SPV 2024

Question 1

What indication tells the pilot that the APU may be used for powering the aircraft’s electric and pneumatic systems?

Answer 1

A green AVAIL light is displayed on the APU START switch

Question 2

What is the status of the OWEE doors as shown here?

Answer 2

Closed and armed

Question 3

CPDLC is essentially a data communication tool between pilot and controller that utilizes:

Answer 3

Pre-formatted messages and phrases used between pilot and controller to request or reply to ATC instructions and free text messaging

Question 4

How can you determine if the ARTCC you are about to transit participates in CPDLC?

Answer 4

Check the JEPP enroute chart and NOTAMS

Question 5

What does an amber NWS STRG DISC memo indicate?

Answer 5

The nosewheel steering disconnect pin is installed and at least one engine is running

Question 6

What is the maximum brake temperature for takeoff with the BRK FAN switch OFF?

Answer 6

300C

Question 7

What is the blinker, shown here, used to indicate?

Answer 7

Turns yellow when O2 is flowing to the mask and can be used to detect a leak in the system

Question 8

True of False: It is the pilot’s responsibility to check the serviceability indicator on the PBE during the receiving checklist

Answer 8

True

Question 9

Will the APU automatically shut down with a FIRE indication?

Answer 9

Yes, but only on the ground

Question 10

What is the meaning of a GREEN colored circuit breaker (CB)?

Answer 10

Green-colored CBs, when tripped, will give a general ECAM message with an associated panel location approximately 60 seconds after the CB tripped

Question 11

What happens to the electrical system when on the ground and the battery switches are selected to AUTO (pushed in) without any other power source available?

Answer 11

The batteries are connected to the electrical system and power only a small portion of the DC system

Question 12

How long will it take for DISCH 1 to illuminate on the CARGO SMOKE panel after discharging AGENT 1?

Answer 12

60 seconds

Question 13

What type of pack flow is automatically selected when operating on APU bleed or a single pack configuration, regardless of PACK FLOW switch position?

Answer 13

HI flow

Question 14

What does an amber FAULT light indicate on the HOT AIR pushbutton?

Answer 14

A duct overheat has been detected

Question 15

In addition to the use of the engine anti0ice, when should the WING ANTI ICE pushbutton be selected ON

Answer 15

In flight, whenever there is an indication that airframe icing exists

Question 16

True or False: It is acceptable to shut down the NEO engines upon arrival regardless of the 3 minute cooldown period

Answer 16

False

Question 17

In which of the following circumstances will the RAT automatically deploy?

Answer 17

AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 are lost and aircraft speed is above 100 knots

Question 18

What does COOLING indicate on the NEO’s E/WD?

Answer 18

The FADEC considers the thermal state of the engine, and commands an automatic dry crank prior to starting the engine

Question 19

True or False: Before engine start, the GND CTL pushbutton automatically switches from ON to AUTO after the electrical transfer between EXT PWR and the APU GEN, the crew must set the RCDR GND CTL back to ON

Answer 19

True

Question 20

There are times during the operation when the PTU is either unsafe or unnecessary to operate.

Which of the following is NOT a time that PTU is inhibited?

Answer 20

Second engine start

Question 21

If the aircraft is at the gate, how do we pressurize the potable water system?

Answer 21

APU bleed air is required

Question 22

When TO INHIBIT is displayed, what ECAM cautions or warning will be displayed if any?

Answer 22

Only time-critical cautions or warnings will be displayed

Question 23

How do we initiate a SATCOM call?

Answer 23

Select the desired number via the menu and push the SAT 1 push button on the ACP

Question 24

If the rudder is out of trum in flight, what conditions allow the flight crew to trim the rudder?

Answer 24

The rudder may be trimmed if the autopilot is off by using the RUD TRIM rotary switch

Question 25

In Direct Law, how is pitch trim controlled?

Answer 25

Manually, using the pitch trim wheel

Question 26

WHich controls are available in Mechanical Back up?

Answer 26

Rudder and THS

Question 27

Choose the correct statement regarding the ACTs:

Answer 27

The LR has three ACTs: two AFT ACT and one FWD ACT

Question 28

True or False: For the LR, the fuel tank feed sequence is as follows: FWD ACT, AFT ACT 2, AFT ACT 1, CTR TK to wing tanks, and wing tanks to engines

Answer 28

True

Question 29

True or False: It is not possible to overflow the wing tanks when the MODE SEL pb is in MAN

Answer 29

False

Question 30

How long do you have to submit an ASAP report?

Answer 30

Soon as practical following the duty/shift of event occurrence or as soon as practical from becoming aware of the event, absent extraordinary circumstances

Question 31

The Flag/Overwater Operations Checklist found in Chapter 9 of the FOM:

Answer 31

Serves as a useful tool/memory jogger to ensure the appropriate steps are completed prior to and during flag and overwater operations

Question 32

When must crews accomplish the operational HF radio check that verifies transmission and reception

Answer 32

In flight, above 10,000 feet prior to entering oceanic airspace

Question 33

When trying to determine the need to evacuate following an engine fire indication on the ground

Answer 33

A. The FO should focus on running the appropriate checklist B. The CA should get additional information to help assess the situation from ATC or ARFF C. The CA should get additional information to help assess the situation from the cabin crew D. All answers are correct Answer: D

Question 34

What tool is used to determine if a crew can meet the climb gradient on a missed approach?

Answer 34

ABG

Question 35

A flight crew is experiencing an upset. How should the crew initially respond to the upset?

Answer 35

Recognize and confirm the situation

Question 36

True or False: A flight may be planned over an area of volcanic ash defined by a TWCo SIGMET provided consideration is given to single-engine driftdown and depressurization

Answer 36

True

Question 37

In a water evacuation, the FO's first post-ditching is to:

Answer 37

Exit the aircraft immediately and take charge outside until relieved by the CA

Question 38

What would be the correct Flight Crewmember action(s) if you encounter severe turbulence while enroute?

Answer 38

Turn ON fasten seatbelt sign, announce "In-flight crew, be seated immediately"; make a flight deck PA to customers

Question 39

The WSI App Flight Plan Guidance (FPGs) product permits JetBlue Flight Crews to:

Answer 39

Display adverse weather conditions on the iPad that may affect the route of flight

Question 40

When in RVSM Airspace, what is the tolerance between altimeters?

Answer 40

+-200 feet between primary altimeters

Question 41

If the approach lighting system is the only visual reference, what is required to descend below 100 feet above TDZE?

Answer 41

Red terminating bars or red side bars are distinctly visible and identifiable

Question 42

When must the Low Visibility Takeoff Guide in the FCOM be referenced?

Answer 42

When takeoff visibility is less than 5000 RVR or 1 mile

Question 43

True or False: Once a Code Red is declared, it cannot change to a Code Yellow as Code Red has the highest priority

Answer 43

False

Question 44

What must pilots do in every unexpected or non-normal situation?

Answer 44

Fly, Assess, Communicate, Manage

Question 45

A flight crew is issued a different SID with a different altitude upon taxiing while departing on the same runway. What must the crew reference?

Answer 45

The departure changes guide is required since a SID change occurred after pushback

Question 46

If vectored off and ARRIVAL, flight crews must...

Answer 46

Consider the STAR canceled and expect ATC to issue an altitude to maintain

Question 47

Once a stall condition has been confirmed, what is the first action that should be taken?

Answer 47

Apply nose-down pitch to reduce AOA

Question 48

Cruising at FL350, a rapid decompression occurs. The approximate time of useful consciousness is ____

Answer 48

15 to 30 seconds

Question 49

Other than the information systems available to the flight crew on the flight deck, what is another fundamental yet useful tool to assist in monitoring the aircraft flight path while on a descent to meet a crossing restriction?

Answer 49

3 to 1 rule

Question 50

True or False: Non-normals are always emergencies

Answer 50

False

Question 51

Who should crewmembers contact if a dispute arises regarding the transportation of a customer with a disability?

Answer 51

The CRO

Question 52

As altitude _____, maneuvering envelope _____.

Answer 52

increases, decreases