Prepjet Missed Psychopathology Quiz Questions

Question 1

When assigning a DSM-5 diagnosis of intellectual disability to a child, the level of severity of the disorder is determined by considering the child’s:

A. adaptive functioning.
B. socioemotional functioning.
C. full-scale IQ score.
D. adaptive functioning and full-scale IQ score.

Answer 1

A. adaptive functioning.

Question 2

To assign a DSM-5 diagnosis of Tourette’s disorder to a client, he/she must have which of the following?
A. at least one motor tic and one vocal tic.
B. at least one motor tic and multiple vocal tics.
C. multiple motor tics and at least one vocal tic.
D. multiple motor tics and multiple vocal tics.

Answer 2

C. multiple motor tics and at least one vocal tic.

Question 3

A person whose biological mother and father have both received a diagnosis of schizophrenia is about \_\_\_\_\_ times more likely to receive the same diagnosis as a person whose only biological relative with schizophrenia is his or her non-twin sibling.
A. 50
B. 16
C. 5
D. 2

Answer 3

C. 5

Question 4

The most likely diagnosis for a client who had auditory hallucinations and disorganized speech for five weeks and odd behaviors and anhedonia for an additional seven months is:
A. major depressive disorder with psychotic features.
B. schizophreniform disorder.
C. schizoaffective disorder.
D. schizophrenia.

Answer 4

Answer D is correct. The DSM-5 diagnosis of schizophrenia requires the presence of at least two active-phase symptoms for at least one month with at least one symptom being delusions, hallucinations, or disorganized speech plus continuous signs of the disorder (e.g., odd behaviors and avolition) for at least six months.

Question 5

Data from the National Survey on Drug Use and Health (NSDUH) indicate that which of the following age groups most often had the highest rates of depression from 2009 to 2017?

A. 12 to 17
B. 18 to 25
C. 26 to 49
D. 50+

Answer 5

Answer A is correct. Results of the NSDUH indicate that, from 2009 to 2017, the highest rates of depression (with three exceptions) were for respondents ages 12 to 17 followed by, in order, respondents ages 18 to 25, 26 to 49, and 50+. The exceptions were in 2009, 2010, and 2017: In 2009, respondents ages 12 to 17 and 18 to 25 had a similar rate; in 2010, respondents ages 18 to 25 had a slightly higher rate than those ages 12 to 17; and, in 2017, respondents ages 12 to 17 and 18 to 25 again had similar rates. In 2017, the rates for respondents ages 12 to 17 and 18 to 25 were both slightly above 13%, the rate for respondents ages 26 to 49 was slightly below 8%, and the rate for respondents ages 50+ was slightly below 5%.

Question 6

Your new client, a 29-year-old physician’s assistant, describes experiencing alternating periods of hypomania that do not meet the criteria for a hypomanic episode and periods of depression that do not meet the criteria for a major depressive episode. To assign the diagnosis of cyclothymia, the client must have experienced these symptoms for at least:

A. 6 months.
B. 1 year.
C. 18 months.
D. 2 years.

Answer 6

Answer D is correct. For the exam, you want to remember that the diagnosis of cyclothymic disorder and persistent depressive disorder both require a minimum duration of symptoms of 2 years for adults and 1 year for children and adolescents.

Question 7

Research has found that the experience of depression is associated with:

A. hyperactivity in the ventromedial prefrontal cortex and dorsolateral prefrontal cortex.
B. hyperactivity in the ventromedial prefrontal cortex and hypoactivity in the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex.
C. hypoactivity in the ventromedial prefrontal cortex and hyperactivity in the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex.
D. hypoactivity in the ventromedial prefrontal cortex and dorsolateral prefrontal cortex.

Answer 7

Answer B is correct. Brain imaging studies have found that depression is associated with abnormally high levels of activity in the ventromedial prefrontal cortex (vmPFC) and abnormally low levels of activity in the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex (dlPFC). Note that a mnemonic for remembering this is to use the “l” in dlPFC to recall that depression is associated with a low level of activity in the dlPFC – and that the opposite (a high level of activity) occurs in the vmPFC.

Question 8

Which of the following is least likely to be prescribed as a treatment for bipolar I disorder?
A. lithium
B. donepezil
C. risperidone
D. valproate

Answer 8

Answer B is correct. If you do not know that donepezil is used to slow the progression of Alzheimer’s disease, you may have been able to identify it as the correct answer using the process of elimination as long as you know that lithium, risperidone (a second-generation antipsychotic), and valproate (an anticonvulsant) are used to treat bipolar I disorder.

Question 9

Bill has just received a diagnosis of specific phobia, blood-injection-injury type. The most effective treatment for Bill is likely to be exposure and response prevention and:
A. a beta-blocker.
B. an anxiolytic.
C. applied relaxation.
D. applied tension.

Answer 9

Answer D is correct. Exposure and response prevention is the treatment-of-choice for specific phobia. Because people with the blood-injection-injury type tend to faint when confronted with a feared stimulus, applied tension is used during exposure to increase blood pressure and reduce the likelihood of fainting.

Question 10

A DSM-5 diagnosis of separation anxiety requires a duration of symptoms of at least __________ for children and adolescents and __________ for adults.

A. 2 weeks; one month
B. 4 weeks; three months
C. 4 weeks; six months
D. 6 weeks; four months

Answer 10

Answer C is correct. For this diagnosis, the DSM-5 requires symptoms to have a duration of at least four weeks for children and adolescents or six months for adults.

Question 11

Five-year-old Debbie is brought to therapy by her foster parents who say that, even though she’s been living with them for over three years, she hasn’t formed an attachment to either of them. The foster parents tell you that Debbie doesn’t seek comfort from them when she’s distressed, doesn’t respond to interactions with people with happiness or enjoyment, and often becomes fearful or irritable when interacting with people for no apparent reason. To confirm a DSM-5 diagnosis of reactive attachment disorder for Debbie, you would want to confirm that her symptoms:

A. are related to pre-, peri-, or postnatal complications.

B. are related to extreme insufficient care.

C. began before age 5 and that Debbie has a developmental age of at least 12 months.

D. began before age 7 and that Debbie has a developmental age of at least nine months.

Answer 11

Answer B is correct. For the diagnosis of reactive attachment disorder, an individual must have a history of extreme insufficient care that’s believed to be responsible for his/her symptoms, have had symptoms prior to age five, and have a developmental age of at least nine months.

Question 12

To assign a DSM-5 diagnosis of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), symptoms must have a duration of more than:
A. seven days for adults and adolescents and 14 days for children.
B. 14 days for adults, adolescents, and children.
C. one month for adults and adolescents and two months for children.
D. one month for adults, adolescents, and children.

Answer 12

Answer D is correct. The diagnosis of PTSD requires the presence of symptoms for more than one month for individuals of all ages.

Question 13

Hypnopompic hallucinations are vivid dreams that occur:
A. immediately before an episode of REM sleep.
B. immediately after an episode of REM sleep.
C. just after awakening from sleep.
D. just before falling asleep.

Answer 13

Answer C is correct. Many people with narcolepsy experience hypnagogic or hypnopompic hallucinations which are vivid hallucinations that occur, respectively, just before falling asleep or just after awakening

Question 14

Sleepwalking and sleep terrors usually occur:
A. during Stage 1 or 2 sleep in the middle of a major sleep period.
B. during Stage 3 or 4 sleep in the first third of a major sleep period.
C. during REM sleep in the middle of a major sleep period.
D. during REM sleep in the first third of a major sleep period.

Answer 14

Answer B is correct: Sleepwalking and sleep terrors are classified in the DSM-5 as non-rapid eye movement sleep arousal disorders and usually occur during Stage 3 or 4 sleep in the first third of a major sleep episode.

Question 15

The treatment of insomnia disorder ordinarily includes which of the following?
A. positive practice or sleep restriction
B. positive practice or habit reversal training
C. stimulus control or overcorrection
D. stimulus control or sleep restriction

Answer 15

Answer D is correct. The nonpharmacological treatment-of-choice for insomnia disorder is a multi-component cognitive-behavioral intervention that incorporates stimulus control or sleep restriction with sleep-hygiene education, relaxation training, and/or cognitive therapy.

Question 16

Your new client’s aggressive behaviors seem to meet the diagnostic criteria for intermittent explosive disorder. To assign this diagnosis to the client, he must be at least \_\_\_\_\_ years old.
A. four
B. six
C. nine
D. twelve

Answer 16

B. six

Question 17

The symptoms of oppositional defiant disorder are grouped in DSM-5 into three categories that include all of the following except:
A. argumentative/defiant behavior.
B. vindictiveness.
C. deceitfulness/dishonesty.
D. angry/irritable mood.

Answer 17

Answer C is correct. To identify answer C as the correct answer, you have to know that argumentative/defiant behavior, vindictiveness, and angry/irritable mood are the three categories of symptoms for oppositional defiant disorder. Alternatively, you may have been able to identify the correct answer if you recalled that the violation of the basic rights of others or age-appropriate norms (e.g., by being deceitful or dishonest) is more characteristic of conduct disorder.

Question 18

According to Moffitt (1993), which of the following explains the adolescence-limited type of antisocial behavior?
A. a maturity gap
B. developmental delays
C. an adverse child-rearing environment
D. adolescent egocentrism

Answer 18

Answer A is correct. Moffitt distinguishes between life-course persistent and adolescence-limited antisocial behavior. She attributes the former to a combination of neuropsychological deficits and an adverse child-rearing environment and the latter to a maturity gap between the individual’s biological/sexual maturity and social maturity.

Question 19

The DSM-5 diagnosis of conduct disorder requires the presence of at least three characteristic symptoms during the last \_\_\_\_\_ months and at least one symptom in the last \_\_\_\_\_ months.
A. 6; 3
B. 12; 3
C. 12; 6
D. 18; 6

Answer 19

Answer C is correct. This is a straightforward question but, like a few questions you’re likely to encounter on the EPPP, is difficult because it requires you to recall specific details about a disorder. To identify the correct answer, you have to recall that the diagnosis of conduct disorder requires the presence of at least three characteristic behaviors in the past 12 months with at least one characteristic behavior in the past 6 months.

Question 20

A pattern of emotional dysregulation is characteristic of:
A. oppositional defiant disorder and conduct disorder.
B. oppositional defiant disorder.
C. conduct disorder.
D. neither oppositional defiant disorder nor conduct disorder.

Answer 20

Answer B is correct. In its description of differential diagnosis for conduct disorder, the DSM-5 notes that conduct disorder and oppositional defiant disorder both involve conflicts with parents and other authority figures but differ in terms of symptom severity and several other characteristics. For example, only oppositional defiant disorder involves “problems of emotional dysregulation (i.e., angry and irritable mood) that are not included in the definition of conduct disorder” (American Psychiatric Association, 2013, p. 475). You may have been able to identify answer B as the correct answer if you recalled the categories of symptoms for both disorders: argumentative/defiant behavior, vindictiveness, and angry/irritable mood for oppositional defiant disorder and aggression to people and animals, destruction of property, deceitfulness or theft, and serious violation of rules for conduct disorder.

Question 21

The amnestic-confabulatory type of alcohol-induced major neurocognitive disorder has been linked to a:
A. higher-than-normal cortisol level.
B. niacin deficiency.
C. blood dyscrasia.
D. thiamine deficiency.

Answer 21

Answer D is correct. The amnestic-confabulatory type of alcohol-induced major neurocognitive disorder is also known as Korsakoff syndrome and has been linked to a thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency.

Question 22

Symptoms of opioid withdrawal include which of the following?
A. nausea or vomiting, diarrhea, and fever
B. autonomic hyperactivity, hand tremor, and anxiety
C. irritability, impaired concentration, and increased appetite
D. pupillary dilation, nausea or vomiting, and weight loss

Answer 22

Answer A is correct. Opioid withdrawal produces flu-like symptoms that include nausea or vomiting, diarrhea, muscle aches, and fever.

Question 23

A cigarette smoker decides to quit “cold turkey.” Her withdrawal symptoms will most likely include which of the following?
A. autonomic hyperactivity, psychomotor agitation, and insomnia
B. lower blood pressure, cardiac arrhythmias, and confusion
C. irritability, impaired concentration, and insomnia
D. insomnia or hypersomnia, increased appetite, and psychomotor retardation

Answer 23

Answer C is correct. The DSM-5 identifies the following as characteristic symptoms of tobacco withdrawal: irritability, anger or anxiety, impaired concentration, increased appetite, restlessness, depressed mood, insomnia.

Question 24

The DSM-5 describes the pathological behaviors associated with substance use disorders as representing four categories. Which of the following is not one of these categories?
A. impaired control
B. cognitive impairment
C. risky use
D. social impairment

Answer 24

Answer B is correct. As described in the DSM-5, the symptoms of the substance use disorders represent four categories: impaired control, social impairment, risky use, and pharmacological criteria (tolerance and withdrawal).

Question 25

Identifying the temporal sequence of the onset of motor and cognitive symptoms is most useful for distinguishing between NCD due to Parkinson’s disease and:
A. NCD due to HIV infection.
B. NCD with Lewy bodies.
C. NCD due to prion disease.
D. vascular NCD.

Answer 25

Answer B is correct. To identify the correct answer to this question, you need to know that NCD due to Parkinson’s disease and NCD with Lewy bodies both involve motor and cognitive symptoms but that the temporal sequence of the onset of these symptoms differs: Motor symptoms precede cognitive symptoms in NCD due to Parkinson’s disease, while cognitive symptoms precede (or, in some cases, are concurrent with) motor symptoms in NCD with Lewy bodies.

Question 26

The DSM-5 requires the presence of which of the following for a diagnosis of delirium?
A. disorientation to time and place
B. impaired attention and awareness
C. a perceptual disturbance
D. impaired memory

Answer 26

Answer B is correct. The DSM-5 diagnosis of delirium requires a disturbance in attention and awareness plus an additional disturbance in cognition which can be, for example, disorientation to time and place, a perceptual disturbance, or impaired memory. In other words, of the four symptoms listed in the answers, only impaired attention and awareness is required for the diagnosis.

Question 27

Neurocognitive disorders that are due to prion disease most often have a:
A. very rapid progression of impairment.
B. gradual and steady progression of impairment.
C. stepwise progression of impairment.
D. fluctuating course with plateaus of impairment.

Answer 27

Answer A is correct. As described in the DSM-5, the neurocognitive disorders that are due to prion disease (e.g., Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease) are distinguished from other neurocognitive disorders “by their rapid progression and prominent cerebellar and motor symptoms” (p. 636).

Question 28

Early memory loss associated with NCD due to Alzheimer’s disease has been linked to lower-than-normal levels of which of the following in the hippocampus, cortex, and basal forebrain?
A. epinephrine
B. norepinephrine
C. GABA
D. ACh

Answer 28

Answer D is correct. You may encounter a few questions on the EPPP that you’ll be able to answer correctly even though they contain unfamiliar information. For this question, you may not know that low levels of ACh (acetylcholine) in the specific areas of the brain listed in the question have been linked to the memory loss associated with Alzheimer’s disease. However, as long as you know that ACh plays a role in learning and memory or that it has been linked to Alzheimer’s disease, you would have been able to identify the correct answer.

Question 29

Beth, a 68-year-old retired physician exhibits impaired attention and judgment, seems disoriented, and has short-term memory loss that she doesn’t seem to be aware of. Her husband tells you that she “just hasn’t seemed the same” for the past year or so and that the changes he’s noticed have occurred gradually. Beth’s symptoms are most suggestive of which of the following?
A. major depressive disorder (pseudodementia)
B. persistent depressive disorder
C. neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease
D. neurocognitive disorder due to Prion’s disease

Answer 29

Answer C is correct. NCD due to Alzheimer’s disease and depression that includes prominent cognitive symptoms (pseudodementia) can be difficult to differentiate. However, Beth’s denial or minimization of her memory problems and the gradual onset of her symptoms are more characteristic of Alzheimer’s disease than depression.