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Captain Test > Joint EMS > Flashcards

Joint EMS Flashcards

1
Q

When does the pt get taken to the OB facility

A

Over 20 weeks gestation

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2
Q

Where are the 4 heli landing zones on the Barrier Island

A

Zone 54: 3200 NE 3rd Ave: ST 54
Zone 13: Birch State Park
Zone 13A: Birch Road and Bayshore Drive
Zone 49: 551 South Ocean, Alexander Park

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3
Q

What distance should the tourniquet be from the wound

A

2 inches

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4
Q

Bradycardia is considered

A

HR under 60 bpm

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5
Q

When should burns be wet

A

Less than 20 percent 2nd degree or less than 5 percent of 3rd degree

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6
Q

Not dead until

A

Warm and dead

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7
Q

What is the most reliable indicator of serious injury

A

Mechanism

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8
Q

HP-CPR is

A

High Performance CPR

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9
Q

Treatment for jelly fish, man-o-war and anemone

A

Clean saltwater ONLY and vinegar

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10
Q

Non COPD pts should have a SpO2 of what

A

Greater than 94 percent

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11
Q

Lightning is what type of current

A

DC

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12
Q

Position for Child Birth

A

Left lateral recumbent

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13
Q

What position is the only allowed under restraint protocol

A

Supine

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14
Q

5 seconds off the chest is how long without cerebral perfusion

A

30 seconds

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15
Q

When do chemicals require soap for decon

A

Solubility greater than 1%

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16
Q

How many priorities are there for Medcom

A

4

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17
Q

What is a significant cause of hypotension and recurrence of arrest in post ROSC

A

Hyperventilation

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18
Q

How far should you remain from the helicopter LZ until the air rescue crew member accompanies you

A

100 feet

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19
Q

What is considered an unstable pt vitals

A

BP less than 90, GCS less than 13

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20
Q

RPM is

A

Rapid triage for MCIs:
Respiration
Perfusion
Mental Status

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21
Q

When is food needed at rehab

A

Incident is longer than 3 hours

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22
Q

How long is it safe to have a TQ on the limb

A

Up to 2 1/2 hours

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23
Q

What is considered unstable A-Fib

A

BP less than 90 with signs and symptoms

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24
Q

What are the basic required vital signs of any patient

A

BP
Pulse
RR
Pain/Severity

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25
Q

Hypothermic body temp is

A

Less than 95 degrees

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26
Q

Florida Marchman Act is

A

Baker Act but for alcohol and substance abuse

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27
Q

Status epilepticus is

A

2 or more successive seizures without conciousness

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28
Q

In Adult Airway protocol what SpO2 level should supplemental O2 used to maintain

A

Greater than 94%

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29
Q

Dose for an epi autoinjector

A

0.3mg of 1:1000

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30
Q

What is required of all patients with inadequate respiratory function

A

Continuous pulse oximetry

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31
Q

What is the goal of CISM

A

Assess, Educate, and intervene

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32
Q

What is the initial O2 treatment for HP-CPR

A

2 large BVM breaths then NC at 15 LPM

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33
Q

Level 3 MCI is

A

21 or more victims

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34
Q

CISM Team has a max response time of

A

2 hours from the request

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35
Q

What are the keys to success with cardiac arrest

A

Adequate compressions with early defibrillation

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36
Q

Minimum of how many rescue personnel for rehab

A

2

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37
Q

When should stinger/barbs of lion fish, urchin, starfish not be removed

A

If they’re in the thorax or abdomen

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38
Q

When IC deems rehab necessary who is responsible for management and coordination

A

1st available EMS unit

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39
Q

What is the CPR rate with HP-CPR

A

At least 110 compressions per minute with full chest recoil

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40
Q

What type of med is ASA

A

Platelet Aggregator Inhibitor

41
Q

Where should measuring the browselow bag begin

A

Red to Head

42
Q

Spinal Cord Protection protocol is

A 
N eurological Exam
S ignificant Mechanism 
A lertness
I ntoxication
D istracting injury 
S pinal Exam
43
Q

What exception is there to turning over a body to DLE

A

Hospice Care and/or Nursing facility

44
Q

Level 4 MCI is

A

100 plus victims

45
Q

A pediatric is defined as

A

Less than 12 OR less than 100 lbs/44kg

46
Q

Incapacitated persons law is

A

Implied consent vs informed consent

47
Q

Small group diffusing from a call should be within

A

12 hours

48
Q

What color is a DNRO

A

Yellow Paper

49
Q

What is the max time allowed to load a patient onto the Lucas device

A

5 seconds

50
Q

What constitutes an MCI

A

When the number of patients/victims exceeds the capabilities of the 1st arriving units

51
Q

How long do you flush your eyes during a chemical exposure

A

10-15 minutes

52
Q

what are considered positive Orthostatic changes

A

Drop of BP greater than 20 mht or heart rate increase of 20 bpm at any time

53
Q

What is the desired HR of a new born

A

Greater than 100 with respirations

54
Q

What color triage strip means contaminated

A

Magenta

55
Q

How many breaths per minute to maintain 30-35 pCO2

A

8-12

56
Q

A significant exposure must be reported within _____ and to where

A

2 hours and to the same hospital as the source

57
Q

What Age requires a long spinal board

A

Greater than 65 years old or less than 5 years old with significant mechanism

58
Q

what constitutes a HTN emergency

A

Systolic equal or greater than 220, Diastolic equal or greater than 120

59
Q

what temp in altered mental status should be actively cooled

A

Greater than 102 degrees

60
Q

An adult is defined in the Joint EMS protocols as

A

12 years or older

61
Q

What is the minimum rest time at rehab

A

15 minutes

62
Q

when should Medical control be contacted before using an epi autoinjector

A

Patient is over 50 years old
Hx of heart disease
HR greater than 150

63
Q

When should burns be kept dry

A

Greater than 20 percent 2nd degree or greater than 5 percent 3rd degree

64
Q

In an infant, a seizure may be the only sign of what

A

Closed head injury

65
Q

Is epiglottitis bacterial or viral

A

Bacterial with fever

66
Q

Level 5 MCI is

A

1,000 plus victims

67
Q

BLS treatment of BGL less than 60

A

1-2 tubes of oral glucose

68
Q

blood glucose ranges on monitor

A

Less than 60

Over 350

69
Q

What 3 forms are needed for an exposure

A

Infectious Disease exposure report Form
Exposure information Form
Employer information form

70
Q

What is an infectious exposure reference sheet

A

Disease Matrix, provides information for exposures

71
Q

What contraction rate means birth is imminent

A

Less than 2 minutes apart lasting 90 seconds or longer

72
Q

How often to swap CPR if no Lucan Device is available

A

Every 2 minutes

73
Q

Lacerations must be evaluated within what time frame

A

6 hours

74
Q

Weight requirement for epi pen JR

A

Less than 60 pounds

75
Q

What level must air transport for diving accident victims be kept under

A

1000 feet

76
Q

Level 1 MCI is

A

5-10 victims

77
Q

What are the two types of restraints

A

Chemical and physical

78
Q

What distance should the umbilical be clamped

A

2 inches from abdomen

79
Q

What is the age of needle crich

A

Under 12 and unable to vent

80
Q

What is level 4 for Medcom

A

Administration Traffic

81
Q

Damage from lighting is often ______

A

Hidden

82
Q

How far and how tall should obstacles be from a helicopter LZ

A

40 feet tall and within 100 feet

83
Q

Initial Defib for V-Fib is what

A

200 Joules then reassess and repeat every 2 minutes

84
Q

What angle should the head be elevated to for a suspected stroke

A

30 degrees

85
Q

What is the dose of aspirin

A

162-184 mg PO

86
Q

Vitals for preeclampsia

A

Systolic over 140 Diastolic over 90
OR
Relative increase of 30 systolic and 20 diastolic

87
Q

When are influenza and TDAP shots available

A

Within 10 days of employment and October through February annually

88
Q

If prolapsed umbilical cord or pulse is absent

A

Minimize pressure on the cord by pushing on head

89
Q

Pediatric head traumas should be reassessed how often

A

Every 5 minutes

90
Q

Level 2 MCI is

A

11-20 Victims

91
Q

BLS treatment for Bites and Envenomations

A

Position pt supine, immobilize limb

92
Q

How long should a pulse be checked for

A

5-10 seconds

93
Q

What are the 5 colors and sizes of King tube

A 
Green: 2
Orange: 2.5
Yellow: 3   (4-5ft) 
Red: 4    (5-6ft) 
Purple: 5    (6ft or taller)
94
Q

What is the treatment for stingray, lion fish, urchin and starfish stings

A

Hot water over 110-114 degrees

95
Q

Limit scene time for a suspected stroke to

A

10 minutes

96
Q

What should BLS skill to be used if unable to intubate

A

BIAD= Blind Insertion Airway Device

97
Q

What is the age limit on the Lucas device

A

12 years old

98
Q

How often is APGAR performed

A

1 minute and 5 minute

99
Q

Administer O2 to maintain the SP02 of COPD at what

A

92 percent

Captain Test (14 decks)

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