SPV 2023 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of these is justification to land overweight?
A. Any condition of the Crew, Customer or aircraft making flight continuation impractical or
unsafe
B. Any condition where an expeditious landing would reduce exposure to problems which may
compromise safety of flight
C. Serious illness of a Customer or Crewmember requiring immediate attention
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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2
Q

When calculating a non-normal landing distance in KDEN, it is acceptable to use the Baseline
landing distance provided in the QRH.

A

False

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3
Q

When takeoff data is not available via ACARS or cFDP, how is takeoff performance data
determined?

A

D. Obtain a Load Manifest and reference the TLR in the release

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4
Q

When operating a flight in WATRS (ORCA), which document must be referenced once per
operational day?

A

JBU WATRS/ORCA Checklist

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5
Q

The crew must only use the Circle/Slash method for verification of ORCA waypoints.

A

True

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6
Q

After making the altitude awareness callout approaching a level-off, what is the required SOP
within the last 1,000 feet?

A

Focus on instrument scanning

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7
Q

True or False: Pilots should allow a minimum of 90 seconds after selecting the Brake Fans OFF
to allow thermal stabilization prior to assessing the fans OFF brake temperature.

A

True

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8
Q

The PARK BRK memo on the upper ECAM is the only accurate indication that the brakes are
set.

A

False

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9
Q

If the “OFF” light is displayed on either/both of the battery pushbuttons, what bus is powered?

A

DC BATT BUS

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10
Q

True or False: If the aircraft is in flight, airspeed is above 100 knots, and both AC Busses are not
powered, the flight crew must press the MAN On pb (guarded) to deploy the RAT.

A

False

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11
Q

Which of the following items occurs when the ENG FIRE pushbutton is pressed in a non-normal
scenario?

A

Deactivates the IDG

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12
Q

Where is the fire extinguisher in the lavatory located?

A

On the side of the trash chute under the sink

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13
Q

Flight Crews are responsible to check for which 5G NOTAMS?

A

A. Origin Airport
B. Destination Airport
C. Takeoff Alternate
D. Arrival Alternate
E. All of the above

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14
Q

True or False: The 5G Alternative Method of Compliance Bulletin and AMOC Approved
Runways List are provided with each flight release.

A

False

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15
Q

True or False: Flight Crews are permitted to print the AMOC Approved Runways list on the 1st
of each month to carry as a reference.

A

False, the document is subject to revision, and is not controlled when printed by the Flight
Crew

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16
Q

When landing, if the green down arrows are not available on the LDG GEAR panel, what flight
deck indication could the crew use to determine that the gear is down and locked?

A

The WHEEL page on the S/D

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17
Q

True or False: Auto Brakes are available under the following conditions: Normal brakes
available, at least 1 ADIRU is functional, at least 2 SECs operative

A

True

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18
Q

If the A/SKID & NWS sw is turned OFF, then:

A

Braking is available via the yellow system, limited to 1000 psi

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19
Q

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the gravity gear extension?

A

(1) Shuts off and releases hydraulic pressure to the landing gear; (2) Releases Main and
Nose Gear doors; (3) Releases Gear Uplocks

20
Q

When the Parking Brake is turned OFF, what should the Triple Indicator indicate?

A

Accumulator pressure in the green and both brake pressure indicators at zero

21
Q

True or False: There is no ECAM message associated with low oxygen pressure

22
Q

True or False: When the Oxygen Mask N/100% selector is set to N (normal), this provides 100%
oxygen and positive pressure

23
Q

When cabin altitude reaches ~_______ feet, the cabin oxygen masks should deploy

24
Q

When dispatched under OpSpec B043, what are the minimum fuel reserves if no alternate is
required?

A

45 minutes + 10% of the time spent exceeding 1 hour in ORCA airspace

25
What is the Flight Crew’s responsibility when a flight is planned under B043?
Review the GRAPH included in the Briefing Package and verify the VOR’s being used are in service (i.e. Not NOTAM’d OTS)
26
Once the new AeroData functionality is turned on, where would a crew find a MALF CODE for a specific failure?
The MALF CODE can be found in FCOM I Chapter 6 & the QRH
27
In addition to the Normal LDG CONDTIONS entries, what additional steps are necessary to obtain a non-normal landing distance with ACARS?
Toggle to “Non-Norm” and enter the MALF CODE for the specific failure
28
During oceanic route verification, the crew should calculate Waypoints’ ETA by
Using the takeoff time and adding the OFP elapsed time (TTIME) to determine waypoint ETAs
29
What is the purpose of the three-second wait time before engaging the APU starter when on the ground?
Ensures LOW OIL LEVEL message is not displayed on lower ECAM prior to start
30
If the APU GEN has been MEL’d, the crew may accomplish One-Engine Taxi since the MEL “O” Procedures do not prohibit OET
False
31
What mechanical feature keeps the Overwing Emergency Exits from opening outward and up during flight operations on the A321 NEO aircraft?
Flight lock actuators automatically secure the non plug-type exits from being opened
32
If the overwing exit flight lock actuators fail or are in the wrong position on the A321 NEO, how will the flight crew be alerted and what action should be taken?
a) An ECAM Caution will be generated to alert the crew to the non normal b) The QRH NOTES section contains further clarification of the problem c) Advise the Cabin Crew of the specific problem relating to the Overwing Exits d) All answers are correct
33
What action should be taken if the Cockpit Door “OPEN” light begins to flash accompanied by a loud, repetitive, high pitched aural alert?
Select LOCK immediately to deny access since emergency access has been initiated
34
When issued a CPDLC revised clearance, the “LOAD” prompt will insert the new clearance into the SEC flight plan and requires what pilot action(s)?
The DEP Rwy, SID, STAR and ARR runways must always be manually entered
35
When reviewing an uplinked clearance, it is acceptable to just print the messages from the DCDU and review the printout.
False, the printout may truncate some important elements of the clearance
36
An MOT message has been generated and sent to your aircraft, however the time listed does not appear to comply with FAR 117. The best course of action is to:
Set the parking brake in an appropriate location and call Dispatch
37
Elements of the non-normal philosophy can be applied:
Any time workload increases beyond normal
38
Once the red line in the Airport Briefing Guide is removed, under the new pilot qualification policy, all pilots will be qualified to fly to all destinations in Latin America.
False, airports identified as having higher risk will continue to require a Latin Qualification.
39
When diverting or returning to the departure airport becomes necessary, when may the flight crew perform an overweight landing?
Any condition of the Crew, Customer or aircraft making flight continuation impractical or unsafe
40
The Captain may choose to use Maximum Reverse when necessary. It is recommended to use it.
On runways less than 6,000 ft. and for contaminated runways.
41
Unnecessary use of Maximum Reverse compromises customer comfort and…
a) Can cause undesired and costly wear and tear on the engines. b) Increases fuel consumption when spooling up the turbofan engines. c) Decreases braking efficiency and increases brake wear rate over time. d) All answers are correct
42
True or False: It is not possible to overflow the wing tanks when the MODE SEL pb is in MAN
False
43
Choose the correct statement regarding the fuel feed sequence:
The A321 center tanks feed the wing tanks, which then feed the engines.
44
Choose the correct statement regarding the ACTs:
The LR has three ACTs: two AFT ACT and one FWD ACT.
45
True or False. For the LR, the fuel tank feed sequence is as follows: FWD ACT, AFT ACT 2, AFT ACT 1, CTR TK to wing tanks, and wing tanks to engines.
True
46
Choose the correct statement regarding the ACT Control Panel: a) The ACT Control Panels allow the flight crew to manually control the ACT in case of an automatic system failure.
The ACT Control Panels allow the flight crew to manually control the ACT in case of an automatic system failure.