Prepjet missed questions pre-exam Flashcards

1
Q

Items selected for inclusion in each Occupational Scale of the Strong Interest Inventory:

A. distinguished between employees who expressed high satisfaction with the occupation assessed by the scale to those who expressed low satisfaction with the occupation.
B. distinguished between individuals employed in the occupation assessed by the scale and individuals in a general representative sample.
C. were identified by subject matter experts as representative of the occupation assessed by the scale.
D. had high correlations with other items in the scale and low correlations with items in other scales.

A

Answer B is correct. The Occupational Scales of the Strong Interest Inventory were derived using an empirical criterion keying method that involved comparing the responses of males and females employed in various occupations with the responses of males and females in a general representative sample and including items in a scale that were consistently answered in the same way only by males and females employed in that occupation. For example, items that were consistently answered in the same way by psychologists but not by people in the general representative sample were included in the psychologist scale.

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2
Q

A graduate program in clinical psychology requires first-year students to participate in individual therapy. With regard to ethical guidelines, this is:
A. acceptable as long as special steps are taken to protect students’ confidentiality.
B. acceptable as long as there are no multiple relationships between the students and the therapists.
C. acceptable only if students are given the choice of participating in an alternative activity.
D. unacceptable under any circumstances.

A

Answer B is correct. This answer is most consistent with Standard 7.05 of the Ethics Code. Standard 7.05(a) states that “when individual or group therapy is a program or course requirement, psychologists responsible for that program allow students in undergraduate and graduate programs the option of selecting such therapy from practitioners unaffiliated with the program.” And Standard 7.05(b) states that “faculty who are or are likely to be responsible for evaluating students’ academic performance do not themselves provide that therapy.” In other words, when therapy is a program or course requirement, a student’s therapist should not have another relationship with the student.

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3
Q
Of the antipsychotic drugs, clozapine is most likely to cause which of the following side effects?
A. parkinsonian-like symptoms
B. tardive dyskinesia
C. neuroleptic malignant syndrome
D. agranulocytosis
A

Answer D is correct. Of the antipsychotics, the atypical drug clozapine is most likely to produce agranulocytosis, which is a rare but potentially fatal blood disorder that involves an abnormally low level of white blood cells. Consequently, regular blood monitoring is required for people taking this drug. An advantage of clozapine is that it is less likely than many other antipsychotics to produce the side effects listed in answers A, B, and C. See, e.g., L.A. Labbate, J. F. Rosenbaum, M. Fava, and G. W. Arana, Handbook of psychiatric drug therapy, Philadelphia, Lippincott Williams & Wilkins, 2010.

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4
Q

Functional family therapy (FFT) is an evidence-based intervention for:
A. families with a history of domestic violence.
B. families that include a member with schizophrenia.
C. children and adolescents with anorexia or bulimia and their families.
D. adolescents with conduct disorder or oppositional defiant disorder and their families.

A

Answer D is correct. FFT is an evidence-based intervention for families that include adolescents who are exhibiting or are at risk for delinquency, violent behavior, substance abuse, or other serious behavioral problems such as conduct disorder or oppositional defiant disorder.

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5
Q

The point at which an item characteristic curve intercepts the Y (vertical) axis provides information about which of the following?
A. the ability of the item to discriminate between examinees with high and low ability
B. the probability of answering the item correctly by guessing
C. the item’s difficulty level
D. the degree to which the item correlates with other items in the test

A

Answer B is correct. Different item response theory models produce item response curves that provide information on one, two, or three parameters, with the three parameters being item difficulty, item discrimination, and the probability of guessing correctly. The probability of guessing correctly is indicated by the point at which the item response curve intercepts the Y axis.

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6
Q

The results of their meta-analysis of the research led Rhodes and Wood (1992) to conclude that which of the following are associated with the greatest susceptibility to persuasion?
A. low levels of both self-esteem and intelligence
B. moderate levels of both self-esteem and intelligence
C. low levels of self-esteem and moderate levels of intelligence
D. moderate levels of self-esteem and low levels of intelligence

A

Answer D is correct. Rhodes and Wood found an inverted U-shaped relationship between self-esteem and influenceability with moderate levels of self-esteem being associated with the greatest susceptibility to influence. In contrast, they found a linear relationship between intelligence and influenceability, with lower levels of intelligence being associated with greater influenceability.

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7
Q

Which of the following women is at greatest risk for having a child with standard (nondisjunction) trisomy 21?
A. a 28-year-old African American woman
B. a 40-year-old European American woman
C. a woman whose sister has a child with standard trisomy 21
D. a woman who has a folic acid deficiency during pregnancy

A

Answer B is correct. Studies have found that women who are 30 years of age or older at the time of conception are more likely than younger women to have a baby with standard trisomy 21, with the risk increasing with increasing age. Maternal race/ethnicity has not been linked to the risk for standard trisomy 21, so an African American woman (answer A) is not at increased risk for having a child with this disorder because of her race. Having a sister who has a child with standard trisomy 21 (answer C) does not increase a woman’s risk for having a child with this type of trisomy 21 because it is not genetically inherited. A folic acid deficiency during pregnancy (answer D) can cause neural tube defects but has not been linked to an increased risk for having a baby with trisomy 21.

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8
Q

Changing alpha from .05 to .01 has which of the following effects?
A. It increases the probability of making a Type I error when the null hypothesis is true and decreases the probability of making a Type II error when the null hypothesis is false.
B. It decreases the probability of making a Type I error when the null hypothesis is true and increases the probability of making a Type II error when the null hypothesis is false.
C. It increases the probability of making a Type I error when the null hypothesis is false and increases the probability of making a Type II error when the null hypothesis is true.
D. It decreases the probability of making a Type I error when the null hypothesis is false and decreases the probability of making a Type II error when the null hypothesis is true.
Back to questionsPrevious Answer

A

Answer B is correct. A change in alpha from .05 to .01 is a decrease in alpha. A decrease in alpha makes it harder to reject the null hypothesis whether it’s actually true or false and easier to retain the null hypothesis whether it’s actually true or false. Consequently, in this situation, a researcher is less likely to make a Type I error (reject a true null hypothesis) and, conversely, more likely to make a Type II error (retain a false null hypothesis). Answers A and C can be eliminated because decreasing alpha decreases (not increases) the probability of making a Type I error, and answer D can be eliminated because decreasing alpha increases (not decreases) the probability of making a Type II error.

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9
Q

Sherif and Hovland’s (1961) social judgment theory predicts that which of the following affects the size of a person’s latitudes of acceptance, rejection, and non-commitment when that person is exposed to a persuasive message advocating a position that’s opposite to his/her current position?
A. the person’s use of the peripheral or central route to process the information contained in the message
B. the person’s belief about his/her ability to perform the behavior advocated by the message
C. the person’s prior exposure to the arguments presented in the message
D. the person’s ego-involvement with the issue addressed by the message

A

Answer D is correct. Social judgment theory is based on the assumption that the relative sizes of the latitudes of acceptance, rejection, and non-commitment are affected by the person’s ego-involvement with the issue addressed by the persuasive message: As the person’s level of ego-involvement increases, the latitudes of acceptance and non-commitment become smaller and the latitude of rejection becomes larger.

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10
Q

A barrier to using cost benefit analysis is that:
A. it is often difficult to express the outcomes of mental health programs in monetary terms.
B. it does not permit comparisons of programs that have different types of costs.
C. it is often difficult to obtain the information needed to calculate quality of adjusted life-years (QALYs).
D. it cannot be used when the outcomes of the programs being compared are not directly comparable.

A

Answer A is correct. When using cost benefit analysis to compare two or more programs, a cost/benefit ratio is calculated for each program and the ratios are compared. This means that the costs and benefits (outcomes) of the programs must be expressed in monetary terms, which is often difficult to do. For example, it would be difficult to assign a dollar value to life satisfaction. Answer B can be eliminated because cost benefit analysis can be used when programs have different types of costs because the total monetary (dollar) cost – not the types of costs – is used to calculate a cost-benefit ratio for each program being evaluated. Answer C can be eliminated because cost benefit analysis does not require the calculation of QALYs. Therefore, the inability to calculate QALYs is not a barrier to its use. (Cost utility analysis is useful for comparing the effects of two or more interventions on QALYs). Answer D can be eliminated because the outcomes of the programs being compared are converted to monetary (dollar) values, which are directly comparable.

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