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Captain Test > SOPs > Flashcards

SOPs Flashcards

1
Q

How long do properties owners have to correct fire code violations issued by a fire investigator

A

30 days

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2
Q

Who is responsible for actions within the hazardous zones

A

Hazmat team

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3
Q

Who decides if a candidate can retest or is terminated

A

Fire chief

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4
Q

Who’s responsibility is it to request additional response of a neighboring TRT team

A

TRT captain

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5
Q

If bunker gear is stolen what forms should be filled out

A

Stolen gear form
Police report
Equipment Repair and Replacement Form FR 0006

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6
Q

When should an SCBA be donned

A

Prior to leaving the apparatus

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7
Q

A perfect safety record is _____ ______

A

No accident

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8
Q

What is the second due engine assignment for a multiple occupancy fire

A

Water supply/backup

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9
Q

What is the max free play on a medal on the mule 2510

A

1/4” to 1/2”

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10
Q

What is the fourth due engine assignment for a highrise fire

A

RIT/backup/floor above

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11
Q

Who makes up the health and safety committee

A

Senior staff person, representative from each bureau and union

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12
Q

Who should be assigned as the staging officer after the staging location is established

A

First arriving company officer

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13
Q

All conditions that may create a hazard on live burns must be:

A

Removed, repaired, or neutralized

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14
Q

When backing an apparatus up, ALL uniformed personnel must exit the vehicle to assist, except when?

A

Emergency situations and in command/support vehicles

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15
Q

When is the pre/post live fire training sign in form destroyed

A

48 hours after training completed

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16
Q

Who should be notified when foam is used on a call

A

Support, form FR00006 ERR from

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17
Q

Who should a youth talk to if they are upset when they arrive claiming a “safe place”

A

Directly to Lippmann Youth Shelter staffmember

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18
Q

Who has a rad alert 50 issued them

A

Ladders, truck 53, squad, battalions, AC, E88 and HM88

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19
Q

When is compliance training for HIPAA

A

Annually in March

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20
Q

What is the battery life of the Bullard QTX thermal imaging camera

A

7-8 hours,

Takes 5 hours to fully charge

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21
Q

How often should crews check the thermometer for the medications

A

Twice a day at 0800 and 1600

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22
Q

What is the max dive time per rescuer

A

20 minutes

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23
Q

What is the max time to operate the starter on the mule 2510

A

5 seconds

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24
Q

Who should you report a hydrant that needs maintenance/repair to

A

Public works/utilities dept

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25
Q

If entering a trench contact public works for what

A

A vacuum truck to respond

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26
Q

It is the water rescuers responsibility and duty to:

A

Refuse to go if unsafe/under trained

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27
Q

Recovery dive is after how long

A

1 hour of down time

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28
Q

What should a SCBA regulator be cleaned with

A

6 full pumps of scott multi-wash mini

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29
Q

What is the call profile for a multiple occupancy dwelling

A 
4 engines
2 ladders
2 rescues
2 battalions
1 squad
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30
Q

Upon confirmation of firefighter death when will the station bunting be placed

A

Immediately

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31
Q

How often should bunker gear be cleaned

A

Once a year

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32
Q

What is the minimum response for an ASHER event at an assembly/commercial property

A

1 AC , 2 BC, 3 EN, 1 LD, 4 MRU, TRT, HAZMAT

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33
Q

All radio users are subject to the policies of what governing agencies

A

FCC, The state, and FLFR

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34
Q

What is the number one priority in any incident

A

Life safety

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35
Q

Who is the only party allowed to pick up a youth claiming a “safe place”

A

Lippmann Youth Shelter, they will call with the name of the staff member picking up the youth

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36
Q

When is the rescue versus recovery status for confined space rescue decided

A

Upon arrival of TRT and info transferred

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37
Q

Upon a PASS activation IC will:

A

Make radio contact
Determine if an Emergency
Make Tactical Decision

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38
Q

What is an ISO

A

Incident Safety officer

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39
Q

How many clicks to activate the parking brake on the mule 2510

A

8-10 clicks

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40
Q

Is the first due Rescue assignment for a house fire

A

Assist the first due engine

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41
Q

When are controlled substance log books exchanged

A

Biannually, Jan 1 and July 1 (collected by BC)

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42
Q

How often are required ISO training assigned in target solutions

A

Quarterly

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43
Q

When is every medication expiration date checked and replacements ordered

A

2nd Sunday of each month

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44
Q

What level protection is the suit in a bio chem protective kit

A

Tychem SL with level B splash Protection

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45
Q

How far is a collapse zone established

A

1.5 times the height of the building

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46
Q

Why should officer on scene notify fire com prior to entry of a hot zone for rescue ops

A

So they can record entry times

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47
Q

What color ink shall be used in drug log books

A

Black ink only

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48
Q

How often should bunker gear be replaced

A

Every 10 years

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49
Q

Who coordinates all aspects of a funeral

A

Honor guard

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50
Q

How long does a fire investigator have to turn in the completed case files to the fire investigation supervisor

A

10 business days

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51
Q

Under no circumstances must personnel enter without:

A

Proper training and equipment

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52
Q

Where does the FL health and environmental lab test the ocean waters

A

Birch state park, Sebastian street, Bahia mar

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53
Q

What is the second due engine on a highrise fire assignment

A

Attack

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54
Q

When should auxiliary jack pads be used

A

Every time

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55
Q

What is a clear zone from an airplane

A

From wing to wing and around the nose for 100 feet

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56
Q

What state roads are there in the City

A

State road 84, Davie Blvd, Broward Blvd/ELO, Sunrise Blvd, Oakland Blvd, Commercial Blvd, Powerline, Dixie Highway

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57
Q

How many medics in contact of any stretcher with pt on it

A

2 at all times unless unoccupied

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58
Q

NFPA standard for bunker gear

A

NFPA 1851

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59
Q

What is the second due rescue assignment on a house fire

A

Assigned by IC

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60
Q

What is a subpoena

A

A written order to compel an individual to give testimony on a subject.

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61
Q

At a highrise fire, where should the RIT stage

A

2 floors below the fire floor

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62
Q

What two issues need to be addressed when determining the training to be conducted

A
  1. Condition of the building

2. Skills to be taught

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63
Q

What should be shut down for a fentanyl/carfentanyl incident

A

HVAC system

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64
Q

All support personnel within _____ of shore must wear PFDs

A

10 ft

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65
Q

What rate should an SCBA bottle be pressurized at

A

More more than 1,000 psi per minute (5.5 minutes to fill)

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66
Q

What situations may a Bio/Chem protective kit be needed

A
  1. Assisting with deacon
  2. Suspected radioactive/biological/chemical event
  3. Treatment and transport of contaminated/off gassing pt
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67
Q

Standard review cycle for SOPs

A

Every 3 years unless otherwise stated at inception

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68
Q

How many categories of fire funeral are there

A

5

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69
Q

What does the SEMS laptop do once pre-alert is acknowledged

A

Flashes PASS

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70
Q

Are police to be called for a Project Safe Place youth?

A

No. Only if situation becomes hostile or unsafe

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71
Q

Who is responsible for determining the origin and cause of a fire

A

Captains, chief officers, and the fire investigator

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72
Q

Immediate fire and/or life safety violations require

A

Immediate correction

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73
Q

What percentage is enriched oxygen

A

23.5%

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74
Q

What are the 4 rescues designed for NICU/PICU IFTs

A

R3, 247, 13, 16

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75
Q

Life line stats:

A

1/2” static key mantle with a 9,000 pound tensile strength

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76
Q

When should medication expiration dates be checked on the apparatus

A

Every Friday during medical inventory checkout

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77
Q

What should be done for a safe haven baby

A

Assessed and transported to closest facility, notify supervisor and do PCR

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78
Q

When are ground ladders inspected and lubricated

A

June and December

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79
Q

Who do you send a mandatory subpoena to

A

Office manager

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80
Q

Mule 2510 is what

A

Medical carts

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81
Q

What width is considered a trench rescue operation

A

Depth is greater than width, width is 15 feet or less

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82
Q

True/False: at no time delay care/transport for a blood draw

A

TRUE

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83
Q

Does each layer of glove get taped when donning the tychem protective suit

A

Yes

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84
Q

Outside documentation for certifications will be emailed to what group

A

Fire training certifications

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85
Q

If a unit remains on scene and the run remains open, is an additional PCR/Run # needed

A

No

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86
Q

What is the first level of emergency personnel recall

A

Personnel scheduled to report to work the following shift

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87
Q

When must vehicles be waxed and when must they be thoroughly cleaned

A

Monthly on sundays and cleaned thoroughly on wednesdays

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88
Q

What should be developed for surface rescue operations

A

Action plan

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89
Q

Acronym for mark 1 or duodote injectors

A 
Salivation 
Lacrimentation 
Urination 
Defecation
GI Distress 
Emesis 
Miopic (pinpoint eyes)
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90
Q

Personal safety in surface rescue rests with

A

The rescuer

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91
Q

If an EMT/medic student has a nonemergent exposure/injury what should be done

A

Bring him/her to US Healthworks or if after hours to an appropriate facility
Fill out all paperwork and notify district BC

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92
Q

Overhaul should start where

A

At the top and work down

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93
Q

When will AHA cards be administered in relation to the class

A

Same day unless under extreme circumstance, must be within 20 days

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94
Q

When does the EMS Chief run a report on the usage and patterns of controlled substance use, and how long does he keep it

A

At the end of the each quarter, keeps it for 1 year

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95
Q

The Sylvester Comprehensive Cancer Center at Umiami study found that fires should be treated as what

A

Hazmat Scenes and decon should occur once members exit the hot zone

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96
Q

True or false, lead instructors must be aligned with FLFR AHA TC

A

TRUE

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97
Q

Why are the 3 main reasons the beach might be closed

A
  • Lightning within 10 miles and until 30 minutes after the lightning has passed
  • Shark sighting: 2 towers in each direction of shark movement, closed for 30 minutes
  • Water contamination
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98
Q

What is the primary goal of an active shooter/hostile event response

A

Ensure a joint command between FLFR & LEO&Communications element to minimize the risk and manage safety of all emergency personnel by providing a common IMS framework

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99
Q

What medications are in a mark 1 and duodote kit

A

2mg of Atropine

600mg of 2 Pam CL in solution

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100
Q

A reportable incident is:

A

One that does not involve serious physical or psychological injury, no CQI required

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101
Q

Second due battalion to a house fire can

A

Assume safety officer role

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102
Q

What temperature do Phase Change Liquid inserts of Cooling Vests maintain

A

58 degrees up to 3 hours

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103
Q

Back up marine team annual dive requirements

A

6 dives a year, 3 of 6 in limited visibility, 5 of 6 in open water

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104
Q

What time is morning wake up on shift and what uniform must be worn

A

By 0700 hours, Class D uniform when not in the bunk room

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105
Q

What form should be submitted or Radio trouble

A

Portable Radio Trouble Report Form FR0022

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106
Q

What are the three approved TCs

A

UMiami Medical Simulation Lab, Broward College, Palm Beach state college

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107
Q

What type of gloves are in the bio chem protective kit

A

4 MIL silver shield to be worn over exam gloves

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108
Q

What must a rider/observer sign before they’re allowed to ride

A

Permission to ride as an observer
Hold harmless agreement
Submit govt ID

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109
Q

How often are pumper service tests performed

A

Annually

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110
Q

When should sports drinks be made available in rehab

A

After the first hour

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111
Q

If abuse or neglect is suspected for a Safe Haven baby who should be contacted

A

Abuse hotline

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112
Q

If donning a bootie style tychem SL suit from the bio chem protective kit how should the suit be taped to the boot

A

Folded 3-4 inches over the boot and taped

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113
Q

8 hour personnel are allowed how many rest periods?

A

One 15 minute period per 1/2 shift, cannot be combined with lunch

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114
Q

HIPAA stands for:

A 
Health 
Insurance 
Portability 
Accountability 
Act
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115
Q

If RIT is needed/activated, IC shall immediately:

A

Strike at minimum an additional alarm assignment

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116
Q

Unusual occurrence on an incident is:

A

An event deemed to have an impact on patient care

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117
Q

For a training burn, a person cannot be:

A

Used as a victim

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118
Q

NFPA 921

A

Guide for fire and explosion investigation

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119
Q

No unit shall respond directly to the ASHER incident without proceeding through where

A

Staging

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120
Q

How long does the opti-com control a light for

A

6 seconds after the vehicle enters the intersection

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121
Q

How many strips of tape should be used for sealing the tychem SL suit to a mask

A

3

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122
Q

How often are the batteries charged on the Bullard QTX thermal imaging camera

A

After each use or once a week

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123
Q

What is the smallest timber used for a trench rescue op

A

4”x6”

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124
Q

What are the first due engine officer´s tools and responsibility on a house fire

A

6 foot hook/TIC

Size up, IC, 360

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125
Q

Station 53 must notify support if the inventory of absorbent bags falls below what level

A

15 bags

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126
Q

How often must yard maintenance and cleaning of surrounding station area be done

A

Daily

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127
Q

IC shall assign a chief officer as _____ to continue mitigation efforts while RIT operation in RIT Operations

A

Operations Sector Chief

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128
Q

Meds should be stored at what temperature

A

Between 55-88 degrees

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129
Q

If experiencing MDT issues what should be done

A

Log out of I-mobile and reboot

Call control comms inc and give PC #

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130
Q

What is the second level of the emergency personnel recall

A

The personnel that worked the previous shift

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131
Q

No station shall be used for a _____ ______ for hazardous materials

A

Storage Site

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132
Q

1st arrival rescue to a house fire assist the 1st arrival engine UNLESS

A

Immediate medical care is needed

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133
Q

For a training burn, manikins cannot be dressed in:

A

Bunker gear

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134
Q

When does command decide if rescue is going to be fire attack or search

A

Once initial line is placed into operation

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135
Q

What is a “standoff area” and how far is it

A

FLPD Hot Zone for EOD response

300 feet unless otherwise stated by IC

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136
Q

Extreme caution should be taken when determining if “go” is the action for a water rescue especially when _______

A

Lateral Currents are present

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137
Q

What railroad authorities might need to be notified for a vehicle on the train tracks

A

Bright line, FEC, CSX

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138
Q

When should food be supplied in rehab or consideration of calling broward county canteen truck

A

When the incident is 3 hours long

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139
Q

Upon arrival to the fire floor of a high rise fire what must the first engine company officer advise over the radio

A

Update conditions and advise which stairwell will be used for attack vs evac

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140
Q

What is the max temperature to apply the choke when starting the mule 2510

A

95 degrees outside

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141
Q

If the “2-out” firefighters need to enter the structure to rescue the “2-in” firefighters the company officer must what

A

Notify firecom of the intent

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142
Q

What FIRE RMS incident type and code is used for single unit fire alarms

A

7005= single unit alarm

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143
Q

What is the max speed in an emergency vehicle

A

Posted speed limit

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144
Q

If it is necessary for the EN company to assist with the walk through (pulling fire alarms etc) what must be done

A

Notify BC for approval

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145
Q

What must be done or a station tour if a call comes in during

A

Everyone outside and accounted for before moving the vehicle

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146
Q

SEMS stands for

A

Scott Electronic management system

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147
Q

What is the rescue to trapped/missing/injured FFs ratio

A

One rescue for each trapped/missing/injured FF

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148
Q

How much time per shift should be entered into target solutions for officer/company meetings

A

1.5 hours in part structural fire related

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149
Q

What is phase 1 medic sign off

A

EMS training before shift assignment

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150
Q

After the first re-inspection how much time does a owner have to fix a code violation

A

2 weeks

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151
Q

Can patients be medically cleared by EMS personnel while in police custody

A

No

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152
Q

When was the Health Insurance portability and accountability act passed

A

1996

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153
Q

When was the Safe Haven Law passed

A

2000, house bill 1901

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154
Q

To prevent identify theft, if you receive suspicious documents when checking IDs who should you report to

A

BC of EMS

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155
Q

Once RIT is activated what is declared over there radio

A

Emergency traffic only

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156
Q

What size should margins be for SOPs?

A

0.75 inches on all sides

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157
Q

What is the max span of control

A

5 elements

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158
Q

Once served by a process server for non-state attorney subpoenas, who should the employee send it to?

A

Office manager and EMS administrative aid

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159
Q

What is a high rise fire

A

Greater than 50 feet, generally 6 stories or taller

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160
Q

Who is responsible for format and content of the Probies performance training program

A

Training bureau

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161
Q

Who is responsible for determining the level of protection required to treat and transport pts from hazmat scenes

A

Hazmat Team

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162
Q

Always enter and exit rehab as a ______

A

Crew

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163
Q

What is a commercial structure

A

Generally 1-2 story structures designed mainly for retail/public assembly

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164
Q

Who gathers intel and notifies firecom to initiate the mayday protocol

A

IC

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165
Q

What is the max station inventory for absorbent

A

3

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166
Q

If operating in an IDLH atmosphere in the buddy system always maintain what

A

Voice OR visual contact

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167
Q

What is the preferred command structure for a RIT operation

A

AC as IC, 1st arriving BC as operations, 2nd arriving BC as safety

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168
Q

If a fire investigator is on scene while a major incident is occurring they will be deemed:

A

Fire Investigations Section and acknowledge all PARS

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169
Q

What level of O2 is considered low for confined space rescue

A

19.5%

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170
Q

What must IC always assume if a firefighter cannot be found during a PAR

A

MAYDAY scenario with missing firefighter lost in the building until accounted for

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171
Q

What is a CBRN event

A

Chemical, Biological, Radiological, and/or nuclear

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172
Q

When are roof openings made for training burns?

A

During room/building prep not actual fire

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173
Q

What is a training facility

A

A training ground approved by insurance services office (ISO) that when utilized in H.O.T. Satisfies ISO criteria

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174
Q

Second re-inspection of code violation refers remaining violations to who

A

A special magistrate or code enforcement

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175
Q

Where should all responding units with the exception of T53 stage for incidents at the executive airport

A

On the rear apron of ST53

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176
Q

How far should the aerial be kept from power lines

A

10 feet

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177
Q

What O2 and CO levels should be alerted in rehab

A

02 sat less than 95%, CO greater than 10%

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178
Q

What is the first due engine assignment for a highrise fire

A

Attack

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179
Q

What is the call profile for a residential house fire

A 
3 engines 
2 rescues
1 ladder
2 battalions
Squad
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180
Q

What is the chaplain’s call sign

A

Chaplain 2

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181
Q

What is the safety factor desired for rope rescue

A

15:1 with double rope techniques and multiple anchors

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182
Q

Who should finalize the 360 on a commercial fire

A

1st arriving battalion chief

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183
Q

How often should a lost or trapped firefighter activate their PASS alarm

A

Intermittently 10-20 seconds

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184
Q

1st due battalion on a house fire can do

A

Finish 360
Assume command
Accountability

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185
Q

Who can revoke the rider/observer permission to ride along

A

Assistant Chief or Battalion Chief

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186
Q

Once suits are used from bio chem protective kit who should they be discarded to

A

Hazmat team

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187
Q

When must a captain complete a probationary firefighter daily evaluation form

A

By 0730 of that shift

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188
Q

How often should upgrades do a tactical survey

A

Every shift that they are upgraded

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189
Q

What receives the highest priority from Fire Com on an incident

A

Mayday call

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190
Q

What positions on a live fire can be a non instructor

A

RIT, Rehab, DE

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191
Q

What form should be submitted for station repairs

A

Work Authorization Repairs form FR0008

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192
Q

What are additional resources that can be dispatched for a marine call

A

BSO Air 85, Ocean Rescue, FWC, FLPD Marine, Coast Guard on 22A

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193
Q

What is the desired student to LFTI ratio for live fire burns

A

5:1

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194
Q

Who decides when a beach should be closed due to water quality

A

Fort Lauderdale Management Staff

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195
Q

Lost gear is replaced:

A

At the individual’s expense

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196
Q

When are all station and apparatus red bins disinfected

A

1st tuesday of each month

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197
Q

6 reasons to call out a fire investigator for explosions

A
  • Pyrotechnic/firework/sparkler caused injury to any person or used to harm the public
  • Pyrotechnic ignited inside a structure without fire marshal approval
  • commercial type fireworks involved in a fire/injury
  • evidence of homemade
  • water heater/boiler/pressure vessel exploded causing injury or significant structural damage
  • any incident where injury occurred and investigation feels warranted
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198
Q

Who must give permission to utilize foam on a training evolution

A

District BC

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199
Q

Florida DOT is responsible for spills on what roadways in its jurisdiction

A

I95, I595, Florida turnpike, and numerous state roads

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200
Q

What year were the escape packs purchased and maintained

A

2016

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201
Q

What is the second due ladder assignment for a highrise fire

A

Search/aerial ops

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202
Q

What color copy of the fire watch release form is given to the person taking responsibility

A

Yellow

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203
Q

Upon determination of an elevated victim rescue who should be dispatched

A

TRT and the nearest aerial

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204
Q

When should full PPE be utilized

A 
Alarm indicative of fire 
Potential fire
Explosion 
Potential explosion 
Hazmat 
Anyone in the area of power tools, hydraulic tools or forcible entry tools
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205
Q

Surface support per rescue swimmers ratio

A

1 support per 2 swimmers

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206
Q

Efforts should be made to limit training to what duration

A

4 hours

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207
Q

FLFR plays what role at an ASHER event

A

Support role

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208
Q

When are rescue ops suspended and crews withdrawn on Radiation calls

A

If 50 mR/hr or greater

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209
Q

Who should be notified and what paperwork filled out for lost controlled substance keys

A

District BC

ERR

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210
Q

Is an FLPD officer required to accompany a patient that has been tased

A

YES

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211
Q

If a hazardous condition represents a threat to life and property:

A

Notify the on-call fire investigator

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212
Q

Where should the first arriving ladder be positioned

A

In front of the vessel for aerial use with extinguishment if needed

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213
Q

Who do you send a standby subpoena and witness information letter to

A

EMS administrative aid

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214
Q

When is a Program Appraisal report done

A

Every January by the bureau and specialty coordinator

215
Q

Who shall the fire investigator contact for buildings that have sustained structural damage

A

City´s building official

216
Q

How far out should units go arrival for EOD responses

A

1 1/2 miles out

217
Q

How should the initial MRU be parked for an explosive ordinance disposal call

A

Parked facing the nearest exit with nothing but a backboard on the stretcher

218
Q

What is the first due ladder assignment for a highrise fire

A

Forcible entry/searches

219
Q

If in doubt:

A

Rip it out

220
Q

Critical incident stress management is activated by

A

Through the COC by the Assistant Chief

221
Q

When is city of Fort Lauderdale responsible for pick up and disposal of hazardous spills

A

Within city limits if responsible party cannot be located

222
Q

When does Pre-Alert begin to sound on an SCBA

A

After 20 seconds of no movement

223
Q

Who should you report exposure/injury to while working a special event

A

The on duty BC

224
Q

What are SOPs

A

Procedural guidelines for personnel to follow

225
Q

Why do you fill one red bin at a time

A

Dept is charged by the box

226
Q

Station 53 has a max inventory of how many bags of absorbent

A

70 bags

227
Q

When does a mother claiming safe haven for her baby no longer remain anonymous

A

When child abuse/neglect is suspected

228
Q

Who approves an observer/rider on an apparatus

A

Deputy Fire Chief

229
Q

Where should the apparatus be positioned for aircraft incidents

A

Uphill and upwind

230
Q

Primary and secondary egress points _______ ________ be used for room ventilation on training burns

A

MUST NOT

231
Q

What is needed and what should done if logistics is accessed for something after hours

A

Door key and alarm code

Make an entry in the reception log book the item taken and email logistics

232
Q

How should the apparatus be spotted for a vehicle extrication or fire

A

To block/divert traffic

233
Q

How many tactical surveys should OPs captains do

A

Minimum of 5 per month

234
Q

Who is responsible for keeping brochures in stoke on FLFR vehicles

A

Company officer and DE

235
Q

What is the max response time for a fire investigator

A

45 minutes

236
Q

Who gets notified if the RMG Network box & digital signage tv in the stations is inoperable

A

BC of special projects

237
Q

If water is already secured upon the arrival of the second due engine to a house fire what should they do

A

Stretch back up line, if difficulty encountered with initial line assist with line stretch or pt removal

238
Q

What should be avoided with an interior aircraft fire and why

A

Discharging wetting agents on the fuselage, can create a hazardous environment inside.

239
Q

What interval must entry and rescue personnel be rotated for confined space

A

20 minute intervals

240
Q

What is the fourth due engine assignment for a commercial structure

A

RIT/Extension/Exposure

241
Q

What is the preferred drink in rehab

A

Water

242
Q

Images can ____ the scene _____ than _______

A

Portray
Better
Words

243
Q

What is on the rope ID tag

A 
Rope number
Date of in service
Diameter 
Length 
FLFR
244
Q

What is the fourth due engine assignment for a multiple occupancy fire

A

RIT/extension/exposure

245
Q

What class uniform will companies wear for public education events unless otherwise told

A

Class C (long/short sleeve dress shirt)

246
Q

Where is most dangerous during a response in an emergency vehicle

A

Intersections

247
Q

If a controlled substance seal is broken but the drug not used:

A

Exchange with BC who sends it to EMS bureau

248
Q

If donning an ankle style tychem suit how should the leg be set

A

Elastic cuff pulled over boot at least 6-8 inches below the top of the boot and taped

249
Q

What hours must FLFR ops personnel monitor the radio

A

07:00-22:00

250
Q

RGS should advise command of what when deploying the RIT team

A

Specific entrance and exit of the structure being used

251
Q

To be accepted at legal proceedings images must be

A

Relevant

A true and accurate representation

252
Q

What must be done if a hazard is unable to be locked out, tagged out

A

Post FLFR representative to monitor

253
Q

Who must be requested for any possible terrorism acts involving explosion

A

Bomb squad, hazmat team, fire investigator

254
Q

What brochures shall be on every city vehicle

A

FLFR brochure
“After the Fire” brochure
“Baby sleep safe”

255
Q

What color copy of the fire watch release form is forwarded to fire prevention

A

White

256
Q

Will an auto injector penetrate bunker gear

A

No

257
Q

Where must a youth wait at the station when claiming a “safe place”

A

Designated quiet area

258
Q

What vitals should be watched out for in rehab

A

Systolic BP greater than 160, diastolic greater than 100, HR greater than 140

259
Q

Who must be notified if a youth is requesting a safe place at the station

A

Dispatch and Chief Officer, request an incident number

260
Q

What is a passing score on a Probies written exam

A

80%

261
Q

8 reasons to call out a fire investigator for a vehicle fire

A 
Juveniles involved
Civilian/FF injury or death
PD requests investigation
Suspected incendiary fire
Vehicle loss of greater than 15,000
Significant Media event
After the fact fire report/delayed call
262
Q

All companies on any fire must have with them

A

Full PPE, carrying flashlights and SCBAs when in IDLH

263
Q

Who takes the Bomb squad vitals before and after entry

A

Hazmat MRU

264
Q

What is the third due engine assignment on a highrise fire

A

Water/FDC/Fire Pump/Elevator Control

265
Q

What is the assignment profile for a house fire

A

3 en, 1 LD, 2 Re, 2BC, 1 SQ

266
Q

What should be done if an SCBA bottle label is unreadable or separated from the bottle

A

De-pressurize and send to logistics

267
Q

Department shall follow what guidelines when dealing with controlled substances

A

Drug abuse prevention and control guidelines

268
Q

Before repaired hose can be placed in service it must be:

A

Tested

269
Q

What is the call profile for a multiple dwelling occupancy fire

A

4 en, 2 ladder, 2 re, 2 BC, 1 sq

270
Q

Should a scene be reconstructed without the inspector present

A

No

271
Q

Who should be dispatched if a victim needs to be removed through the top of a stalled elevator car

A

TRT Response

272
Q

What is an Asher Event

A

Active Shooter/Hostile Event

273
Q

What are the dates that station want lists should be submitted

A

Batt 2 = 1st of the month
Batt 13 = 7th of the month
Batt 16/35 = 15th of the month

274
Q

Upon arrival of the third due engine on a house fire, if the water is secured and the back up line stretched what should their assignment be

A

RIT

275
Q

Class 2 harness stats

A

Tensile strength of 5,000 pounds, made of nylon

276
Q

Who oversees the DE performance check-off program

A

Battalion Chief of Fire Training

277
Q

When must you notify the TCC via email that an outside AHA class is going to be taken

A

10 days prior

278
Q

Who takes care of medication disposal

A

Outside vendor

279
Q

What size gouges require an SCBA bottle to be taken out of service and sent to logistics

A

1/8” deep and 1” long

280
Q

What is the second due ladder assignment for a commercial structure

A

Assigned by IC /roof ops

281
Q

All record retention at an ASHER event crucial, and all information is deemed

A

Public Safety Sensitive

282
Q

What is the Ladder DE’s assignment on a house fire

A

Secure utilities
Locate fire
Outside vent(coordinate with attack engine)

283
Q

What year did the Sylvester comprehensive cancer center at Umiami launch the FF cancer initiative

A

2015

284
Q

What is an airport alert 3

A

Aircraft involved in an accident/accident is imminent, parked aircraft endangered by fire/explosion, aircraft involved in collision. Crews respond immediately to the scene

285
Q

NFPA 1002

A

Fire Apparatus driver/operator professional qualifications

286
Q

How often are SCBA cylinders hydrostatically tested and inspected

A

Everything 5 years with a 15 year service life

287
Q

What is the desired hose deployment for a EOD response/assist

A

Catch nearest hydrant outside of the standoff area, 2 1/2” supply to gated wye with 100´ of 1 3/4” highrise pack with fog nozzle staffed to protect EOD tech

288
Q

NFPA standard for ground ladders

A

1932

289
Q

When should a station notify the squad driver that they have 2 or more DOT cyclinders at or below 4000 psi

A

Prior to 10:00

290
Q

Who is the chairperson for the health and safety committee

A

Healthy and Safety Officer

291
Q

What is the third due engine assignment for a commercial fire

A

Back up

292
Q

If a member has gone through 2 bottles or 40 minutes of intense work how long must they rehab for

A

20 minutes minimum

293
Q

What color bag is the bio/chem protective kit in

A

Black bag with white seal

294
Q

What high rise pack will be used by primary engine

A

Four 50 foot sections of 2 1/2” hose

295
Q

When is the annual mask, regulator and SCBA pack testing

A

October

296
Q

Why must the transport officer contact the appropriate medical facilities

A

To find out the number of patients they are capable of handling

297
Q

What is done by the SEMS unit controller if no radio contact is able to be made from an individual in distress

A

Monitor individual in distress and air consumption

298
Q

OSHA standard is what stage of fire does not require the 2in/2out rule

A

Incipient Stage

299
Q

How long are AHA cards good for

A

2 years through the month issued

300
Q

What transports the medical carts from location to location

A

Crowley utility trailer

301
Q

What is the initial response profile for a EOD disposal

A

Hazmat 88, R53, closest engine, closest rescue, District BC, SQ29

302
Q

What are the truck assignments for a house fire

A 
1st engine- attack 
2nd engine-water/backup
3rd Engine- backup/RIT
1st Ladder-Search/OV/VES/utilities 
1st Rescue-assist 1st engine
2nd rescue-assigned by IC 
1st BC-360/IC/Accountability 
2nd BC- Safety 
Squad- Rehab/air 
Addition Rescue-rehab
303
Q

When is hose inspection and testing done

A

October through December annually

304
Q

What form should be submitted for apparatus repairs

A

Apparatus Maintenance Record Form FR0011

305
Q

What is the DE role for standpipe testing

A

Put out cones, make the connection, slowly increasing pressure until target psi reached, maintain until notified otherwise

306
Q

Who is responsible for procurement of evidence post incident

A

Fire investigator

307
Q

Types of surface rescue

A

Reach, throw, row, go

308
Q

What is the first due ladder assignment for a highrise fire

A

Search/Overhaul

309
Q

What are the exceptions to the 2in/2out rule

A

Fire not in the incipient stage
Imminent or probably life threatening situation where immediate action may prevent loss of life or limb
1 or more person may be inside the structure

310
Q

What is the third due engine assignment for a multiple occupancy fire

A

Backup

311
Q

If remaining on scene of an accident will cause further harm, what must be done

A

Leave 1 uniformed personnel on scene with a radio

312
Q

What is the assignment for the second due engine on a house fire

A

Water supply/backup

313
Q

Who gets precedence from an opti-com

A

No one, its a first come first served

314
Q

What is required of the IC immediately upon receipt for a mayday

A

A PAR

315
Q

Who is the second and third options for RIT group supervisor if there is no safety officer

A

BC on scene or last option is a company officer

316
Q

what is an RGS

A

RIT Group Supervisor

317
Q

What is the max speed the crosley utility trailer can be towed with the cart windshield NOT removed

A

45 MPH

318
Q

What does an orange steamer cap and a lock out tag on a hydrant mean

A

The hydrant is out of service

319
Q

How long should cooling vests be placed in refrigerator, freezer, or ice water if hazmat truck fridge is down

A

20-30 minutes

320
Q

When does the FL Health and Environmental group test the ocean water quality

A

Every Monday

321
Q

8 reasons to call a fire investigator for a structure fire

A

Any fire where a juvenile involved
Civilian and/or FF injury/Death
Law Enforcement requests/might request fire investigation
Any incendiary device fire
BC determines operations personnel cannot determine cause/origin
Media Event
Structural Fire damage greater than 15,000
Delayed response fire for an after the fact fire report

322
Q

When is an alarm service fee assessed to a building

A

When the dept responds more than 1 time in a 12 month period

323
Q

Are helmet shields sufficient eye protection for an extrication

A

No

324
Q

The response for a highrise fire is not altered until:

A

Officer confirms conditions on reported fire floor

325
Q

NFPA 1410

A

Initial emergency scene operations

326
Q

What qualifies as a multiple dwelling occupancy

A

Under 5 stories
(Garden Style Apt, duplex, triplex, motel/hotel)
Structures with more than 2 units

327
Q

A sentinel event is

A

One that involves serious injury or death, report immediately to BC

328
Q

What is an Airport Alert 1

A

Aircraft with minor difficulty, equipment and crews standby at fire station

329
Q

Who is responsible for the format, content, or testing process for paramedic training

A

Training bureau and EMS bureau

330
Q

What radio channel is Battalion 2

A

Gulf

331
Q

Removal of an SCBA is done with the approval of whom

A

Company officer discretion with concurrence of IC

332
Q

What is the staffing for the Casualty Collection Point at an ASHER event

A

1 Suppression and 1 MRU

333
Q

How long does a rad alert 50 take to calibrate after powering on

A

1 minute to show a reading

334
Q

If involved in an accident in an emergency vehicle:

A

Notify BC via Firecom, dispatch another unit to the call, stay on scene

335
Q

Who should be contacted if you need to access logistics after hours

A

On duty assistant chief

336
Q

Tensile strength of carabiners and 8-plates

A

10,000 pounds

337
Q

Fire inspector may give up to ____ days for tenant owner comply with violation

A

90

338
Q

Who does the responsibility rest with when deviating from the spotter protocols backing up

A

Company officer or crew chief

339
Q

What steps must a company officer do when a hazard is identified

A

Complete form AA-248
Remove bottom portion to forward to fire prevention
Attach tag to hazard
Call proper utility/authority to shut down power/gas

340
Q

How long are medical error reports tracked

A

2 years

341
Q

Who makes the decision to activate an emergency recall of personnel

A

The fire chief, Assistant Chief initiates the process

342
Q

When are SCBAs cleaned

A

First Tuesday of every month and after each fire ground use

343
Q

When should the squad have all requested low bottles filled and replaced by

A

20:00

344
Q

Can you email a card that was acquired from an outside agency

A

No, must be in person

345
Q

Who establishes rehab

A

IC/ Training Coordinator

346
Q

What is the first due ladder assignment for a commercial fire

A

Forcible entry/searches

347
Q

When are aerials and ground ladders tested

A

Annually in February

348
Q

Where are 2 locations to secure power to an individual elevator

A

Pit switch in hoistway

Elevator inspection station switch on top of the car

349
Q

How far apart must ladders be placed for trench rescue

A

No more than 25 feet apart

350
Q

Tensile strength of 1” tubular webbing

A

4,000 pounds

351
Q

Can FLFR transport hazardous waste/materials

A

NO

352
Q

Access to hot zone for non hazmat team personnel is only for

A

Rescue ops for viable patients

353
Q

Who is the first choice for a RIT Group supervisor

A

Safety Officer due to already being in bunker gear

354
Q

What is the fire boat´s primary responsibility on a marine vessel fire?

A

Secure the vessel if free floating in a waterway, extinguish and rescue

355
Q

How long do you hold an autoinjector in place against the leg

A

10 seconds

356
Q

What class uniform are personnel to be wearing for station tours

A

Class C (short/long sleeve dress shirt)

357
Q

Who’s responsibility is it to assign a RIT when members are operating at a hazardous emergency scene

A

IC

358
Q

What other IC/Support units are dispatched or can be dispatched for a fire

A

Squad, Additional rescues, 2 battalions, admin page

359
Q

Handline stats

A

Yellow 7/16” static kernmantle minimum of 100 feet in length

360
Q

What is the first due engine assignment on a highrise fire

A

Attack/command/Recon

361
Q

Who should completed ideas be submitted to for the suggestion and progression program

A

Suggestions and progressions program manager (chief in professional standards bureau) via chain of command

362
Q

Who must approve any deviation from the Police Custody policy

A

On duty assistant chief

363
Q

What is the second due engine assignment for a commercial fire

A

Water supply/back up/ sprinkler

364
Q

What is the sole reference point for all AHA matters

A

Program Administration Manual (PAM), must stay in training office

365
Q

What size threaded adapter is in the bio chem protective kit

A

40mm threaded

366
Q

What is an Airport Alert 2

A

Aircraft approaching the airport in major difficulty, crews to standby positions, back up units standby on vehicle ramp to rear of 53

367
Q

What is the climbing angle of the aerial apparatus

A

75 degrees

368
Q

When does a rad alert 50 sound

A

When radiation in a particular area exceeds 1.00 mR/hr

369
Q

With radio communications, who gives their ID first

A

Sender gives ID and calls receiver by theirs

370
Q

NFPA 1006

A

Standard for rescue technician professional qualifications

371
Q

RIT command and IC will maintain _____ to _____ ______during RIT operations

A

Face to face contact

372
Q

What is the first due ladder assignment for a multiple occupancy fire

A

Search/OV/VES

373
Q

Company officer shall seek ____ from a _____ to summon an investigator

A

Approval

BC

374
Q

What is the safety factor for life safety rope

A

15:1, 600 pounds or two people

375
Q

If an escape pack is damaged who’s discretion is it to keep truck in service

A

Battalion Chief

376
Q

If 2 or more SEMS laptops are used at the same time

A

Keep them together

377
Q

NFPA 1403

A

Standard for live fire training evolutions

378
Q

All Hazards identified by a company officer and hazard tagged are rendered

A

Unusable until repairs, replacement, or removal is completed by technician/utility

379
Q

PIO should be activated at an ASHER event and establish what

A

Joint Information Center

380
Q

What is the third due engine assignment for a highrise fire

A

Water/FDC/Fire Pump/Elevator

381
Q

What should be considered when training with an acquired structure

A

Objectives, participants, taxing of in-service units

382
Q

Assume ____ unless definitively ruled out

A

C-Spine

383
Q

When is rope inspected

A

February and august and after each use

384
Q

Standard of care, use, inspection, service testing and replacement of fire hose, couplings, nozzles, and fire hose appliance

A

NFPA 1962

385
Q

What is the call profile for a commercial fire

A 
4 engines
2 ladders
2 rescues
2 BC
1 squad
386
Q

Where should PPE be donned

A

Where practical donned prior to boarding the apparatus, if crews out of quarters don full PPE upon arrival

387
Q

What radio channel is Battalion 16

A

India

388
Q

What radio channel is Battalion 13

A

Hotel

389
Q

Who secures power to an elevator during rescue

A

the DE

390
Q

At what interval must oxygen readings be for confined space rescue

A

Five minute intervals

391
Q

Frontline Marine team annual dive requirements

A

12 dives a year, 6 of 12 in limited visibility

392
Q

What info should be obtained and relayed to firecom for a hazardous spill

A 
Exact location and if in waterway
Product identification
Approx. amount 
Any environmental impacts 
Defensive/offensive actions taken
393
Q

If the employee’s HR in rehab is not below ______ after ______ then transport should be considered

A

100bpm, 20 minutes

394
Q

How long is a cycle of energy on a taser

A

5 seconds

395
Q

When are rules and regs reviewed

A

Every 3 years in January

396
Q

When will the on duty assistance chief rotate trucks to clean gear

A

One truck every Thursday

397
Q

Passing other emergency vehicles is:

A

Dangerous, unnecessary and prohibited

398
Q

Can you loan out the big easy

A

No

399
Q

What is the most valuable asset when determining the cause of a fire or for salvage/overhaul ops

A

The owner/manager of property

400
Q

All controlled substance transactions require how many signatures

A

2

401
Q

Should the big easy be used on a door with a side impact air bag

A

No

402
Q

Who’s responsible for determining the stage of the fire and the IDLH risk

A

initial incident commander (first arriving company officer)

403
Q

When should a station want list be started and why

A

3 days prior to due date so the next 2 shifts can review it

404
Q

After the 1st blood draw who should be checked with on unit status for the potential second blood draw

A

District BC

405
Q

Who is responsible for monitoring Probies overall shift reports

A

Shift assistant chief

406
Q

How far away from a hot fill should T53 park

A

100 feet upwind on the left side forward from main exit

407
Q

What is the call profile for a commercial structure

A

4 en, 2 ladder, 2BC, 2 rescue, 1 sq

408
Q

Filters designed to remove harmful gases, vapors, and solid particles will not protect the wearer against:

A

Oxygen deficient atmospheres

409
Q

Who can function as Instructor in Charge or Safety Officer for live fire training scenarios

A

Live Fire training instructor

410
Q

What is NFPA 1561

A

Standard on Emergency Services Incident Management System

411
Q

Entry is limited how far below grade for confined space

A

25 feet

412
Q

What is the third due engine assignment for a house fire

A

Back up/ RIT

413
Q

In what direction are sides of a structure identified

A

Clockwise fashion

414
Q

Where should the casualty collection point for an MCI/ASHER event be

A

Warm zone

415
Q

What angle do you hold an autoinjector at

A

90 degree

416
Q

What should be an early consideration on a high rise fire

A

Upgrading to a 2nd alarm

417
Q

Who is appropriate paperwork for hazards forwarded to by the company officer

A

Fire Marshal

418
Q

What must be done for on the fire safety and emergency training trailer before turning on and plugging in the generator

A

Stabilizers down, breakers off

419
Q

What information is important for incoming hazmat unit on underground natural gas/propane gas emergencies

A

Size of the line
Polypropylene or steel
Wind direction

420
Q

When can a RIT crew be used to provide relief for operating companies

A

When the IDLH is mitigated

421
Q

Candidates must have what to qualify for DE Performance Check Off program

A

2 or more years at FLFR, completed the DE sing-offs for current list, successfully passed written and practical test for DE.

422
Q

Heat at what temperature degrades rope

A

Greater than 400 degrees

423
Q

How long do members entering rehab for the first time need to remain

A

10 minutes minimum

424
Q

What is the max speed to switch the differential on the mule 2510

A

5 mph

425
Q

When staffing is available on a vehicle extrication what should be deployed

A

1 3/4” hose with foam capabilities

426
Q

How long are station tours designed to last

A

1 hour

427
Q

Daily in-service training to be entered into target solutions are what

A

Officer/company meetings
FF Fitness
Wednesdays weekly apparatus maintenance

428
Q

When does an assistant chief assume command of a house fire

A

If 2nd alarm or higher

429
Q

When it comes to unit assignment, what takes priority for the second due engine on a high rise fire

A

Ensuring the initial attack line is established

430
Q

What are the 6 required training categories to be entered into target solutions for annual ISO hours

A 
Facility training 
Company training
Hazmat training
Officer training
Lt/captain training 
Driver/operator
431
Q

What is required to be completed for a blood draw

A

PCR w/ EKG and 2 vitals

432
Q

What are the tire pressures for the mule 2510

A

12 psi front

20 psi rear

433
Q

What is phase 3 medic sign off process

A

Testing phase

434
Q

Who should be notified if pollutants enter sewers, catch basins, and storm drains

A

Utilities dept

435
Q

What is the minimum response for an ASHER event at a single/duplex family dwelling

A

District BC, 2 EN, 2 MRUs

436
Q

What are truck assignments for a multi-dwelling occupancy fire

A 
1st Engine- Attack/standpipe                
2nd Engine- Water Supply/Backup 
3rd Engine- Backup 
4th Engine- RIT/Extension/Exposure 
1st Ladder- Search/OV/VES/Utilities 
2nd Ladder- Assigned by command 
1st Rescue-Assist first engine 
2nd rescue-assigned by command 
1st BC-360/IC/Accountability 
2nd BC-Safety
437
Q

What should be staged next to the water for a marine vessel fire and why

A

Longer fire hook in case a FF falls into the water

438
Q

When are meds considered to have been exposed to extreme temperatures

A

When outside of 55-88 for 24 hours

439
Q

What is the second due ladder assignment for a highrise fire

A

Assigned by IC

440
Q

Who should be notified if a significant amount of foam enters a waterway

A

National Response Center

EPA Emergency Response Division

441
Q

Where should hose monster on the roof for standpipe testing

A

So it will not damage roof projections and elevator shafts, building engineer and maintenance person approves positioning before flowing water

442
Q

What is the max speed on a medical cart (mule 2510)

A

25 mph

443
Q

Who’s responsibility is it to know the load capabilities of an aerial apparatus

A

Operator

444
Q

What should be done if a rad alert sounds

A

Perform a circular pattern around the the site to identify the hot zone

445
Q

When is it acceptable for a patient to be transported in the police vehicle

A

Under no circumstances

446
Q

How do you clear the old data from an MDT and when should you

A

Power down and back on

Every shift change

447
Q

All custody changes for controlled substances must be ___ ___ ___ and documented regardless of ________.

A

Face to face, Length

448
Q

What is the second due ladder assignment for a multiple occupancy fire

A

Assigned by IC

449
Q

Can fire apparatus and equipment be used for crowd control/ disbursement?

A

No

450
Q

How soon must on call fire inspector respond to a page/call

A

Within 5 minutes

451
Q

If possible determine responsible party for hazardous spills for:

A

Removal and billing

452
Q

When defective hose is found:

A

Mark it with a rag or magic marker noting the location of the defect

453
Q

NFPA 1670

A

Ops and training for technical search and rescue incidents

454
Q

IC can activate the SEMS evac alert by what increments

A

Individual, company, or all units

455
Q

Who decides if a tenured employee can retest or must restart the program

A

Fire chief

456
Q

What are the priorities of the back up line

A

1st priority: protect initial attack line

2nd priority: protect interior stairwell

457
Q

What is salvage

A

Further reduces fire, water and smoke damage during and after fires

458
Q

What is the ladder assignment for a house fire

A

Search/Outside Vent/ VES / Utilities

459
Q

What is phase 2 medic training

A

Field ride times with FTO

460
Q

Do not drop hardware from a height of what

A

5 feet

461
Q

Safety of the incident rests with

A

Incident Commander

462
Q

What is the initial Marine Response for land based ops

A

E49, R49, closest Engine/Ladder and rescue, squad, 2 BC, additional rescue, FB

463
Q

Yield to emergency vehicles coming from:

A

The right

464
Q

Company officers shall make daily entries into target solutions for:

A

Themselves and their station

465
Q

Make sure blocking is adequate ______ & ______ when used to supplement outrigger lift capability

A

Size and strength

466
Q

What is the max free play on the mule 2510 steering wheel

A

1/2” to 1”

467
Q

How soon should crews return to quarters and shower after a fire

A

Within the hour

468
Q

All ventilation should be coordinated with who

A

Interior crews and IC

469
Q

Who is designated infection control officer

A

Battalion Chief of EMS

470
Q

For growhouses and mass production facilities consdider dispatching

A

2 hazmat teams and EOD

471
Q

If signed up for a special detail and you have sickness, injury, late, or awol where should you report for appropriate action/coverage

A

Station 2

472
Q

What is imperative for the 1st due engine on a commercial fire

A

Size-up and command

473
Q

How many blood draws are typically needed and how far apart

A

2, one hour apart

474
Q

When an MCI is declared for an ASHER event what 4 positions need to be assigned

A

Ops section chief
Safety
Transport officer
Staging officer

475
Q

Minimum How many sections in an SOP?

A

Five: purpose, scope, responsibility, definitions, procedures

476
Q

If pavement/ground stability is in doubt:

A

Load spreader shoring

477
Q

What does a RIT group consist of

A

RIT Company, RIT Group Supervisor, Dedicated Rescue standing by

478
Q

What color is the life safety rope

A

Orange

479
Q

What is the potential punishment for failure to complete the FireRMS from a detail accurately

A

150 days of no working details

480
Q

What is the acceptable minimum pressure for an SCBA bottle

A

5500 psi

481
Q

When a pt is secured on a stair chair how many straps should be utilized minimum

A

2 straps across the body

482
Q

What class of uniform must be worn for funerals

A

Class A unless not issued, then Class B

483
Q

Where can a dry stretch be made to on a highrise fire

A

Floor below the fire

484
Q

What channel are units to go arrival on for EOD response

A

Fire Main then switch to simplex for on scene communication

485
Q

How many sides of a vehicle are there to size up

A

6 : front, back, sides, top and bottom

486
Q

What actions should be taken for first arriving engine company on an underground natural/propane gas emergency

A

Request gas company and hazmat, Deploy a 1 3/4”, only flow if gas needs redirection, do not fill hole

487
Q

When can the controls be left while the aerial is in the air

A

NEVER

488
Q

What color is the ball hitch and receiver for the crosley utility trailer color coded

A

Yellow and orange

489
Q

What is NFPA 1521

A

Standard for Fire Department Safety Officer

490
Q

What are the 4 methods of contacting a fire investigator

A

Pager
Cell
Home phone
Fire radio

491
Q

What is the age requirement for a “Safe Haven” baby

A

7 days old or younger

492
Q

If there are multiple casualty collection points (CCP) at an ASHER event IC should establish who

A

Division supervisors that correspond to geographical locations, and transportation group supervisors at each point

493
Q

What are the two types of “go” for surface rescue

A

Paddle board, landline shore assisted water rescue

494
Q

Mayday is used for what

A

To report missing, trapped or injured firefighters or firefighters in distress

495
Q

What is an HSO

A

Health Safety Officer

496
Q

What thickness is the Tychem SL Jump Suit

A

10.3 MIL

497
Q

What are the normal operating hours for fire logistics

A

0730-1630 Monday through Friday

498
Q

If more than 5 division supervisors are established in the NIMS system, what would be the next step to maintain span of control

A

Establish a Branch Director

499
Q

Instructors for a live fire can be assigned to:

A

IIC, Safety officer, LFTI (or adjunct), RIT (just not DE)

500
Q

When is the hazmat team dispatched for a fentanyl/carfentanyl incident

A

Large amounts of powdered opiod spread in vehicle or structure
PD has search warrants for large amounts and need help with collection
FLPD Sarg requests them

501
Q

All casualties at an ASHER event should be brought where

A

To the Casualty Collection Point (CCP)

502
Q

NFPA 1001

A

Standard for firefighter professional qualifications

503
Q

What is the second due engine assignment for a high rise fire

A

Attack

504
Q

What radio channel is Battalion 35

A

Juliette

505
Q

what form should be submitted for needed equipment repairs

A

Equipment Repairs Form FR0006, Red Tag

506
Q

What are the 5 categories of firefighter funeral

A

LODD
Death On-duty: not associated with an alarm
Death Off-Duty
Retired
Discretion of the Deputy Chief, up to 1 spar apparatus with honor guard

507
Q

What is overhaul

A

Searching for and extinguishing hidden or remaining fires, determining cause and recognizing/preserving evidence of arson for the fire investigator

508
Q

If a fire investigator is needed at the scene of a car fire who needs to approve the request

A

District battalion chief

509
Q

How late can a rider/observer be in the station and how old must they be

A

18 y/o

Not after 22:00

510
Q

Who coordinates attendance of multi-company drills

A

Operations division and battalion chiefs

511
Q

Where should clean hoods be acquired after a fire

A

From BC on scene

512
Q

Who must be notified for pollutants in the waterways

A

Coast Guard and EPA, also advise Fire Com to contact FLPD Marine Unit to investigate and contact appropriate parties

513
Q

What is WWW for a firefighter in trouble

A

Who are you
Where are you
What is wrong/needed

514
Q

Font and Spacing for SOPs

A

Times new Roman, 12 Point, 1.15 spacing

515
Q

What are mark 1 kits used for

A

Treatment of personnel exposed to nerve agents and/or organophosphates

516
Q

What is the company officer and ff role for standpipe testing

A

Assist fire prevention carrying equipment to the roof, attaching, and flow testing

517
Q

Where is RIT established on a highrise fire

A

2 floors below the fire floor

518
Q

What is the fourth due engine assignment for a highrise fire

A

RIT/Backup/floor above

519
Q

How long is the personal escape pack

A

50 feet

520
Q

THREAT acronym for active shooter/hostile event response is what

A 
Threat Suppression
Hemorrhage control 
Rapid 
Extrication
Assessment by medical providers
Transport to definitive care
521
Q

What is a TCC

A

Training center coordinator

522
Q

What is the preferred speed of the vehicle when backing up

A

Idle speed

523
Q

What is the call profile for a high rise fire

A 
4 engines 
2 ladders
2 rescues
2 BC
1 squad
524
Q

When should a SEMS laptop be utilized

A

A second alarm or greater and including hazmat and TRT calls

525
Q

What must initial crews insert for a trench rescue

A

Portable ladder at one end of the trench

526
Q

What are the most efficient reminders of what was seen at a fire

A

Images

527
Q

What are the truck assignments for a marine vessel fire

A 
1EN= attack/secure vessel
2EN= water/backup 
3EN= Backup/RIT 
1LD= search/aerial ops 
1st RE= assist first EN
2nd RE= medical
528
Q

What should SCBA masks be cleaned with

A

Clear ivory soap in a bucket

529
Q

Where are MDT docking station keys kept

A

With district battalion chiefs

530
Q

What is the 24 hr number for public services

A

954-828-8000

531
Q

What are the truck assignments for a commercial structure fire

A 
1st EN: attack
2nd EN: water/sprinkler/backup 
3rd EN: Backup 
4th EN: RIT/Extension/Exposure 
1st Ladder: Forcible Entry/searches 
2nd ladder: vent/roof 
1st rescue: assist 1st engine 
2nd rescue: assigned by IC 
1st BC: complete 360/IC/accountability 
2nd BC: safety
532
Q

Is FLFR permitted to conduct a “forced” or “court ordered” blood draw?

A

No

533
Q

NFPA 921

A

Guide for fire and explosion investigation

Captain Test (14 decks)

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