Sog 411 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the purpose of SOG 411?

A

To provide guidelines for the safe and effective handling of hazardous materials incidents by JFRD personnel.

Section 411

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2
Q

When does JFRD assume Command of a HazMat incident?

A

JFRD assumes Command except for:
* Marine incidents under US Coast Guard jurisdiction
* Incidents on military bases
* Nuclear incidents, such as plane crashes involving nuclear weapons

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3
Q

Who establishes Command at HazMat incidents?

A

The first-arriving agency establishes Command until a more appropriate Coordinator/Incident Commander (IC) arrives.

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4
Q

What information must FRCC gather for a HazMat incident?

A

FRCC must gather:
* Name of the chemical (verify spelling)
* Amount of material involved
* Type and size of the container
* Type of problem (leak, spill, fire, etc.)
* Properties of the reported material

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5
Q

What additional steps does FRCC take?

A

FRCC takes the following steps:
* Relay all gathered information to responding units ASAP
* Arrange for knowledgeable callers to meet responders
* Notify agencies like EMRD, State Warning Point, Coast Guard, or DOT when required

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6
Q

What are the responsibilities of the first-arriving JFRD unit at a HazMat scene?

A

Responsibilities include:
* Establish Incident Command as outlined in SOG 403
* Designate staging areas and safer arrival routes for responding units
* Assign a Safety Officer to monitor operations

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7
Q

Is it acceptable for the first-arriving unit to commit itself to the incident immediately?

A

No, the unit must consciously avoid committing itself to a dangerous situation.

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8
Q

What factors must be evaluated during a HazMat size-up?

A

Factors include:
* Wind conditions and direction
* Humidity levels
* Topography of the incident location
* Whether the area is open or confined
* Immediate need for rescue
* Type of material involved (solid, liquid, vapor)
* Hazards associated with the material

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9
Q

What is the objective of a HazMat size-up?

A

Objectives are to:
* Identify the product involved
* Assess the nature and severity of the problem
* Gather enough information to formulate a valid Incident Action Plan (IAP)

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10
Q

How can personnel identify hazardous materials on-site?

A

Personnel can identify hazardous materials by looking for:
* Labels
* Placards
* Markers
* Shipping papers
* Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS)
* Speaking to the driver or knowledgeable personnel when possible

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11
Q

What are the key considerations for scene assessment?

A

Key considerations include:
* The need for the HazMat Team
* Overall scene management

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12
Q

What are the priorities in a HazMat Incident Action Plan?

A

Priorities include:
* Safety of JFRD Personnel
* Safety of Civilians
* Conservation of Property
* Control/Stabilization of the Incident

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13
Q

What are the three control zones in HazMat incidents?

A

Control zones are:
* Hot Zone: Immediate danger area; requires decontamination upon exit
* Warm Zone: Restricted to essential personnel; includes decontamination stations
* Cold Zone: Safe area for Command, staging, and supporting personnel

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14
Q

What publications or resources help determine isolation distances?

A

Resources include:
* The DOT Emergency Response Guide (ERG)
* MSDS

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15
Q

Who oversees decontamination procedures?

A

The Decontamination Officer.

Section 411.08.01

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16
Q

What are the three main methods of decontamination?

A

Methods include:
* Dilution: Reduces the contaminant’s concentration
* Absorption: Soaks up contaminants
* Degradation: Neutralizes the contaminant (requires specific information)

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17
Q

What must happen before contaminated equipment or personnel leave the scene?

A

They must undergo proper decontamination.

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18
Q

What is the protocol for treating contaminated individuals?

A

Protocol includes:
* Decontaminate individuals before boarding JFRD apparatus
* Stabilize individuals needing immediate medical care, then decontaminate
* Notify receiving hospitals if transporting potentially contaminated patients

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19
Q

How long must decontaminated JFRD personnel remain under medical surveillance?

A

A minimum of 30 minutes.

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20
Q

What steps are required during incident termination?

A

Steps include:
* Maintain security at the scene to prevent contamination or civilian injury
* Pass site control to the appropriate agency (e.g., EMRD, DOT)
* Record contaminants and equipment used in the Special Operations Response Report

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21
Q

What does CBRNE stand for?

A

Chemical, Biological, Radiological, Nuclear, and Explosive.

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22
Q

Why is law enforcement involvement critical in CBRNE incidents?

A

Such events are crime scenes requiring coordination with federal, state, and local agencies.

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23
Q

What are the five types of chemical agents?

A

Types include:
* Blister agents (e.g., mustard gas)
* Blood agents (e.g., hydrogen cyanide)
* Choking agents (e.g., chlorine, phosgene)
* Irritants (e.g., tear gas)
* Nerve agents (e.g., sarin, VX)

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24
Q

What must first-arriving units do at chemical agent incidents?

A

Establish control zones and identify the agent before committing personnel.

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25
Q

What are examples of biological agents?

A

Examples include:
* Anthrax
* Ricin
* Smallpox
* Ebola
* Botulinum toxin

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26
Q

What PPE protects against most biological agents?

A

SCBA and bunker gear.

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27
Q

What is the protocol for radiological incidents?

A

Protocol includes:
* Stage upwind and monitor radiation levels before entering
* Use radiation detection equipment like RadAlert 50s
* Perform rapid rescues for radiation exposure up to 25 R/hr with full PPE

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28
Q

What precautions must be taken at incidents involving explosives?

A

Precautions include:
* Search for secondary devices in initial size up
* Monitor for radiation using RadAlert 50s
* Follow SOG 424 for bomb or WMD guidance

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29
Q

What is the protocol for responding to suspected meth labs?

A

Protocol includes:
* Do not enter without JSO Bomb Squad clearance
* Secure water supply and stage equipment until further instructions
* Treat incidents as high-risk for flammables, corrosives, and anti-personnel devices

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30
Q

What is the protocol for low-threat powder incidents?

A

Use the 20/20 Kit to test. If negative, clean up with bleach and dispose of the material.

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31
Q

What steps are taken for moderate/high-threat powders?

A

Steps include:
* Use the 20/20 Kit followed by the HIAA 8 Step Test
* If positive, turn the scene over to law enforcement as a federal crime scene

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32
Q

Who is responsible for transporting samples to the State Lab for further testing?

A

The law enforcement agency.

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33
Q

What is the purpose of SOG 411?

A

To provide guidelines for the safe and effective handling of hazardous materials incidents by JFRD personnel.

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34
Q

Who has the authority to assume command of a HazMat incident in Jacksonville?

A

Jacksonville Fire and Rescue Department (JFRD).

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35
Q

What are the exceptions to JFRD’s command authority at HazMat incidents?

A

Marine incidents (US Coast Guard), incidents on military bases, and nuclear incidents involving weapons.

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36
Q

Who takes command until a more appropriate Incident Commander arrives?

A

The first-arriving agency.

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37
Q

What information should FRCC gather for a possible HazMat incident?

A

Name, amount, type, size of container, type of problem, and properties of the material.

38
Q

What should FRCC do if a caller has expert knowledge of the material?

A

Have them meet the arriving units.

39
Q

Is establishing Incident Command optional?

A

No, it is required by federal law.

40
Q

Who establishes command initially?

A

The first-arriving JFRD unit.

41
Q

What must be designated immediately by the IC?

A

A Safety Officer.

42
Q

What are key factors to consider during size-up?

A

Wind direction, humidity, topography, area of involvement, rescue needs, type of material, and hazards.

43
Q

What are the objectives of size-up?

A

Identify the product, assess the problem, and gather information for an Incident Action Plan.

44
Q

What should personnel check to identify hazards?

A

Labels, placards, markers, shipping papers, MSDS, and drivers.

45
Q

What should the first-arriving officer assess?

A

The need for the HazMat Team and scene management.

46
Q

What are the IAP priorities?

A

Safety of personnel, safety of civilians, property conservation, and incident control.

47
Q

What are examples of defensive strategies?

A

Directing runoff and dissipating vapors.

48
Q

What are examples of offensive strategies?

A

Dilution, neutralization, and plugging leaks.

49
Q

What are the three control zones?

A

Hot Zone, Warm Zone, and Cold Zone.

50
Q

What is the purpose of the Hot Zone?

A

It represents immediate danger to life and health (IDLH).

51
Q

What is the purpose of the Warm Zone?

A

It serves as an entry/exit point and houses the Decon Station.

52
Q

Where is Incident Command located?

A

In the Cold Zone.

53
Q

Who appoints the Decon Officer?

A

The Incident Commander (IC).

54
Q

Where is the Decon Zone located?

A

In the Warm Zone.

55
Q

What are common decon methods?

A

Dilution, absorption, and degradation.

56
Q

What must happen before JFRD equipment leaves the scene?

A

It must be decontaminated.

57
Q

When can decontamination be delayed for a patient?

A

When immediate medical treatment is required.

58
Q

How long must JFRD personnel remain in rehab after decon?

A

A minimum of 30 minutes.

59
Q

Who ensures scene security after mitigation?

A

The appropriate law enforcement agency.

60
Q

What must JFRD personnel complete after a HazMat incident?

A

A Special Operations Response Report.

61
Q

What are the nine DOT hazard classes?

A

Explosives, gases, flammable liquids, flammable solids, oxidizers, toxics, radioactive, corrosives, and miscellaneous.

62
Q

What should first-arriving units consult for product identification?

A

ERG, MSDS, shipping papers, or other reference materials.

63
Q

What must be established immediately?

A

Control zones.

64
Q

What is the initial isolation distance for explosives?

A

2,000 feet.

65
Q

Should you fight fires involving explosives?

A

No, unless the fire can be prevented from reaching the explosives.

66
Q

What PPE is required for compressed gas incidents?

A

Full PPE with SCBA.

67
Q

What is the minimum GPM for flame impingement on pressure vessels?

A

500 GPM per point of impingement.

68
Q

What is the flammable range of propane?

A

2.1% to 9.5%.

69
Q

Is anhydrous ammonia heavier or lighter than air?

A

Lighter than air.

70
Q

What is the flammable range of methane?

A

5% to 15%.

71
Q

What should you eliminate when dealing with flammable liquids?

A

All ignition sources.

72
Q

What are reportable spill quantities for hydrocarbons?

A

10 gallons (ERMD), 25 gallons (FDEP), and any amount causing sheen on water (USCG).

73
Q

What extinguishing agents should you avoid with reactive materials?

A

Water and foam.

74
Q

What should you avoid during a fire involving oxidizers?

A

Exposure to smoke, fumes, and vapors.

75
Q

What is the danger of organic peroxides?

A

They can detonate if heated beyond transport temperatures.

76
Q

What should you monitor for at toxic material incidents?

A

Signs and symptoms of exposure.

77
Q

What radiation exposure level defines the Hot Zone?

A

2 mR/hr or greater.

78
Q

What should Digilert 50 alarms be set to?

A

0.1 mR/hr or 100 CPM.

79
Q

How should you cool corrosive containers exposed to flames?

A

Use water cautiously, as some corrosives react violently with water.

80
Q

Why should hazards in Class 9 not be underestimated?

A

Due to the potential for chemical mixing within the same load.

81
Q

What does CBRNE stand for?

A

Chemical, Biological, Radiological, Nuclear, and Explosive.

82
Q

What are the five groups of chemical warfare agents?

A

Blister, blood, choking, irritants, and nerve agents.

83
Q

What protective gear provides defense against biological agents?

A

Bunker gear and SCBA.

84
Q

Name three common biological agents.

A

Anthrax, botulinum toxin, and smallpox.

85
Q

What is the difference between nuclear and radiological incidents?

A

Nuclear involves detonation; radiological involves material dispersal.

86
Q

What is the maximum safe radiation exposure for rapid rescues?

Volunteer only after that

A

25 R/hr with full PPE and SCBA.

87
Q

What is the most common CBRNE weapon used by terrorists?

A

Explosives.

88
Q

What should you always check for at explosion scenes?

A

Secondary and tertiary devices.

89
Q

Can JFRD enter a suspected meth lab without JSO approval?

A

No, JSO Bomb Squad or Narcotics Team must clear the scene.

90
Q

Who is responsible for scene control during unknown powder responses?

A

Law enforcement.

91
Q

What test is used for low-threat unknown powders?

A

The 20/20 Kit.

92
Q

When does an unknown powder scene become a federal crime scene?

A

When the HIAA 8-Step Test is positive.