Social Psychology Prpjet Quizes Flashcards

1
Q

Your co-worker complains when the boss gives her a new task to complete. According to Kelley’s (1967) covariation model, you’re most likely to attribute your co-worker’s dissatisfaction with her new task assignment to external causes (e.g., to the difficulty or tediousness of the task) if you determine that:
A. consensus, consistency, and distinctiveness are all high.
B. consensus, consistency, and distinctiveness are all low.
C. consensus and distinctiveness are low but consistency is high.
D. consistency is low but consensus and distinctiveness are high.

A

Answer A is correct. According to the covariation model, people are most likely to attribute the behavior of another person to external causes when consensus, consistency and distinctiveness are all high. For the situation described in this question, this would occur if you conclude that other co-workers would also complain about the task (high consensus), the co-worker is likely to respond in the same way to similar tasks (high consistency), and the co-worker doesn’t respond this way to different types of tasks (high distinctiveness).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

You are exhibiting the actor-observer effect when you:
A. overuse base rate information when determining the cause of the behaviors of other people and underuse that information when determining the cause of your own behaviors.
B. underuse base rate information when determining the cause of the behaviors of other people and overuse that information when determining the cause of your own behaviors.
C. attribute your successful behaviors to dispositional factors and your unsuccessful behaviors to situational factors.
D. attribute your own behaviors to situational factors and the behaviors of other people to dispositional factors.

A

Answer D is correct. The actor-observer effect addresses the attributions we make about ourselves and others and refers to the tendency to attribute our own behaviors to situational factors and the behaviors of others to dispositional factors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The fundamental attribution error is the tendency to:
A. overestimate the role of dispositional causes of desirable outcomes and underestimate the role of situational causes of undesirable outcomes.
B. overestimate the role of situational causes of desirable outcomes and underestimate the role of dispositional causes of undesirable outcomes.
C. overestimate the role of dispositional factors when determining the cause of the behaviors of other people.
D. overestimate the role of situational factors when determining the cause of the behaviors of other people.

A

Answer C is correct. The fundamental attribution error is the tendency to overestimate the role of dispositional factors and underestimate the role of situational factors when making attributions about the behaviors of other people.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
A college sophomore has decided to drop out of college at the end of the semester “to see the world,” and she prefers talking to friends and family members who support her decision and avoids talking to those who think it’s a bad idea. This illustrates which of the following?
A. contrast error
B. self-serving bias
C. confirmation bias
D. false consensus effect
A

Answer C is correct. The confirmation bias is the tendency to seek and pay attention to information that confirms our attitudes and beliefs and avoid or ignore information that refutes them.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When relying on the representativeness heuristic to make judgments, we:
A. distort disconfirming information.
B. ignore base rates.
C. focus on previous errors.
D. focus on socially desirable alternatives.

A

Answer B is correct. When relying on the representativeness heuristic, people ignore base rates and other important information and base their judgments about the frequency or likelihood of an event on the extent to which the event resembles a prototype (typical case).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
A customer who is in a long line behind you at the checkout counter says, “no matter what line I get into, it’s always the slowest one.” This is an example of which of the following?
A. illusory correlation
B. base rate fallacy
C. sleeper effect
D. counterfactual thinking
A

Answer A is correct. An illusory correlation occurs when we overestimate the correlation between two variables that are unrelated or only slightly related.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ are “mental shortcuts” that allow us to make quick judgments about people or events but can lead to inaccurate conclusions.
A. Mnemonic devices
B. Prototypes
C. Cognitive schemas
D. Heuristics
A

Answer D is correct. Heuristics are “mental shortcuts that provide quick estimates about the likelihood of uncertain events” (Baumeister & Bushman, 2013, p. 164). Although heuristics can be useful when it’s necessary to make quick judgments, they can produce inaccurate conclusions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
When discussing some of the topics that were covered in yesterday’s social psychology class, Robert tells Renee that he thinks it’s true that people learn about their own attitudes and emotions in the same way they draw conclusions about the attitudes and emotions of other people – that is, by observing outward behaviors and the situations in which those behaviors occur. Robert’s statement is consistent with which of the following?
A. self-perception theory
B. social judgment theory
C. cognitive dissonance theory
D. balance theory
A

Answer A is correct. Self-perception theory (Bem, 1972) proposes that people infer how they’re feeling and thinking by observing their own behaviors and the circumstances in which those behaviors occur.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The elaboration likelihood model (Petty & Cacioppo, 1981) distinguishes between:
A. central and peripheral processing routes.
B. latitudes of acceptance, rejection, and noncommitment.
C. alpha and omega strategies.
D. congruent and incongruent states.

A

Answer A is correct. According to the elaboration likelihood model, a persuasive message can be processed through the central route or the peripheral route.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Social judgment theory (Sherif & Hovland, 1961) distinguishes between:
A. central and peripheral processing routes.
B. latitudes of acceptance, rejection, and noncommitment.
C. alpha and omega strategies.
D. congruent and incongruent states

A

Answer B is correct. Social judgment theory distinguishes between latitudes of acceptance, rejection, and noncommitment, which represent different degrees of similarity between a person’s current position and the position advocated by a persuasive message.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

According to Heider’s (1958) balance theory, the relationships among which of the following can be either balanced or unbalanced?
A. attitudes, behaviors, and cognitions
B. a person, another person, and an attitude object
C. behavior intention, subjective norms, and perceived behavior control
D. a person, place, and thing

A

Answer B is correct. Heider’s balance theory is also known as P-O-X theory because it focuses on the relationships among three elements: the person (P), another person (O), and an attitude object or event (X).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
Ajzen and Fishbein’s (2005) theory of planned behavior predicts that which of the following is affected by a person’s attitude toward a behavior, what the person thinks others believe he/she should do, and the person’s confidence in his/her ability to perform the behavior?
A. resistance to persuasion
B. level of cognitive dissonance
C. freedom of choice
D. behavior intention
A

Answer D is correct. According to the theory of planned behavior, the three conditions listed in this question are the major contributors to a person’s behavior intention which, in turn, determines whether or not the person will actually perform the behavior.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
Lola has just received text messages from both Alfred and Alphonse, asking her to the junior prom. Lola likes both of them very much and has a hard time deciding which one to choose. After choosing Alphonse, Lola decides that she really doesn’t like Alfred all that much. The change in Lola’s feelings toward Alfred is best explained by which of the following?
A. elaboration likelihood model
B. self-serving bias
C. attitude inoculation
D. cognitive dissonance theory
A

Answer D is correct. Festinger’s (1954) cognitive dissonance theory proposes that, when people have inconsistencies between two attitudes or between an attitude and behavior, they experience a state of mental discomfort (“cognitive dissonance”) that they’re motivated to relieve by changing an attitude or behavior. To reduce the dissonance Lola experienced by not choosing Alfred, she changed her attitude toward him.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
The meta-analysis conducted by Dittmar, Bond, Hurst, and Kasser (2014) found that materialism is most strongly related to which of the following?
A. risky health behaviors
B. compulsive buying behaviors
C. positive self-appraisal
D. negative affect
A

Answer B is correct. Dittmar and colleagues found that prioritization of materialistic values and goals strongly correlated with, in order of strength, compulsive buying behavior, engaging in risky health behaviors, negative self-appraisal, and negative affect. Note that, even if you’re unfamiliar with this meta-analysis, it makes sense that materialism would be strongly correlated with compulsive buying. On the EPPP, you’re likely to encounter a few questions on unfamiliar topics or familiar topics that are asked about in an unfamiliar way, and a good test-taking strategy for those questions is to choose the most plausible or obvious answer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

As described by McGuire (1973), attitude inoculation is useful for:
A. changing a person’s attitudes.
B. strengthening the link between a person’s attitudes and behaviors.
C. helping people evaluate their own attitudes and behaviors.
D. reducing a person’s susceptibility to persuasion.

A

Answer D is correct. The attitude inoculation hypothesis proposes that an effective way to increase resistance to persuasion is to “immunize” people against attempts to change their attitudes by providing them with weak arguments against their current attitudes along with counterarguments that refute those arguments before they’re exposed to a persuasive message.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When people will be exposed to arguments that address two sides of a controversial issue, a recency effect is most likely to occur when:
A. one side is presented immediately after the other side and attitudes are measured immediately after the second presentation.
B. one side is presented immediately after the other side and attitudes are measured one week later.
C. one side is presented one week after the other side and attitudes are measured immediately after the second presentation.
D. one side is presented one week after the other side and attitudes are measured one week later.

A

Answer C is correct. Miller & Campbell (1959) found that a recency effect is most likely to occur when there’s an interval of time between presentation of the two sides of an argument and attitudes are measured immediately after the second presentation.

17
Q
The results of a study indicate that the different effects of high-credible and low-credible communicators on the attitudes of the recipients of a message faded over time because the recipients remembered the message but forgot its source. These results provide support for which of the following?
A. attitude inoculation
B. the sleeper effect
C. the contrast effect
D. psychological reactance
A

Answer B is correct. High-credible communicators initially have a greater effect than low-credible communicators on recipients’ attitude change, but this difference fades because, over time, the recipients tend to remember the persuasive message but forget its source. This is referred to as the sleeper effect.

18
Q

Psychological reactance is associated with which of the following?
A. feeling that one’s personal freedom is being threatened by a request or demand
B. obeying an authority’s orders when doing so has harmful consequences
C. imagining alternative outcomes that could have happened but didn’t
D. conforming to the group norm to avoid the group’s rejection or ridicule

A

Answer A is correct. Psychological reactance occurs when people feel that pressure to behave in a particular way threatens their personal freedom and they respond in ways that help them regain their sense of freedom.

19
Q
When making calls for a local charity, Maggie starts out by asking a potential donor for a donation of $50.00. When the donor refuses, she then asks if the donor can donate $10.00. Maggie’s strategy illustrates which of the following?
A. insufficient justification
B. psychological reactance
C. door-in-the-face technique
D. foot-in-the-door technique
A

Answer C is correct. When using the door-in-the-face technique, the influencer begins with a large request that most people would reject and, when that request is rejected, the influencer makes a smaller request.

20
Q

According to Milgram (1974), subjects in his study were willing to obey authority:
A. only until they realized that doing so caused harm to another person.
B. only because they believed their peers had already done so.
C. because they were concerned about the negative consequences of not doing so.
D. because they didn’t believe they were responsible for their actions.

A

Answer D is correct. Milgram proposed that subjects obeyed the experimenter in his studies because the situation put them in an “agentic state,” which he defined as “the condition a person is in when he sees himself as an agent for carrying out another person’s wishes” (1974, p. 111).

21
Q
As described by Steiner (1972), when working on a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ problem-solving task, each group member submits his/her solution to the problem and the group chooses the best solution from those submitted.
A. conjunctive
B. disjunctive
C. compensatory
D. discretionary
A

Answer B is correct. Steiner (1972) distinguished between five types of group tasks: additive, compensatory, disjunctive, conjunctive, and discretionary. A disjunctive task requires group members to choose the best solution, decision, or judgment from those offered by each group member, which is usually the one offered by the most competent member.

22
Q
Albert is usually a quiet person who abhors violence but, when he attends a large political rally and many of the protesters start yelling loudly and acting violently, Albert becomes uncharacteristically loud and aggressive. Albert’s behavior at the rally is best explained by which of the following?
A. social facilitation
B. bystander effect
C. groupthink
D. deindividuation
A

Answer D is correct. Deindividuation is “the loss of a person’s sense of individuality and the reduction of normal constraints against deviant behavior” (Kassin, Fein, & Markus, 2016, p. 321). It occurs when people can act anonymously because they’re in a large crowd or because their identities are disguised.

23
Q

The risk for social loafing is greatest when:
A. the group is large and only the final group product will be evaluated.
B. the group is large and each group member’s contribution will be evaluated.
C. the group is small and only the final group product will be evaluated.
D. the group is small and each group member’s contribution will be evaluated.

A

Answer A is correct. Social loafing occurs when members of a group exert less effort when working on a task than they would have exerted if working alone. It’s more likely to occur when a group is large and the contributions of individual group members will not be identified or evaluated.

24
Q
Social inhibition is more likely than social facilitation to occur when:
A. the crowd is large.
B. the crowd is small.
C. the task is easy.
D. the task is difficult.
A

Answer D is correct. Social inhibition is a decrease in performance that’s caused by the mere presence of others and affects difficult and unfamiliar tasks

25
Q
Byrne’s (1971) law of attraction focuses on which of the following?
A. attitude similarity
B. behavior intention
C. physical attractiveness
D. reciprocity
A

Answer A is correct. Byrne’s (1971) law of attraction states that there’s a positive relationship between attitude similarity and attraction and that this relationship is due to the fact that interacting with people who have similar attitudes is reinforcing because it validates our views and produces good feelings.

26
Q

Aronson and Linder’s (1965) gain-loss theory predicts that we tend to:
A. forget the reasons why we were originally attracted to people we have close relationships with.
B. be affected more by the negative behaviors of people we have close relationships with than by their positive behaviors.
C. have stronger emotional reactions to people we’ve known for a shorter (versus a longer) period of time.
D. like others most when they first evaluate us negatively and, as they get to know us, evaluate us positively.

A

Answer D is correct. Research on the gain-loss theory has shown that we’re more attracted to people who initially dislike us but then change their minds as they get to know us than we are to people who express constant liking for us.

27
Q
The “mere exposure effect” is most useful for explaining which of the following?
A. social loafing
B. interpersonal attraction
C. antisocial behavior
D. conformity to group norms
A

Answer B is correct. The mere exposure effect is “the tendency for people to come to like things simply because they see or encounter them repeatedly” (Baumeister & Bushman, 2013, p. 241).

28
Q

Research on the “pratfall effect” has shown that, when a person makes an embarrassing mistake or blunder, this makes:
A. a competent person less attractive.
B. a competent person more attractive.
C. an average person more attractive.
D. a competent or average person less attractive.

A

Answer B is correct. Aronson, Willerman, and Floyd’s (1966) research on the pratfall effect found that the attractiveness of a person who is perceived as being competent increases when that person commits a blunder, while the attractiveness of a person who is perceived as being average decreases when he/she commits a blunder.

29
Q

Sherif (1966) found that superordinate goals:
A. increased resistance to persuasion.
B. reduced intergroup hostility and competition.
C. increased altruistic motives for providing assistance.
D. reduced social loafing.

A

Answer B is correct. Sherif’s Robbers Cave study evaluated several strategies for reducing intergroup conflict and found that having members of hostile groups work together on superordinate goals was most effective.

30
Q
Realistic conflict theory focuses on conflicts between groups that are due to:
A. status inequality.
B. competition for scarce resources.
C. differences in basic values.
D. differences in political power.
A

Answer B is correct. According to realistic conflict theory (Pettigrew, 1978), prejudice and discrimination are the result of direct competition between different groups for scarce and valued resources.

31
Q
Allport (1954) identified four factors that increase the likelihood that intergroup contact will reduce hostility and conflict between the groups. These factors include all of the following except:
A. fair competition
B. equal status
C. superordinate goals
D. support of authorities
A

Answer A is correct. Allport’s contact hypothesis proposes that contact between members of majority and minority groups is most effective for reducing prejudice and discrimination when (a) members of the groups have equal status; (b) members must work together to achieve common (superordinate) goals; (c) there is no competition between members; and (d) the contact is sanctioned by law, custom, or institutional authorities.

32
Q

According to the infrahumanization theory of Leyens and colleagues (2007), members of an ingroup tend to attribute which of the following to members of outgroups?
A. more negative primary emotions
B. fewer positive and negative secondary emotions
C. more primary and secondary emotions
D. fewer positive and negative primary emotions

A

Answer B is correct. Leyens et al. distinguish between primary (non-uniquely human) emotions and secondary (uniquely human) emotions and propose that members of ingroups tend to attribute fewer positive and negative secondary emotions to members of outgroups than they attribute to members of their ingroups.

33
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ refers to a bystander’s decision not to intervene in an emergency situation because the bystander believes the inactivity of other bystanders is due to their conclusion that the situation does not constitute an emergency.
A. The overjustification effect
B. The false consensus effect
C. Audience inhibition
D. Pluralistic ignorance
A

Answer D is correct. Pluralistic ignorance has been identified as a contributor to bystander apathy and refers to a misperception of how others are thinking or feeling.

34
Q

Diffusion of responsibility increases as the:
A. similarity between a victim and the bystander increases.
B. the magnitude of stimulus overload decreases.
C. the number of bystanders increases.
D. bystanders’ beliefs about their competence to help decreases.

A

nswer C is correct. Diffusion of responsibility is a reduced sense of personal responsibility resulting from the belief that others are willing and able to provide assistance. Research conducted by J. M. Darley and R. Latane found that diffusion of responsibility increased as the number of bystanders increased (Bystander intervention in emergencies: Diffusion of responsibility, Journal of Personality and Social Psychology, 8, 377-383, 1968).

35
Q

Results of research evaluating the effects of the “jigsaw classroom” are most consistent with:
A. the predictions of Pettigrew’s realistic conflict theory.
B. the predictions of Tajfel and Turner’s social identity theory.
C. the results of Sherif’s Robbers Cave study.
D. the results of Ridley’s research on covert racism.

A

Answer C is correct. Aronson and colleagues (1978) developed the jigsaw classroom to evaluate the effects of superordinate goals on prejudice and discrimination in ethnically diverse elementary school classrooms. Consistent with the results of the Robbers Cave study, they found that having students cooperate to achieve a common goal had beneficial effects on the relationships among students.