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RSFC A Level PE > Exercise Physiology, Training and Performance > Flashcards

Exercise Physiology, Training and Performance Flashcards

1
Q

Define health

A

A state of complete physical, mental and social wellbeing in the absence of disease or illness

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2
Q

Define fitness

A

The ability to cope with the demands of the environment

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3
Q

Define exercise

A

An activity that requires physical or mental exertion and is performed to improve or maintain fitness

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4
Q

Define sedentary

A

Sitting down or being physically inactive for long periods of time

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5
Q

Give 3 benefits of HIIT training on health

A
  1. Improves levels of cardiovascular endurance
  2. Which reduces the risk of obesity
  3. Which reduces the risk of type 2 diabetes and heart disease
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6
Q

Give 3 benefits of PNF on health

A
  1. Improves flexibility
  2. Which improves posture and body shape
  3. Reducing the risk of arthiritis
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7
Q

Give 3 benefits of weight training

A
  1. Leads to improved strength
  2. Which increases bone density
  3. Reducing the risk of osteoporosis
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8
Q

Give 3 psychological benefits of exercise

A
  1. Releases endorphins
  2. Catharsis - release stress
  3. Improves focus
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9
Q

Give 3 social benefits of exercise

A
  1. Allows individuals to make friends
  2. Reduces the strain on the NHS
  3. Reduces the likelihood of crime
  4. Can help to boost the economy
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10
Q

Define heart rate

A

The number of times the heart beats per minute

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11
Q

Define stroke volume

A

The amount of blood pumped out of the left ventricle per beat

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12
Q

Define cardiac output

A

The amount of blood pumped out of the left ventricle per minute

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13
Q

Outline the relationship between heart rate, stroke volume and cardiac output

A

Cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate

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14
Q

What is the cardiac output of a performer with a heart rate of 70bpm and a stroke volume of 70mls

A

4,900mls/min

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15
Q

How is maximum heart rate calculated?

A

220 - age (+ or - 10)

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16
Q

What does cardiac hypertrophy mean?

A

The heart gets bigger and stronger

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17
Q

Who would have a lower resting heart rate - a healthy active individual or a sedentary individual? Why?

A

An active individual, as they have a higher stroke volume

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18
Q

What is known as the heart’s pacemaker?

A

The SAN

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19
Q

Outline the first process in the conduction of the heart and explain what it causes.

A

The SAN sends out an electrical impulse - causing the atria to contract and forcing blood into the ventricles

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20
Q

Outline the role of the AVN in the conduction of the heart.

A

The AVN sends out a second nerve impulse

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21
Q

In the conduction of the heart, where does the second nerve impulse get sent and what does it cause.

A

The second nerve impulse is sent down the bundle of His, causing a delay of 0.1 seconds.

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22
Q

What happens to the atria in the diastolic phase?

A

It passively fills with blood.

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23
Q

What happens to the ventricle in the diastolic phase?

A

It passively fills with blood

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24
Q

What happens to the atria in the systolic phase?

A

It squeezes, forcing blood into the ventricles

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25
Q

What happens the ventricles in the systolic phase?

A

They contract, forcing blood out of the heart

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26
Q

Does the heart relax or contract in the diastolic phase?

A

Relax

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27
Q

Does the heart relax or contract in the systolic phase?

A

Contract

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28
Q

Define the term venous return

A

The return of blood to the heart

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29
Q

How many mechanisms are there or venous return?

A

3

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30
Q

Name the mechanisms of venous return

A
  1. Muscle Pump
  2. Respiratory Pump
  3. One-way Valves
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31
Q

Explain the muscle pump

A

Where the muscles contract, squeezing the veins and forcing blood to the heart

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32
Q

Explain one-way valves

A

In the veins and prevent the back flow of blood

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33
Q

Explain the respiratory pump

A

The chest size increases, which squeezes the veins and forces blood back to the heart

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34
Q

Describe the 6 steps of Starling’s Law

A
  1. During exercise, there is a greater venous return
  2. Therefore, a greater amount of blood fills the heart
  3. Therefore, there is a greater stretch of the walls of the heart
  4. Therefore, their is a greater force of contraction
  5. Therefore, there is a greater stroke volume
  6. Therefore, their is greater amount of O2 to the working muscles
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35
Q

What are the benefits of Starling’s Law?

A

A greater amount of O2 is delivered to the working muscles, so the performer can use aerobic respiration at higher intensities for longer

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36
Q

What is the role of a chemoreceptor?

A

To detect changes in blood acidity levels.

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37
Q

What is the role of a proprioceptor?

A

To detect muscular contractions

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38
Q

What is the role of a baroreceptor?

A

To detect a change in blood pressure

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39
Q

What is the role of a thermoreceptor?

A

To detect changes in body temperature

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40
Q

In order to change heart rate, where do receptors send impulses to?

A

The cardiac control centre in the medulla

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41
Q

To increase heart rate, what type of nerve impulse does the medulla send?

A

Sympathetic

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42
Q

To increase heart rate, which pathway does the medulla send nerve impulses down?

A

Acceleratory

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43
Q

To decrease heart rate, what kind of nerve impulses does the medulla send?

A

Parasympathetic

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44
Q

To decrease heart rate, which pathway does the medulla send nerve impulses down?

A

Inhibitory

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45
Q

What is the redistribution of blood also known as?

A

Vascular shunting

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46
Q

In order to redistribute blood, where do receptors send a nerve impulse to?

A

Vaso-motor control centre in the medulla

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47
Q

To cause vaso-dilation or vaso-constriction, where does the vaso-motor control centre send impulses to?

A

The pre-capillary sphincters

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48
Q

What does vaso dilation mean?

A

The blood vessels become bigger

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49
Q

What does vaso constriction mean?

A

The blood vessels become smaller

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50
Q

What happens to blood flow to the digestive system during exercise?

A

It decreases

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51
Q

What happens to blood flow to the brain during exercise?

A

It stays the same

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52
Q

What happens to blood flow to the skin during exercise?

A

It increases

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53
Q

What happens to blood flow to the heart during exercise?

A

It increases

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54
Q

Define the term tidal volume

A

The amount of air inspired and expired per breath

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55
Q

Define the term inspiratory reserve volume

A

The maximum amount of air that can be breathed in

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56
Q

Define the term expiratory reserve volume

A

The maximum amount of air that can breathed out

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57
Q

Define the term vital capacity

A

The maximum amount of air that can be breathed out after maximal inhalation

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58
Q

Outline the relationship between inspiratory reserve volume (IRV), expiratory reserve volume (ERV) and vital capacity (VC)

A

IRV + ERV = VC

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59
Q

Define the term residual volume

A

The amount of air left in the lungs after maximal exhalation

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60
Q

What happens to tidal volume during exercise?

A

It increases

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61
Q

What happens to inspiratory reserve volume during exercise?

A

It decreases

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62
Q

Define the term minute ventilation

A

The amount of air breather in and out per minute

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63
Q

Define the term respiratory frequency

A

The number of breaths taken per minute

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64
Q

Outline the relationship between tidal volume, minute ventilation and respiratory frequency

A

Tidal volume x respiratory frequency = minute ventilation

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65
Q

Explain the term anticipatory rise

A

Increase in heart rate prior to exercise caused by adrenaline

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66
Q

What does the term steady state mean

A

When the performer is providing sufficient oxygen to the working muscles to resynthesise ATP aerobically

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67
Q

Is steady state reached sooner or later when working at high intensity?

A

Later

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68
Q

Is steady state reached sooner or later when working at low intensity?

A

Sooner

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69
Q

Would a trained performer reach steady state sooner or later than an untrained performer?

A

Sooner

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70
Q

What does PO2 stand for?

A

Partial pressure of oxygen

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71
Q

What does PCO2 stand for?

A

Partial pressure of carbon dioxide

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72
Q

Gaseous exchange at the lungs: Where is there a high PO2?

A

In the alveoli

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73
Q

Gaseous exchange at the lungs: Where is there a low PO2?

A

In the capillary

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74
Q

Gaseous exchange at the lungs: Where does oxygen move from and where does it move into?

A

From the alveoli to the capillary

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75
Q

What does diffusion mean?

A

Moving from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration

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76
Q

Gaseous exchange at the lungs: Where is there a high PCO2?

A

In the capillary

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77
Q

Gaseous exchange at the lungs: Where is there a low PCO2?

A

In the alveoli

78
Q

Gaseous exchange at the lungs: Where does carbo dioxide diffuse from and to?

A

Diffuses from the capillary to the alveoli

79
Q

Gaseous exchange at the muscle: Where is there a high PO2?

A

In the capillary

80
Q

Gaseous exchange at the muscle: Where is there a low PO2?

A

In the muscle

81
Q

Gaseous exchange at the muscle: Where does oxygen diffuse from and into

A

From the capillary to the muscle

82
Q

Gaseous exchange at the muscle: Where is there a high PCO2?

A

In the muscle

83
Q

Gaseous exchange at the muscle: Where is there a low PCO2?

A

In the capillary

84
Q

Gaseous exchange at the muscle: Where does carbon dioxide diffuse from and into?

A

From the muscle into the capillary

85
Q

Outline the functions of myoglobin

A
  1. Stores O2
  2. Found in the muscle
  3. High affinity for oxygen
86
Q

Is more or less oxygen exhaled during exercise? Why?

A
  1. Less
  2. Because more is being used by the muscles
87
Q

Is more or less carbon dioxide exhaled during exercise? Why?

A
  1. More
  2. Because the muscles are producing more as a waste product
88
Q

Identify 3 features that assist gaseous exchange at the lungs

A
  1. One cell thick walls
  2. Large surface area
  3. Narrow diameter
89
Q

Give 3 reasons why aerobic training improves the ability to transport oxygen

A
  1. Increase % of alveoli used
  2. Increased production of red blood cells
  3. Increase myoglobin content in the muscle
90
Q

Is there a high or low PO2 at high altitude?

A

Low

91
Q

Where are nerve impulses sent to by receptors to control breathing rate?

A

Respiratory control centre in the medulla

92
Q

Where does the respiratory control centre send nerve impulses to control breathing rate?

A

The intercostal muscles and diaphragm

93
Q

Describe the role of the sympathetic nervous system

A

To prepare the performer for exercise

94
Q

Describe the role of the parasympathetic nervous system

A

To allow the performer to recover after exercie

95
Q

What effect does the sympathetic nervous system have on heart rate

A

Increases it

96
Q

What effect does the parasympathetic nervous system have on heart rate?

A

Decreases it

97
Q

Define the term VO2 Max

A

The maximum amount of oxygen utilised by the body per minute

98
Q

Define the term lactate threshold

A

The point at which more lactic acid is produced than removed

99
Q

What does OBLA stand for?

A

Onset Blood Lactate Accumulation

100
Q

Define the term OBLA

A

The point at which lactic acid builds up in the blood and fatigue sets in

101
Q

Lactate threshold is a _____________ of VO2 Max

A

Percentage

102
Q

As VO2 Max increases, lactate threshold _________

A

Increases

103
Q

As VO2 Max increase, OBLA is _____________

A

Delayed

104
Q

What is the speed and force of contraction a type 1 muscle fibre?

A

Slow and low

105
Q

What is the speed and force of contraction of a type 2b muscle fibre?

A

Fast and high

106
Q

Identify 3 characteristics of a type 1 muscle fibre

A
  1. High capillary density
  2. High levels of myoglobin
  3. High number of mitochondria
  4. High levels of triglyceride
  5. High levels of oxidative enzymes
107
Q

Identify 3 characteristics of a type 2b muscle fibre

A
  1. High PC stores
  2. High glycogen stores
  3. Increased number of anaerobic enzymes
  4. Large motor neurone
108
Q

How does a high capillary density benefit type 1 muscle fibres?

A

Increases the number of sites available for diffusion

109
Q

How does high levels of myoglobin benefit type 1 muscle fibres?

A

Allows the muscles to extract an increased amount of oxygen from the bloodstream

110
Q

How does a high number of mitochondria benefit a type 1 muscle fibre?

A

Increase the amount of energy provided through aerobic respiration

111
Q

How does high levels of triglyceride benefit a type 1 muscl fibre?

A

Can be broken down to produce fatty acids for energy production

112
Q

How do high levels of oxidative enzymes benefit a type 1 muscle fibre?

A

Allow the performer to remove lactic acid from the muscle via oxidation

113
Q

How does high PC stores benefit type 2b muscle fibres?

A

Allows the performer to use the ATP-PC system for longer

114
Q

How do high glycogen stores benefit type 2b muscle fibres?

A

Increased energy source for ATP production via the lactate anaerobic system

115
Q

How does an increased amount of anaerobic enzymes benefit a type 2b muscle fibre

A

Allows for a rapid breakdown of anaerobic energy sources

116
Q

How does a large motor neurone benefit a type 2b muscle fibre

A

Allows the performer to control more muscle fibres per contraction

117
Q

Identify 3 adaptations to aerobic exercise

A
  1. Cardiac hypertrophy
  2. Increased percentage of alveoli used
  3. Increased myoglobin content in the muscle
  4. Increased mitochondrial density
  5. Increased triglyceride stores
118
Q

How does cardiac hypertrophy benefit aerobic performance?

A

The performer has an increased stroke volume, increasing oxygen delivery

119
Q

Why does an increased % of alveoli usage improve aerobic performance?

A

There are more sites for diffusion in the lungs

120
Q

Why does increased myoglobin content benefit aerobic performance?

A

Allows the muscle to extract more O2 from the bloodstream

121
Q

How does an increased mitochondrial density benefit aerobic performance?

A

Allows the performer to resynthesise more ATP

122
Q

Why do increased triglyceride stores benefit aerobic performance?

A

Can be broken down to provide an aerobic energy source

123
Q

Why does hypertrophy of type 2b muscle fibres benefit anaerobic exercise?

A

They become thicker in diameter, which increases force of contraction

124
Q

Why does increased recruitment of motor units benefit anaerobic exercise?

A

Increases the overall force of contraction

125
Q

Why do increased stores of PC benefit anaerobic performance?

A

Allow the performer to use the ATP-PC system for longer

126
Q

Identify the 6 energy sources

A
  1. ATP
  2. PC
  3. Carbohydrates/glycogen
  4. Fats
  5. Protein
  6. Lactic acid
127
Q

Identify the 3 main energy sources used by a 400m runner.

A

1.ATP
2.PC
3.Lactic acid

128
Q

Identify the main energy sources used by a marathon runner

A
  1. ATP
  2. PC
  3. Carbohydrates
  4. Fats
129
Q

Name 3 energy systems

A

1.ATP-PC system
2. Lactate anaerobic system
3. Aerobic respiration

130
Q

Which enzyme breaks down ATP?

A

ATPase

131
Q

What is ATP broken down into?

A

ADP + P + Energy

132
Q

When ATP is broken down, what is the energy used for?

A

Muscular contractions

133
Q

Which enzyme detects high levels of ADP?

A

Creatine kinase

134
Q

How long does the ATP-PC system last for?

A

8 seconds

135
Q

What intensity is the ATP-PC system used for?

A

High intensity

136
Q

What energy system is used for a 100m sprint?

A

ATP-PC

137
Q

What is PC broken down into?

A

P + C + Energy

138
Q

When PC is broken down, what is the energy used for?

A

To resynthesise ATP

139
Q

Identify 3 advantages of the ATP-PC system

A
  1. Rapid release of energy
  2. Rapid resynthesis of ATP
  3. No waste product
140
Q

Identify 3 disadvantages of the ATP-PC system

A
  1. Limited store of PC
  2. Only lasts for 8 seconds
  3. Full recovery takes 3 minutes
141
Q

How long does the lactate anaerobic system last for?

A

3 minutes

142
Q

What intensity is the lactate anaerobic system used for?

A

High intensity

143
Q

What is the energy source for the lactate anaerobic system?

A

Carbohydrates

144
Q

What is glycogen broken down to form?

A

Glucose

145
Q

What is glucose broken down into?

A

Pyruvate

146
Q

In the lactate anaerobic system, what is pyruvate broken down into?

A

Lactic acid

147
Q

Why is pyruvate broken down into lactic acid in the lactate anaerobic system?

A

As there is no oxygen present

148
Q

How many ATP are resynthesised as a result of the lactate anaerobic system?

A

2

149
Q

What is the energy used for in the lactate anaerobic system?

A

To resynthesise ATP

150
Q

What is a key disadvantage of the lactate anaerobic system?

A

Lactic acid is produced

151
Q

How long can aerobic respiration last?

A

Forever

152
Q

What is the first process of aerobic respiration called?

A

Glycolysis

153
Q

How many ATP are resynthesised during glycolysis?

A

2

154
Q

In aerobic respiration, what is pyruvate oxidised to form?

A

Acetyl-coA

155
Q

What does acetyl-coA enter?

A

The Krebs cycle

156
Q

How much energy is produced in the Krebs Cycle?

A

Enough to resynthesise 2 ATP

157
Q

Do carbohydrates or fats yield more energy?

A

Fats

158
Q

Which energy system provides the majority of energy for a marathon?

A

Aerobic respiration

159
Q

Which energy system provides the majority of energy for a 400m race?

A

Lactate anaerobic system

160
Q

Which muscle fibres would a marathon runner predominantly use?

A

Type 1

161
Q

Which muscle fibres would a sprinter predominantly use?

A

Type 2b

162
Q

Name 3 health related components of fitness

A
  1. Stamina
  2. Muscular strength
  3. Muscular endurance
  4. Body composition
  5. Flexibility
163
Q

Define stamina

A

The ability to delay the onset of fatigue

164
Q

Define muscular strength

A

Applying force to overcome a resistance

165
Q

Define muscular endurance

A

The ability to perform repeated muscular contractions without becoming fatigued

166
Q

Define body composition

A

The proportion of body weight which are fat, muscle, bone and internal organs

167
Q

Define flexibility

A

The maximum range of movement available at a joint

168
Q

Name 3 skill-related components of fitness

A

1.Agility
2.Balance
3.Co-ordination
4.Speed
5.Power
6.Reaction time

169
Q

Define agility

A

The ability to change direction quickly and efficiently

170
Q

Define balance

A

The ability to keep the body’s centre of mass over the base of support

171
Q

Define co-ordination

A

The ability to link and move two or more body parts together smoothly and efficiently

172
Q

Define speed

A

Ability to move quickly from one place to another

173
Q

Define power

A

Rapid application of force

174
Q

How is power calculated?

A

Speed x strength

175
Q

Define reaction time

A

From the start of the stimulus to the start of the movement

176
Q

What does SPORV stand for?

A

Specificity
Progressive Overload
Reversibility
Variance

177
Q

How can a coach make training specific

A

By using the same muscle groups, muscle fibres and energy systems

178
Q

Define progressive overload

A

Gradually changing training in order to force a physiological adaptation

179
Q

Define reversibility

A

If a performer stops training, then their fitness levels will decrease

180
Q

Outline the 4 principles of progressive overload

A
  1. Frequency
  2. Intensity
  3. Time
  4. Type
181
Q

Define continuous training

A

Completing a continuous skill for at least 20 minutes

182
Q

What does continuous training aim to improve?

A

Cardiovascular endurance

183
Q

Define interval training

A

Involves alternating between period of high intensity exercise and short periods of rest

184
Q

What does interval training aim to improve?

A

Cardiovascular endurance

185
Q

Define fartlek training

A

Involves alternating between periods of high and low intensities on different terrains for 40 minutes

186
Q

What can weight training be used to develop?

A

Muscular strength or muscular endurance

187
Q

What is the purpose of plyometrics?

A

Cause hypertrophy of the type 2b muscle fibres which increases power

188
Q

What does plyometric training begin with?

A

A rapid eccentric contraction

189
Q

What are the muscle splindles?

A

A protective mechanism designed to prevent overstretching

190
Q

In plyometrics, where do the muscle spindles send a message to?

A

The central nervous system

191
Q

What does the central nervous system activate during plyometrics?

A

A stretch reflex

RSFC A Level PE (31 decks)

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