 5.4 degrees (F) per 1,000 feet, the temperature and dewpoint converge at about 4.4 degrees (F) per 1,000 feet.

A

What is Condensation level?

34
Q

A request to operate IFR on one portion of a flight and VFR for another portion.

A

What is a Composite flight plan?

35
Q

These are instruments indicate the aircraft’s actual performance and references to the altimeter, airspeed or Mach indicator, vertical speed indicator, heading indicator, angle-of-attack indicator, and turn-and-slip indicator.

A

What are performance instruments?

35
Q

Extends from near the surface to about 6,500 feet AGL. They consist almost entirely of water and sometimes may contain supercooled water which can create an icing hazard for aircrafts.

A

What are low clouds?

35
Q

The earliest time you are allowed depart.

A

What is a Release time?

36
Q

For straight-and-level flight, these are the primary instruments for pitch, bank, and power, respectivly.

A

What is Altimeter, Heading Indicator, and Airspeed Indicator?

36
Q

Layered clouds that form in stable air near the surface due to cooling from below. They have a gray, uniform appearance and generally cover a wide area. It is a low cloud.

A

What are stratus clouds?

36
Q

What do these signs mean?

A

Mandatory instructions signs can denote entrance to a runway, a critical area, or prohibited entrance. It is a holding position.

37
Q

In terms of the Primary and Supporting concept, these are your pitch instruments

A

Attitude indicator (Primary when starting), Altimeter, Vertical speed indicator, Airspeed indicator

37
Q

It appear as lumpy, low lying clouds that cover much of the sky. They form patches or rows of clouds with some blue sky between the individual cloud units. It is a type of low cloud.

A

What are Stratocumulus clouds?

37
Q

What are these signs?

A

Location signs used for either a runway or a taxiway. It tells you where you are currently located.

38
Q

In terms of the Primary and Supporting concept, these are your bank instruments.

A

What is Attitude indicator (Primary when starting), Heading Indicator, and Turn Coordinator?

38
Q

Dark-gray layers of clouds that cover the entire sky. The prefix “nimbo” indicates that these clouds are precipitating. These clouds are typically found along a warm front producing low intensity precipitation that lasts for several hours. It is a type of low cloud.

A

What are Nimbostratus clouds?

38
Q

What are these signs?

A

Direction signs that contain arrows for taxiways leading from an intersection.

39
Q

In terms of the Primary and Supporting concept, these are your power instruments.

A

What is Airspeed indicator, Manifold Pressure, and RPM?

39
Q

These clouds have bases that range from 6,000 feet to 20,000 feet AGL. They are composed of water , ice crystals, or supercooled water, and may contain moderate turbulence and potentially severe icing.

A

What are middle clouds?

39
Q

What are these signs?

A

Destination signs for remote areas.

40
Q

Weather for Cruise climbs, best rate-of-climbs (Vy), or best angle-of-climbs (Vx), you will be adding power, adjusting the pitch attitude for desired airspeed, and accepting the resulting rate of climb with a goal of maintaining that airspeed configured by the power setting.

A

What is Constant airspeed climbs?

40
Q

These clouds are flat, dense and cover a wide area. They are uniform in gray or a gray-white color. They produce minimal turbulence but can contain moderate icing. The prefix alto means middle families.

A

What are Altostratus clouds?

40
Q

What are these signs?

A

Information signs, ‘nice to know’ signs.

41
Q

This is maintaining a specific vertical velocity in addition to controlling airspeed.

A

What is Constant rate of climb?

41
Q

Gray or white patchy clouds of uniform appearance that form when altostratus clouds start to break up. They may produce light turbulence and icing.

A

What are Altocumulus clouds?

41
Q

What are the yellow lines on the runway?

A

Land and hold short operations (LAHSO).

42
Q

This is reducing the power to the recommended value, simultaneously pitch down one bar width to maintain airspeed and accept the resulting rate of decent.

A

What is Constant airspeed decent?

42
Q

They have bases beginning above 20,000 feet AGL. They are generally white to light gray in color and form in stable air. They are composed mainly of ice crystals and seldom pose a serious turbulence or icing hazard.

A

What are high clouds?

43
Q

Using pitch to control the rate of decent and power to control airspeed.

A

What is Constant rate decent?

43
Q

Composed mostly of ice crystals that usually form above 30,000 feet. They appear as wispy thin veils or detached filaments composed mostly of ice. Strong winds aloft often create the fibrous ice trails which tend to curl at their ends. These clouds are associated with an approaching warm front.

A

What are Cirrus clouds?

44
Q

The most accurate way to turn to a specific heading without a heading indicator.
3 degrees = 1 second
45 degrees = 15 seconds (45 divided by 3)
90 degrees = 30 seconds (90 divided by 3)
135 degrees = 45 seconds
180 degrees = 1 minute

A

What isTimed turn?

44
Q

is a transparent, whitish veil of cloud that usually covers much of the sky. Sometimes these clouds are so transparent that you can barely see them. They often create a halo around the sun or moon. These clouds thicken and grade into altostratus clouds with the approach of a warm front. Also, moisture content is low and they pose no icing hazard. (Cirro means high families)

A

What are Cirrostratus clouds?

45
Q

Airspeed, Altimeter, Turn Coordinator, Heading, and VSI.

A

Performance Instruments?

45
Q

White patches made up of very small cells or ripples as a result of shallow convective currents at high altitude and may produce light turbulence

A

What are Cirrocumulus clouds?

46
Q

Primary Transition instrument.

A

What is Attitude indicator?

46
Q

Clouds that indicate a fairly deep layer of unstable air. They contain moderate to heavy convective turbulence with icing and often develop into thunderstorms.

A

What are Towering cumulus clouds?

47
Q

Primary pitch instrument during straight-and-level turns.

A

What is the Altimeter?

47
Q

Form during very unstable conditions. They are the tallest clouds, and can reach to the stratosphere (indicated by the anvil top). These clouds are associated with thunderstorms capable of generating locally high winds, hail, lightning, and torrential down pours.

A

What are Cumulonimbus clouds?

48
Q

Primary bank instrument during straight-and-level flight and during straight climbs and descents.

A

What is the Heading Indicator?

48
Q

Because of its greater density, this moving air moves along the surface and forces the less dense, warm air upward. Towering cumulus and/or cumulonimbus clouds may form prior to this front, and during visibility will be poor with possible heavy showers, hail, lightning and thunder.

A

What is a cold front?

49
Q

This type requires you to reduce power, level wings with attitude, and raise nose with attitude.

A

What is nose-low, turning, increasing airspeed, unusual attitude?

49
Q

The mixture of two airmasses that are balanced found in both warm and cold fronts

A

What is a Stationary front?

50
Q

These three things which can affect the pitch attitude required to maintain level flight.

A

What is Airspeed, air density, weight?

50
Q

Found when a fast-moving cold front catches up to a slow-moving warm front

A

What is a Frontal occlusion?

51
Q

This combines the VOR navigation indicator with a heading indicator, so the display is automatically rotated to the correct position for you. Each dot on the course deviation scale is 2 degrees from course when navigating with a VOR. Each dot from the center indicates a deviation of 200 per nautical mile.

A

What is Horizontal situation indicator (HSI)?

51
Q

A narrow band of high speed winds that reaches its greatest speed near the tropopause. Typical speeds range between 60-240 knots and are several thousand miles long.

A

What is a Jet Stream?

52
Q

As you get close to a station the CDI and TO/FROM indicators fluctuate.

A

What is Cone of confusion?

53
Q

The angle between the nose of the aircraft and the station.

A

What is Relative Bearing?

54
Q

Combines the heading function with information from two navigation sources.

A

What is Radio magnetic indicator (RMI)?

55
Q

This is a measuring distance from a VOR.

A

What is a Distance Measuring Equipment (DME)?

56
Q

Enable you to make precise VOR accuracy checks from most locations on an airport. This is possible because VOT’s broadcast a signal for only one radial – 360 degrees.

A

What are VOR test facilities (VOT’s)?

57
Q

This is determining VOR accuracy using ground or airborne VOR checkpoints. On the ground, you can taxi your aircraft to a specific point on the airport designated in the VOR Receiver Check section of the A/FD. After centering the CDI, compare your VOR course indication to the published radial for that checkpoint. The maximum permissible error is +/- 4 degrees. Airborne checkpoints, also listed in the a/FD, usually are located over easily identifiable terrain or prominent features on the ground. With an airborne checkpoint, the maximum permissible course error is +/- 6 degrees.

A

What are VOR checkpoints?

58
Q

This allows you to fly direct to your destination without the need to overfly ground facilities and includes, in part, random RNAV routes, published RNAV routes, the North American Route Program (NRP), and advanced area navigation (A-RNAV).

A

What is Area navigation?

59
Q

These are specified geographic locations used for enroute, departure, arrival, and instrument approach definition, and for navigation progress reporting purposes?

A

What are Waypoints?

60
Q

Within the preceding 6 months, a pilot needs to perform at least 6 instrument approaches, holds, and intercepting/tracking of nav aids. The name of the safety pilot and approach must also be recorded. (66HIT)

A

What is Pilot’s instrument currency requirements?

61
Q

This is a form filled out after the incident to explain why the violation occurred. It is voluntary submitted without penalty. Sometime considered a “get out of jail free card” that can only be used once every 5 years. The form must be submitted within 10 days of the incident.

A

what is a NASA form?

62
Q

A procedure and training system in systems where human error can have devastating effects. Used primarily for improving air safety and focuses on interpersonal communication, leadership, and decision making in the cockpit.

A

What is Crew resource management or cockpit resource management (CRM)?

63
Q

A systematic approach to the mental process used by aircraft pilots to consistently determine the best course of action in response to a given set of circumstances.

A

What is Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM)?

64
Q

Taking risks trying to prove that you are better than anyone else. Women are just likely to have this characteristic as men.

A

What is a Macho Hazardous Attitude?

65
Q

You resent having someone tell you what to do, or you regard rules and procedures as unnecessary.

A

What is a Anti-authority Hazardous Attitude?

66
Q

Feeling the need to act immediately and do the first thing that comes to mind without considering the best soulution to a problem.

A

What is Impulsive Hazardous Attitude?

67
Q

More likely to take chances and increase risk thinking accidents will not happen to you.

A

What is Invulnerable Hazardous Attitude?

68
Q

Feeling that no matter what you do it will have little effect on what happens to you. You may feel that when things go well, it is just good luck and when things go poorly, it is bad luck or someone else is responsible.

A

What is a Resignation Hazardous Attitude?

69
Q

In addition to ATOMATOE FLAMES FLAPS, these instruments is the acronym GRABCARDD used for Required I.F.R Instruments.

A 
What is the Generator/Alternator, Radio Navigation, Altimeter (pressure sensitive), Ball on turn coordinator, Clock, Artificial Horizon, Rate of turn on turn coordinator
 Directional gyro (heading Indicator), and DME (above 24,000 feet when using V.O.R) used for?
70
Q

This the difference between magnetic north and true north.

A

What is variation?

71
Q

These are the East/West errors.

A

A - Acceleration turns compass to the
N - North
D - Deceleration turns compass to the
S - South

72
Q

Disturbances caused by electrical devises in the cockpit.

A

What is deviation?

73
Q

Corrections for LESS than a 100 feet on the attitude indicator.

A

What is a half-bar width?

74
Q

For IFR departures, this acronym describes where you will be cleared to, your route (after referring 1st to the “preferred route” in back of the A/FD), your altitude, your departure frequency, and your transponder code.

A

What is CRAFT?

75
Q

It is relative to the ‘front’ part of the vehicle. This is similar to pointing at something outside from inside a moving car, expressed in degrees.

A

What is relative bearing?

76
Q

This is the craft of getting and staying on a direct track to a navigation facility, by making adjustments for wind drift. The selected heading is based on wind angle.

A

What is bracketing?

77
Q

Correcting for wind that will result in a curve path because you kept the ADF on zero.

A

What is homing?

78
Q

Doubling wind drift to get back on course.

A

What is Tracking?

79
Q
A

Instrument Flight Theory (9 decks)

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