SPV 2024 Flashcards
What indication tells the pilot that the APU may be used for powering the aircraft’s electric and pneumatic systems?
A green AVAIL light is displayed on the APU START switch
What is the status of the OWEE doors as shown here?
Closed and armed
CPDLC is essentially a data communication tool between pilot and controller that utilizes:
Pre-formatted messages and phrases used between pilot and controller to request or reply to ATC instructions and free text messaging
How can you determine if the ARTCC you are about to transit participates in CPDLC?
Check the JEPP enroute chart and NOTAMS
What does an amber NWS STRG DISC memo indicate?
The nosewheel steering disconnect pin is installed and at least one engine is running
What is the maximum brake temperature for takeoff with the BRK FAN switch OFF?
300C
What is the blinker, shown here, used to indicate?
Turns yellow when O2 is flowing to the mask and can be used to detect a leak in the system
True of False: It is the pilot’s responsibility to check the serviceability indicator on the PBE during the receiving checklist
True
Will the APU automatically shut down with a FIRE indication?
Yes, but only on the ground
What is the meaning of a GREEN colored circuit breaker (CB)?
Green-colored CBs, when tripped, will give a general ECAM message with an associated panel location approximately 60 seconds after the CB tripped
What happens to the electrical system when on the ground and the battery switches are selected to AUTO (pushed in) without any other power source available?
The batteries are connected to the electrical system and power only a small portion of the DC system
How long will it take for DISCH 1 to illuminate on the CARGO SMOKE panel after discharging AGENT 1?
60 seconds
What type of pack flow is automatically selected when operating on APU bleed or a single pack configuration, regardless of PACK FLOW switch position?
HI flow
What does an amber FAULT light indicate on the HOT AIR pushbutton?
A duct overheat has been detected
In addition to the use of the engine anti0ice, when should the WING ANTI ICE pushbutton be selected ON
In flight, whenever there is an indication that airframe icing exists
True or False: It is acceptable to shut down the NEO engines upon arrival regardless of the 3 minute cooldown period
False
In which of the following circumstances will the RAT automatically deploy?
AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 are lost and aircraft speed is above 100 knots
What does COOLING indicate on the NEO’s E/WD?
The FADEC considers the thermal state of the engine, and commands an automatic dry crank prior to starting the engine
True or False: Before engine start, the GND CTL pushbutton automatically switches from ON to AUTO after the electrical transfer between EXT PWR and the APU GEN, the crew must set the RCDR GND CTL back to ON
True
There are times during the operation when the PTU is either unsafe or unnecessary to operate.
Which of the following is NOT a time that PTU is inhibited?
Second engine start
If the aircraft is at the gate, how do we pressurize the potable water system?
APU bleed air is required
When TO INHIBIT is displayed, what ECAM cautions or warning will be displayed if any?
Only time-critical cautions or warnings will be displayed
How do we initiate a SATCOM call?
Select the desired number via the menu and push the SAT 1 push button on the ACP
If the rudder is out of trum in flight, what conditions allow the flight crew to trim the rudder?
The rudder may be trimmed if the autopilot is off by using the RUD TRIM rotary switch
In Direct Law, how is pitch trim controlled?
Manually, using the pitch trim wheel
WHich controls are available in Mechanical Back up?
Rudder and THS
Choose the correct statement regarding the ACTs:
The LR has three ACTs: two AFT ACT and one FWD ACT
True or False: For the LR, the fuel tank feed sequence is as follows: FWD ACT, AFT ACT 2, AFT ACT 1, CTR TK to wing tanks, and wing tanks to engines
True
True or False: It is not possible to overflow the wing tanks when the MODE SEL pb is in MAN
False
How long do you have to submit an ASAP report?
Soon as practical following the duty/shift of event occurrence or as soon as practical from becoming aware of the event, absent extraordinary circumstances
The Flag/Overwater Operations Checklist found in Chapter 9 of the FOM:
Serves as a useful tool/memory jogger to ensure the appropriate steps are completed prior to and during flag and overwater operations
When must crews accomplish the operational HF radio check that verifies transmission and reception
In flight, above 10,000 feet prior to entering oceanic airspace
When trying to determine the need to evacuate following an engine fire indication on the ground
A. The FO should focus on running the appropriate checklist
B. The CA should get additional information to help assess the situation from ATC or ARFF
C. The CA should get additional information to help assess the situation from the cabin crew
D. All answers are correct
Answer: D
What tool is used to determine if a crew can meet the climb gradient on a missed approach?
ABG
A flight crew is experiencing an upset. How should the crew initially respond to the upset?
Recognize and confirm the situation
True or False: A flight may be planned over an area of volcanic ash defined by a TWCo SIGMET provided consideration is given to single-engine driftdown and depressurization
True
In a water evacuation, the FO’s first post-ditching is to:
Exit the aircraft immediately and take charge outside until relieved by the CA
What would be the correct Flight Crewmember action(s) if you encounter severe turbulence while enroute?
Turn ON fasten seatbelt sign, announce “In-flight crew, be seated immediately”; make a flight deck PA to customers
The WSI App Flight Plan Guidance (FPGs) product permits JetBlue Flight Crews to:
Display adverse weather conditions on the iPad that may affect the route of flight
When in RVSM Airspace, what is the tolerance between altimeters?
+-200 feet between primary altimeters
If the approach lighting system is the only visual reference, what is required to descend below 100 feet above TDZE?
Red terminating bars or red side bars are distinctly visible and identifiable
When must the Low Visibility Takeoff Guide in the FCOM be referenced?
When takeoff visibility is less than 5000 RVR or 1 mile
True or False: Once a Code Red is declared, it cannot change to a Code Yellow as Code Red has the highest priority
False
What must pilots do in every unexpected or non-normal situation?
Fly, Assess, Communicate, Manage
A flight crew is issued a different SID with a different altitude upon taxiing while departing on the same runway. What must the crew reference?
The departure changes guide is required since a SID change occurred after pushback
If vectored off and ARRIVAL, flight crews must…
Consider the STAR canceled and expect ATC to issue an altitude to maintain
Once a stall condition has been confirmed, what is the first action that should be taken?
Apply nose-down pitch to reduce AOA
Cruising at FL350, a rapid decompression occurs. The approximate time of useful consciousness is ____
15 to 30 seconds
Other than the information systems available to the flight crew on the flight deck, what is another fundamental yet useful tool to assist in monitoring the aircraft flight path while on a descent to meet a crossing restriction?
3 to 1 rule
True or False: Non-normals are always emergencies
False
Who should crewmembers contact if a dispute arises regarding the transportation of a customer with a disability?
The CRO
As altitude _____, maneuvering envelope _____.
increases, decreases
