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RSFC A Level PE > Sport Psychology > Flashcards

Sport Psychology Flashcards

1
Q

Define personality

A

A predisposition to behave in a certain way in certain situations

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2
Q

According to train theory, personality is ___________

A

Inherited/genetic

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3
Q

Why can trait theory of personality be scrutinised?

A

It does not take into account the effects of the environment

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4
Q

Give 3 characteristics of an introvert

A
  1. Shy
  2. Prefer isolation
  3. Prefer individual sports
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5
Q

Give 3 characteristics of an extrovert

A
  1. Outgoing
  2. Interacts well with others
  3. Prefers teams sports
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6
Q

According to social learning theory, personality is __________

A

Learnt

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7
Q

According to social learning a theory, a performer 1.____________ and 2.____________ their role models behaviour.

A
  1. Observes
  2. Imitates
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8
Q

How can social learning theory be scrutinised?

A

It does not take genetics into account

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9
Q

According to social learning theory of personality, when is a performer more likely to imitate behaviour?

A

If it is reinforced

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10
Q

What does interactionist theory of personality state?

A

B = F(PE)
Behaviour is a function of personality and the environment

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11
Q

According to interactionist theory, when the environment is stable _______________

A

Behaviour remains constant

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12
Q

What is interactionist theory of personality a combination of?

A

trait and social learning theory

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13
Q

When would an observation be high in validity?

A

If the performer is in their natural environment

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14
Q

When would an observation be low in validity?

A

If the performer knows that they are being watched

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15
Q

Is an observation low or high in validity? Why?

A

Low - the observer may see different results in every observation

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16
Q

What kind of data does an observation collect?

A

Subjective

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17
Q

Is an observation time efficient or time consuming?

A

Time consuming

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18
Q

Are questionnaires high or low in reliability? Why?

A
  1. High
  2. The same results will be given each time
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19
Q

What kind of data is collected in a questionnaire?

A

Objective

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20
Q

Is a questionnaire time efficient or time consuming?

A

Time efficient

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21
Q

Is a questionnaire high or low in validity? Why?

A
  1. Low
  2. The subject may give socially desirable answers
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22
Q

Do interviews have higher or lower validity that a questionnaire? Why?

A
  1. Higher
  2. Participants can expand on answers
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23
Q

Are interviews time efficient of time consuming?

A

Time consuming

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24
Q

What does POMS stand for?

A

Profile of mood states

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25
Q

What is POMS used as part of?

A

Talent identification programmes

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26
Q

How many emotions does POMS measure?

A

6

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27
Q

Which emotions does POMS measure

A

Tension, depression, anger, vigour, fatigue and confusion

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28
Q

POMS: What does Tom despise?

A

Aston Villa Football Club

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29
Q

POMS: What kind of profile does an elite athlet show?

A

An iceberg profile

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30
Q

POMS: What does an elite athlete have high levels of?

A

Vigour

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31
Q

POMS: What kind of profile does a non-elite performer show?

A

A flat line distribution

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32
Q

Define attitude

A

A set of beliefs, feeling and values that pre-dispose an individual to behave in a certain way towards an attitude object

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33
Q

Once an attitude is formed, which model is it stored in?

A

Triadic model

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34
Q

Name the 3 components of the triadic model

A
  1. Cognitive
  2. Affective
  3. Behavioural
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35
Q

Define the cognitive component of the triadic model

A

The way the performer thinks about an attitude obeject

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36
Q

Define the affective component of the triadic model

A

The way the performer feels about an attitude object

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37
Q

Define the behavioural component of the triadic model

A

The way the performer acts towards an attitude object

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38
Q

Name 3 theories of how an attitude can be formed

A
  1. Past experiences
  2. Conditioning
  3. Social learning theory
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39
Q

Attitude formation: Explain past experiences

A

A positive experience of an attitude leads to the formation of a sporting/unsporting attitude

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40
Q

Attitude formation: Explain conditioning

A

If the performer is praised for an attitude, they will develop that sporting/unsporting attitude

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41
Q

Attitude formation: Social learning theory

A

The performer will observe and imitate a role model’s sporting/unsporting attitude

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42
Q

Name 2 ways that an attitude can be changed

A
  1. Cognitive dissonance
  2. Persuasive communication
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43
Q

What does cognitive dissonance aim to do

A
  1. Change attitudes
  2. By causing conflict in the performer’s mind
  3. By changing one component of the triadic model
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44
Q

Cognitive dissonance: Explain how a coach can change the cognitive component of the triadic model

A

Provide evidence to show that training can benefit perofrmance

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45
Q

Cognitive dissonance: How can a coach change the affective component of the triadic model

A

Vary training methods

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46
Q

Cognitive dissonance: How can a coach change the behavioural component of the triadic model

A

Offer tangible and intangible rewards

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47
Q

Name the 4 factors that effect persuasive communication

A
  1. Status of the messenger
  2. Quality of the message
  3. Timing of the message
  4. Individual’s resistance to change
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48
Q

Persuasive communication: Explain status of the messenger

A

The higher the status of the messenger, the more likely the individual is to change

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49
Q

Persuasive communication: Explain the quality of the message

A

Factual, objective information is more effective than subjective information

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50
Q

Persuasive communication: Explain the timing of the message

A

A message should be given as soon as a poor attitude is shown

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51
Q

Persuasive communication: Explain individual resistance to change

A

The higher the resistance, the less likely an individual is to change

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52
Q

Name 3 types of goals that can be set by a coach

A
  1. Outcome goals
  2. Performance goals
  3. Process goals
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53
Q

Define an outcome goal

A

Based on the end result

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54
Q

What is the benefit of an outcome goal

A
  1. Achieving it increases motivation and self-efficacy
  2. It can lead to approach behaviour
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55
Q

Name 2 drawbacks of an outcome goal

A
  1. The end result is out of the performer’s full control
  2. Repeated failure can lead to demotivation
  3. Repeated failure may cause avoidance behaviour
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56
Q

Define performance goals

A

The performer is judged against themselves , regardless of the end result

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57
Q

Define process goals

A

Focussed on tactics and techniques

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58
Q

What is the benefit of process goals?

A

Effective process goals can aid performance and outcome goals

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59
Q

What are the 5 characteristics of effective goal setting?

A

Specific
Measurable
Agreed
Realistic
Time-phased

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60
Q

Effective goal setting: Explain specific

A

The goal must be relevant to the performer’s role and event

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61
Q

Effective goal setting: Define measurable

A

Use objective measures to dictate if a goal has been achieved

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62
Q

Effective goal setting: Define agreed

A

The goal must be agreed between the coach and performer

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63
Q

Effective goal setting: Define Realistic

A

The goal should be within the performer’s physical capability

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64
Q

Effective goal setting: Define time-phased

A

The coach should set short, medium and long-term goals

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65
Q

Define arousal

A

Arousal is a state of activation and readiness to perform

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66
Q

Define cognitive arousal

A

A state of psychological activation and readiness to perform

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67
Q

Define somatic arousal

A

A state of physiological activation and readiness to perform

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68
Q

Drive theory: There is a _____________ ___________________ between arousal and performance

A

Positive correlation

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69
Q

Drive theory: As arousal increases, effort levels increase and the performer shows their ___________ ______________

A

Dominant response

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70
Q

Drive theory: An autonomous performer has a _________ _____________ dominant response

A

Well-learnt

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71
Q

Drive theory: For a cognitive performer, what happens as arousal increases?

A

Performance decrease because their dominant response is not well learnt

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72
Q

Drive theory: For an autonomous performer, what happens as arousal increases?

A

Performance increase because their dominant response is well learnt

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73
Q

Describe the inverted U theory of arousal

A

As arousal increase, effort increase and performance increases until the performer reaches optimum levels

74
Q

What dose optimum levels of arousal give?

A

Optimum levels of performance

75
Q

What are a cognitive performer’s optimum level of arousal like? Why?

A
  1. Low
  2. Their dominant response is not well learnt, so they are required to concentrate on the task
76
Q

What is an autonomous performer’s optimum level of arousal?

A

High

77
Q

What is the optimum level of arousal for a golf putt? Why?

A
  1. Low
  2. It is a fine motor skill
78
Q

Define the term cognitive anxiety

A

Psychological anxiety

79
Q

Define somatic anxiety

A

Physiological anxiety

80
Q

Define competitive trait anxiety

A

The performer perceives all competitive situation as threatening

81
Q

Define competitive state anxiety

A

The performer perceives certain competitive situations as threatening

82
Q

What is the relationship between arousal and anxiety?

A

As arousal increases, anxiety also increases

83
Q

When does cognitive state anxiety increase in relation to performance?

A

Up to a week before

84
Q

When does cognitive anxiety peak in relation to performance

A

At the start of the event

85
Q

What happens to cognitive state anxiety during performance? Why?

A

It fluctuates depending on performance

86
Q

When does somatic state anxiety increase in relation to performance?

A

An hour before

87
Q

When does somatic state anxiety peak in relation to performance

A

At the start of performance

88
Q

What happens to somatic state anxiety during performance?

A

It changes dependant on cognitive anxiety

89
Q

Give an example of a physiological measure of stress

A

Heart rate monitors

90
Q

Nam 3 cognitive stress management techniques

A
  1. Mental rehearsal/visualisation
  2. Thought stopping
  3. Positive self-talk
91
Q

How many types of mental rehearsal are there? What are they?

A

2
Internal and external

92
Q

When should thought stopping be used?

A

When negative thoughts occur

93
Q

What is thought stopping

A

The use of a key cue or word

94
Q

What does anxiety do to attention?

A

Re-directs it from the cause of anxiety to the external stimulus

95
Q

When should positive-self talk be used?

A

When negative thoughts occur

96
Q

What is positive self-talk?

A

Where the performer replaces negative thoughts with positive statements about performance

97
Q

Name 3 somatic stress management techniques

A
  1. Biofeedback
  2. Centring/deep breathing
  3. Progressive muscular relaxation
98
Q

What is biofeedback?

A

The use of a physiological measuring device

99
Q

What does biofeedback allow a performer to do?

A

Recognise and control the causes of anxiety

100
Q

What does centring involve?

A

Deep breathing and a mantra

101
Q

What is centring usually used alongside?

A

Progressive muscular relaxation

102
Q

What is progressive muscular relaxation?

A

The performer breathes in, contracts their muscles, holds the contraction and then relaxes the muscles and breathes out

103
Q

What is progressive muscular relaxation used alongside?

A

Centring/deep breathing

104
Q

Define motivation

A

A drive to succeed

105
Q

Define intrinsic motivation

A

A drive to succeed from within

106
Q

What does intrinsic motivation lead to?

A

Self-fulfilment and a sense of control over performance

107
Q

Define extrinsic motivation

A

A drive to succeed from an external source

108
Q

What can be offered as a way of improving extrinsic motivation?

A

Rewards

109
Q

Identify the two types of rewards

A

Tangible and intangible

110
Q

Give an example of tangible rewards

A

Trophies, money, medals

111
Q

Give an example of intangible rewards

A

Praise

112
Q

What kind of approach is achievement motivation

A

Inteactionist

113
Q

Achievement motivation = _____________________ - ________________

A

Desire to succeed - fear of failure

114
Q

Achievement motivation: Desire to succeed is dictated by…

A

The incentive value of success

115
Q

Achievement motivation: Fear of failure is dictated by…

A

The probability of success

116
Q

Achievement motivation: If a performer’s desire to succeed outweighs fear of failure, they will show…

A

NACH behaviour

117
Q

Achievement motivation: If a performer’s fear of failure outweighs their desire to succeed, they will show …

A

NAF behaviour

118
Q

Identify 3 characteristics of a NACH performer

A
  1. Desire to succeed outweighs fear of failure
  2. Seeks challenging situations
  3. Display approach behaviour
  4. High task persistance
  5. High levels of self efficacy
119
Q

Identify 3 characteristics of a NAF performer

A
  1. Fear of failure outweighs desire to succeed
  2. Show avoidance behaviour
  3. Low task persistence
  4. Low self efficacy
120
Q

Define aggression

A

An overt physical or verbal act with the intent to cause harm

121
Q

Define assertion

A

An overt physical of verbal act with no intent to cause harm

122
Q

What does instinct theory of aggression suggest?

A

Aggression is inherited

123
Q

Why can trait theory of aggression be criticised?

A

Because aggression can be learnt or caused by an increase in frustration

124
Q

Frustration aggression theory: What leads to an initial increase in frustration?

A

The opponent blocking a goal

125
Q

Acting aggressively can decrease frustration, which is known as…

A

Catharsis

126
Q

Frustration aggression theory: When is a performer more likely to act aggressively?

A
  1. If they were close to achieving their goal
  2. If the goal is blocked unfairly
127
Q

Frustration aggression theory: What could cause the performer to believe that aggression can lead to success?

A
  1. If it goes unpunished
  2. If it is reinforced by a coach
128
Q

Frustration aggression theory: What happens if aggression is punished?

A

It may lead to further frustration

129
Q

Identify 3 ways a coach can reduce aggression

A
  1. Remove aggressive cues
  2. Stop praising aggressive behaviour
  3. Punish aggressive behaviour
  4. Teach stress management techniques
  5. Develop a code of conduct
130
Q

Name 3 theories of aggression

A
  1. Instinct/trait theory
  2. Frustration-aggression theory
  3. Social learning theory of aggression
  4. Aggressive cue theory
131
Q

Suggest 3 way an official/referee can reduce aggression

A
  1. Pre-warn players about the consequences
  2. Punish aggression immediately
  3. Apply rules fairly and consistently
132
Q

Define social facilitation

A

Presence of an audience increases arousal

133
Q

Define social inhibition

A

Presence of an audience has a negative impact on performance

134
Q

How many types of audience are there?

A

4

135
Q

Name the 4 types of audience

A
  1. Audience
  2. Co-actors
  3. Social reinforcer
  4. Competitive co-actor
136
Q

Define a co-actor

A

Somebody performing the task but not in direct competition

137
Q

Define social reinforcer

A

Somebody with a direct influence on performance

138
Q

Define competitive co-actor

A

Somebody performing the same task and in direct competition

139
Q

Define evaluation apprehension

A

The audience only has an effect on performance if the performer feels judged

140
Q

Name 3 characteristics of a group

A
  1. A group has shared identity
  2. A group have task cohesion
  3. A group have social cohesion
  4. A group have hierarchy
141
Q

How many stages are there of group formation

A

5

142
Q

Identify the 5 stages of group formation

A
  1. Forming
  2. Storming
  3. Norming
  4. Performing
  5. Mourning
143
Q

Define the forming stage of group formation

A

The group member come together and get to know each other

144
Q

Define the storming stage of group formation

A

There is conflict with group members as they try to establish their roles within the group

145
Q

Define the norming stage of group formation

A

The group member begin to co-operate as they come to understand their roles

146
Q

Define the performing stage of group formation

A

The group members begin to work together to achieve a common goal

147
Q

Define the mourningstage of group formation

A

The task is completed and the group is broken up

148
Q

Define task cohesion

A

The togetherness of a group to work towards a common goal

149
Q

Is task cohesion or social cohesion more important?

A

Task cohesion

150
Q

Define social cohesion

A

The inter-personal relationship between group members

151
Q

What negative may social cohesion lead to?

A

Social cliques

152
Q

Actual productivity = _____________ - ______________

A

Potential productivity - losses dues to faulty group processes

153
Q

Define actual productivity

A

The performance level achieved by a group

154
Q

Define potential productivity

A

The team’s best possible performance

155
Q

What causes motivational losses?

A

Lack of concentration and low levels of arousal

156
Q

What can motivational losses lead to?

A
  1. Social loafing
  2. Ringlemann effect
157
Q

Explain social loafing

A

Where the performer hides within the group

158
Q

Explain the Ringlemann effect

A

As group size increases, the individual performer’s effort decreases

159
Q

What are the characteristics of a good leader?

A
  1. Confident
  2. Organised
  3. Charismatic
  4. Knowledgable
160
Q

What are 2 ways a leader can be appointed?

A
  1. Prescribed
  2. Emergent
161
Q

What is a prescribed leader?

A

Somebody appointed by an external authority

162
Q

What is an emergent leader

A

Elected by the group from within the group

163
Q

Identify 3 leadership styles

A
  1. Autocratic
  2. Democratic
  3. Laissez-faire
164
Q

What is an autocratic leader?

A

Set goals and focuses on success. They make all of the decisions

165
Q

Describe a democratic leader

A

Focus on interpersonal relationships with group members and allow them to contribute to decision making

166
Q

Describe a laissez-faire leader

A

Provides little support or input and allows team members to make decisions

167
Q

Chelladurai’s Multi-dimensional model of leadership: What is a required behaviour?

A

The leadership style dictated by the situation

168
Q

Chelladurai’s Multi-dimensional model of leadership: What is a preferred behaviour

A

The leadership style dictated by group members

169
Q

Chelladurai’s Multi-dimensional model of leadership: What is an actual behaviour?

A

The leadership style that is displayed

170
Q

Chelladurai’s Multi-dimensional model of leadership: When will high levels of satisfaction be reached?

A

When preferred and actual behaviour match

171
Q

Chelladurai’s Multi-dimensional model of leadership: When will high levels of performance be reached?

A

If all behaviours match

172
Q

Would a NACH or NAF performer have a self serving bias?

A

NACH

173
Q

What would a NACH performer attribute success to?

A

Internal and stable factors

174
Q

Would a NACH or NAF performer have learned helplessness?

A

NAF

175
Q

What would a NAF performer attribute failure to?

A

Internal and stable factors

176
Q

Define slef-efficacy

A

Self confidence in a specific sporting situation

177
Q

Outline the 4 factors that contribute to self-efficacy

A
  1. Past performance accomplishments
  2. Vicarious experiences
  3. Verbal persuasion
  4. Emotional arousal
178
Q

Explain past performance accomplishments

A

Previous success in the same situation leads to high levels of self-efficacy in the present or future

179
Q

Explain vicarious experiences

A

Watching a performer of the same perceived ability achieve success leads to high levels of self efficacy

180
Q

Explain verbal persuasion

A

If a coach encourages certain behaviours, that will lead to high levels of self-efficacy

181
Q

Explain emotional arousal

A

If a performer is at optimum levels of arousal, they will have a peak flow experience

RSFC A Level PE (31 decks)

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