Spinal 2 Wk 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What are examples of pneumatic bone?

A

Frontal, ethmoid, maxilla, sphenoid and temporal

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2
Q

What are consistent examples of sesamoid bones?

A

Patella and pisiform.

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3
Q

What is the function of each type of bone cell?

A

Osteoblasts - form bone. osteocytes maintain or nurture bone, osteoclasts remodel bone.

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4
Q

What is the most frequently described deposit in bone?

A

Hydroxyapatite.

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5
Q

What are the three responses of bone which allow it to be described as “living”?

A

It has the ability to heal, to remodel under stressors and to age.

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6
Q

What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in mesenchyme?

A

Intramembranous ossification

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7
Q

What part of the skull is derived from endochondral ossification?

A

Chondrocranium.

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8
Q

Which bone of the appendicular skeleton is formed by both endochondral and intramembranous ossification?

A

The clavicle

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9
Q

What are the classifications given to abnormal bone stressed in Spinal 2?

A

Heterotopic and accessory bone

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10
Q

What are the types of rounded osseous elevations?

A
Tubercle
Protuberance
Trochanter
Tuber or tuberosity
Malleolus
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11
Q

What are examples of short bones?

A

Most of the bones of the carpus and tarsus.

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12
Q

What is the definition of an osseous foramen?

A

An ostium passing completely through a thin region of bone.

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13
Q

What are examples of pneumatic bone?

A
Frontal
Ethmoid
Maxilla
Sphenoid
Temporal
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14
Q

What is the definition of an osseous canal?

A

And ostium passing completely throuh a thick region of bone.

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15
Q

What are consistent examples of sesamoid bones?

A

Patella and pisiform

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16
Q

What is the definition of an osseous meatus?

A

A blind-ended passageway which does not completely penetrate through a bone.

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17
Q

What is the definition of an osseous fissure?

A

An irregular slit-like or crack-like appearance between the surface of adjacent bones.

18
Q

What are the categories of rounded osseous facets?

A

Articular heads and articular condyles.

19
Q

What are the categories of bone forming the typical adult skull?

A

The neurocranium, the splanchnocranium or facial skeleton and auditory ossicles.

20
Q

By strict definition, what is the splanchnocranium?

A

The bones which support the face minus the mandible.

21
Q

What are the classifications of ribs 1 and 2 in the typical adult skeleton?

A

Atypical ribs, true ribs, costa verae, and vertebrosternal ribs.

22
Q

What are the classifications of ribs 8 and 9 in the typical adult skeleton?

A

Typical ribs, false ribs, costa spuriae, and vertebrochondral ribs

23
Q

What are the four subclassifications of synarthrosis joints?

A

Suture,
gomphosis,
schindylesis,
syndesmosis.

24
Q

What are the five types of suture?

A
Serrate,
denticulate,
limbous,
squamous,
harmonia.
25
Q

What are the sutura vera?

A

True structures demonstrating interlocking of the adjacent bone surfaces; typically formed by intramembraneous ossification.

26
Q

What are the sutura notha?

A

False sutures lacking interlocking of adjacent bone surfaces; typically formed by endochondral ossification

27
Q

Which suture classification demonstrates interlocking and overlapping characteristics?

A

Synarthrosis suture limbous.

28
Q

Sutures which neither overlap nor interlock are classified as:

A

Synarthrosis suture harmonia.

29
Q

What are examples of a permanent amphiarthrosis synchondrosis?

A

Costochondral joints or the first sternochondral joint

30
Q

What are the characteristics of an amphiarthrosis symphysis?

A

Limited motion, median plane location, support ligaments both anterior and posterior to the joint, more permanent in longevity than sychondrosis and they occur between bones developing by endochondral ossification.

31
Q

Which example of an amphiarthrosis symphysis is temporary?

A

Symphysis menti

32
Q

What are the four consistent features of diarthrosis joints?

A

Articular or fibrous capsule, synovial membranes, articular cartilage and synovial fluid.

33
Q

What are the characteristics of the type 1 articular receptors?

A

Located in the superficial layer of the fibrous capsule, resemble Ruffini endings, most numerous in cervical zygapophyses and they monitor the joint “at rest”.

34
Q

What are the characteristics of type 2 articular receptors?

A

They resemble Pacinian corpuscles, located in deeper strata of the fibrous capsule, most muberous in the cervical spine and monitor the joint during normal range of motion.

35
Q

What are the characteristics of type 3 articular receptors?

A

Resemble Golgi tendon organs, and represent in collateral and intrinsic ligaments, not initially observed along the vertebral column and monitor extreme joint motion.

36
Q

Type 4b articular receptors would be present in what locations?

A

Accessory ligaments in general, dense in the posterior longitudinal ligament of the spine?

37
Q

What are the three classifications of synovial membrane?

A

Articular, vaginal and bursal synovial membrane.

38
Q

What are the three modifications of articular synovial membrane?

A

Synovial villi, articular fat pads of Haversian glands and synovial menisci and intra-articular discs.

39
Q

What is the specific function of type A and type B synovial cells?

A

Secrete proteinaceous substances and hyaluronic acid.

40
Q

What is implied when cartilage is said to have viscoeleastic properties?

A

Cartilage can deform but returns to original volume slowly, a time dependent property.

41
Q

Identify and describe the three theories of joint lubrication.

A

Weeping theory implies fluid lost from cartilage joins synovial fluid to produce the viscosity of the film.
Boosted theory implies water driven into cartilage results in increased viscocity of the remaining synovial fluid.
Boundary theory implies that the lubricant within synovial fluid is adsorbed onto the cartilage surface and is never fully removed.

42
Q

What are the properties of synovial fluid?

A

It is yellow-white, viscous, slightly alkaline and tastes salty.