SPV Review Flashcards

1
Q
A

APU Bleed ON

Single Pack operation

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2
Q
A
  1. Pack control valve position disagreement
  2. Compressor outlet overheat
  3. Pack outlet overheat
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3
Q

What specific openings/valves?

A

Sends a “close” signal to the inlets and valves below the water line.

  1. Outflow valve
  2. Emergency Ram inlet
  3. Avionics inlet and extract valves
  4. Pack flow control valves.
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4
Q
A

Both automatic pressurization controllers have failed.

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5
Q
A

GEN 1 LINE SMOKE
BLOWER FAULT
EXTRACT FAULT

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6
Q

What are the three methods available to disconnect the Autothrust?

A
  1. Press either AUTO THRUST INSTINCTIVE DISCONNECT pushbuttons.
  2. Retard both Thrust Levers to idle.
  3. Push A/THR pb on FCU.
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7
Q

Which of these will cause a “Thrust Lock” condition?

  1. Press either AUTO THRUST INSTINCTIVE DISCONNECT pushbuttons.
  2. Retard both Thrust Levers to idle.
  3. Push A/THR pb on FCU.
A
  1. Push A/THR pb on FCU.
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8
Q

What action is required to restore conventional manual thrust control from a “Thrust Lock” condition?

A

Move the Thrust Levers

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9
Q

On takeoff, what speed does SRS command… Normally (all engines operating)?

A

Normal: SRS gives pitch guidance to maintain airspeed at V2 + 10.

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10
Q

What does the lateral mode RWY represent?

A

Runway mode is engaged. This mode provides steering guidance during the takeoff roll and initial climb (30 feet RA) if a localizer signal is available.

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11
Q
A

Armed. (blue A/THR in right-hand column)

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12
Q

During a normal takeoff, when will the A/THR become engaged?

A

A/THR is active (white A/THR on FMA) after the Thrust Lever is moved to the CLB detent.

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13
Q

What is the difference between the vertical modes CLB and OP CLB?

A

CLB = Managed Climb mode is engaged. The FMGS target altitude is higher than the actual altitude. This mode is used to climb towards the FCU selected altitude along the verticalflight plan (NAV must be engaged). Pitch guidance is given to hold the airspeed target.

FMGS-programmed altitude constraints are taken into account.

OP CLB = Open Climb mode is engaged. The FCU selected altitude is higher than the actual altitude.

This mode is used to climb towards the FCU selected altitude at a constant airspeed.

FMGS-programmed altitude constraints are ignored. Pitch guidance is given to hold the airspeed target.

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14
Q

Describe ALT CRZ?

A

Altitude Hold (Cruise) Mode is engaged and pitch guidance is given to hold cruise altitude. The altitude is permitted to vary +- 50 feet from the selected altitude to minimize thrust variations.

Soft Altitude: Upon reaching planned cruise altitude, ALT CRZ engages and A/THR maintains the Speed/Mach target. Two minutes after ALT CRZ engages, if the Mach mode is operative, SOFT ALTITUDE mode engages. This allows the aircraft to deviate +/- 50 feet from the target altitude, thereby minimizing thrust variations and reducing fuel consumption.

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15
Q

What is the difference between the vertical modes DES and OP DES?

A

DES = (NAV must be engaged) Managed Descent mode is engaged and the FMGS target altitude is lower than the actual altitude. FMS-programmed altitude constraints are taken into account. Pitch guidance is given to acquire and track a vertical profile.

OP DES = Open Descent mode is engaged and the FCU selected altitude is lower than the actual altitude. This mode is used to descend directly to the FCU selected altitude at a constant airspeed. FMGS-programmed altitude constraints are ignored. Pitch guidance is given to maintain target airspeed.

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16
Q
A

Cyan “1” = V1, 135

Cyan circle = Vr, 142

Magenta triangle = V2, 147

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17
Q
A

During Acceleration, S Speed is defined as Minimum Flap Retraction speed when the Flap Handle is in position 1. During acceleration it is the lowest speed to select Flaps 0.

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18
Q
A

Green Dot Speed is best lift over drag speed. Green Dot is also the minimum maneuvering speed in the clean configuration. (Green Dot speed appears when the aircraft is flying in the clean configuration. )

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19
Q
A

Amber “=“ sign represents Vfe next (the maximum speed corresponding to the next flap lever position)

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20
Q
A

Minimum Maneuvering speed with the Flaps in 2 or 3.

During Deceleration, Green dot, S-speed, and F-speed represent the minimum maneuvering speed for the associated configuration. (Green dot=clean, S=Flaps 1, F=Flaps 2 or 3). With ‘managed speed’ and Auto-Thrust on, it is also the lowest speed the A/Thr will allow the aircraft to slow to (assuming the target speed is lower).

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21
Q
A
  • Vls (lowest selectable)
  • Alpha Prot (speed at which AOA Protection becomes active)
  • Alpha Max (max obtainable AOA in normal law)

Normal Law

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22
Q
A
  • Vls (Lowest selectable)
  • Vsw (stall warning)

Alternate or direct law.

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23
Q
A

The signal will only be apparent in the Flight Deck and the alert will only sound in the Flight Deck for 3 seconds, the EVAC light flashes.

  1. EVAC light flashes and the horn sounds for 3 seconds.
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24
Q

If your ACP failed, how would you communicate?

A

Switch to CAPT3 or FO3, utilize your own acoustic equipment and the third occupants ACP.

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25
Q

AC BUS 1 has just failed. Will the AC ESS BUS remain powered?

Which bus supplies the AC ESS BUS in this condition?

A

Yes.

AC BUS 2.

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26
Q
A

AC ESS BUS is not powered

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27
Q
A

HOT/LOP

High oil outlet temperature / Low oil pressure

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28
Q
A

AC BUS 1 = GEN 1

AC BUS 2 = EXT PWR

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29
Q

What is the primary purpose of the ELAC(s)?

A

Elevator, Aileron, and Horizontal Stabilizer control

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30
Q

For an Engine Fire system test, what indications are we looking for in the cockpit?

A

Continuous Repetitive Chime (CRC),
MASTER WARN lights flash,Next
ENG FIRE warning appears on ECAM,
ENG FIRE pushbutton illuminates red,
SQUIB lights illuminate white,
DISCH lights illuminate amber,
FIRE light on ENG panel illuminates red.

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31
Q

What automatically occurs if you have an APU fire while on the ground?

A

Automatic Shutdown and Automatic Extinguisher activation

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32
Q
A

Bottle 1 has low pressure

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33
Q
A

Power is removed from the aft avionics rack.

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34
Q

What is the primary purpose of the SEC(s)?

A

Spoiler control, and Standby Elevator and Horizontal Stabilizer control

35
Q

What is the primary purpose of the FAC(s)?

A

FLEW:
Flight Envelope Protection…
Low Energy Warning…
Electrical Rudder Control…
Windsher Detection

36
Q

In Normal Law, what are you actually commanding when you move the side stick forward and aft?

A

-Load Factor (neutral equals 1.0g) until slowed to the Alpha Protection range, then angle of attack (AOA)

37
Q

In Normal Law, what are you actually commanding when you move the side stick left and right?

A

Roll Rate

38
Q
A

Dual Input – both side sticks are being used simultaneously.

39
Q
A

The FO is holding the takeover pushbutton and inputs are being commanded on the CA’s side stick – would be accompanied by the aural “PRIORITY RIGHT”

40
Q

If the CA were to push their side stick forward, while the FO was making a side stick input in an equal amount in the opposite direction, what would be the aircraft pitch response?

A

Potentially no change because the inputs would be added (summed) and each would cancel one another out if equally applied.

41
Q

Both pilots should not make control inputs at the same time. If a pilot needs to takeover the controls what should be done to prevent dual input?

A

Press and hold the Auto-Pilot Disconnect / Takeover red button.

42
Q

How long should you hold the Takeover pushbutton to lockout the opposite side stick?

A

40 seconds

43
Q

Can an AP be engaged after a side stick is locked out?

A

Yes

44
Q

What are the protections available in Normal Law?

A

Pitch, Bank, Yaw (Yaw Damping & Turn Coordination), High Speed, Low Speed High AOA Protection, Load Factor

45
Q
A

Alternate Law

46
Q

Can you stall the aircraft in Alternate Law?

A

Yes

47
Q

You are in Alternate Law as you begin the approach. After lowering the landing gear, the FMA displays “MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY…What has occurred?

A

Direct Law, No Protections, conventional Airplane

48
Q

If the speed brake handle is armed, what is required to activate the Ground Spoilers during a rejected takeoff?

A

Wheel Speed > 72kts, both Thrust Levers at or near Idle

(If handle is not armed: wheel speed > 72 knots, with at least one thrust lever in reverse and other thrust lever at or near idle)

49
Q

With the AP ON, what maximum speed brake setting is available one the 320? 321?

A

320: Half
321: Full

50
Q

Speed Brakes are inhibited (and will auto-retract if extended) in relation to what Flap position for the A320? A321?

A

320: Full
321: 3 or Full

51
Q

With fuel in the center tank, when do the Center Tank Pumps run with the MODE SEL in AUTO?

A

With fuel in the Center tank:

1) Center pumps run for 2 minutes at each engine start (regardless of the slat position), and
2) Before or after engine start sequence, if the slats are in the retracted position

52
Q
A

Fuel is being supplied from the Wing Tanks, when there is fuel in the Center Tank (>550 in CTR, < 11,000 in a wing).

53
Q

In flight, with fuel in both wings tanks, if all tank pumps failed, would the engines continue to run? Why or Why not?

A

Yes, gravity feeding is available from the wing tanks.

54
Q
A

PTU FAULT,
Engine 2 Pump FAULT

55
Q
A

Yes

56
Q
A

Green System reservoir overheat.

57
Q
A

Position of anti-ice valve is not in the required position, or low pressure is detected.

58
Q

When are the PROBES/WINDOWS heated automatically?

A

In flight, or on the ground with one engine running (except the TAT probes).

59
Q
A

For 5 minutes when electrical power is applied to the aircraft, at an engine start, and anytime in flight, and for 5 minutes after second engine shuts down

60
Q
A

CA’s PFD and ND will be lost. (On NON LCD a/c, the E/WD will also be lost. On LCD equipped A/C, the E/WD and SD are both driven by DMC 1 however they are automatically picked up by DMC 2 after a failure of DMC 1)

61
Q
A

Yellow Accumulator pressure is displayed on top. Yellow system pressure being applied to brakes displayed on bottom.

62
Q
A

Landing Gear is not locked in the selected position.

63
Q

What is the effect on braking if Green hydraulic system pressure is lost?

A

Yellow hydraulic pressure takes over automatically to supply the brakes, anti-skid remains available, auto brakes lost, nose wheel steering is lost (classic), Auto Brakes are unavailable, the triple indicator shows yellow system pressure supplied to the brakes.

64
Q

Assuming a loss of Green and Yellow system pressure, what hydraulic source is supplying braking?

A

Yellow Accumulator.

65
Q

When does the AUTO function of the STROBE Light switch turn the strobes on?

A

Weight off wheels

66
Q
A
  1. Turbulence is depicted within 40 nm (selected Range not a factor)
  2. Magenta
67
Q

If the Radar system was selected OFF and WINDSHEAR was selected to AUTO. Windshear is predicted ahead of your flight path. Will you receive a Predictive Windshear alert?

A

Yes, Predictive windshear function is activated even if Weather Radar transceiver selector is in the OFF position.

68
Q
A

Select VOR pb, use selector knob to select the VOR frequency and desired course, then select ROSE VOR on the ND to track the radial.

69
Q
A

Database Terrain Detect functions.

70
Q

Which portion of the system (ADR or IR) provides Attitude and Heading information?

A

IR

71
Q

Which portion of the system (ADR or IR) provides Barometric Altitude and Angle of Attack information?

A

ADR

72
Q
A

Alignment Fault,
No present position entry after 10 minutes,
Difference between position at shut down and entered position exceeds 1° of latitude or longitude,
A/C movement.

73
Q
A

Fault in IR3, but Attitude and Heading information may be recovered in ATT Mode.

74
Q

At what cabin altitude do the oxygen masks deploy in the auto mode?

A

14,000 cabin altitude

75
Q

If only the number 1 engine was running, how could you get bleed air to Pack 2?

A

Select X BLEED to OPEN, or start the APU and select APU BLEED ON

76
Q
A

APU Bleed leak

77
Q
A

APU starter is energized

78
Q
A

APU start sequence is complete (N is above 99.5% or 2 seconds after reaching 95%), and the APU is available for use.

79
Q
A

Amber APU FAULT light

80
Q
A

Cockpit Door system failure has been identified (example: Latch, pressure sensor, control unit)

81
Q
A

Over Wing exit doors closed and slides armed.

82
Q
A

Flex/TOGA thrust set, Engine anti-ice on, Engine surge or stall in flight, Flap handle other than 0 in flight.

83
Q
A

Auto Thrust and Alpha Floor protections are not available.

84
Q
A

Automatic Start abort

Start Valve Fault, or

Disagreement between the HP fuel valve position and its commanded position.