Physiological/Psychopharmacology and Lifespan Development missed quiz questions Flashcards
Severe damage to the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is often fatal because of its role in the regulation of respiration and cardiovascular functioning. A. suprachiasmatic nucleus B. medulla oblongata C. caudate nucleus D. mammillary bodies
Answer B is correct. Damage to the medulla oblongata can be fatal because it regulates respiration, heart rate, blood pressure, and other vital bodily functions.
The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is responsible for attaching emotions to memories for surprising and shocking events. A. thalamus B. amygdala C. substantia nigra D. suprachiasmatic nucleus
Answer B is correct. The amygdala is involved in the experience of emotions, recognition of emotions in facial expressions, acquisition of conditioned fear responses, evaluation of the emotional significance of events, and attachment of emotions to memories.
One of the functions of the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is to maintain a constant body temperature. A. thalamus B. mammillary bodies C. hippocampus D. hypothalamus
Answer D is correct. The hypothalamus helps maintain many aspects of the body’s homeostasis including body temperature, blood pressure, hunger, thirst, and sleep through its effects on the autonomic nervous system, somatic nervous system, and endocrine system.
The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ allows you to remember how to ride a bicycle, swim, and play a musical instrument. A. cerebellum B. medulla oblongata C. suprachiasmatic nucleus D. hypothalamus
Answer A is correct. The cerebellum is responsible for procedural memories (e.g., how to ride a bicycle) and other automatic memories.
PTSD has been linked to:
A. hyperactivity in the amygdala and ventromedial prefrontal cortex.
B. hyperactivity in the amygdala and hypoactivity in the ventromedial prefrontal cortex.
C. hypoactivity in the amygdala and hyperactivity in the ventromedial prefrontal cortex.
D. hypoactivity in the amygdala and ventromedial prefrontal cortex.
Answer B is correct. The studies have found that PTSD is associated with abnormal functioning of the amygdala and ventromedial prefrontal cortex: Hyperactivity in the amygdala plays a key role in producing the distressing memories and other symptoms of PTSD, and hypoactivity of the ventromedial prefrontal cortex reduces its normal regulation of activity in the amygdala.
Three months after a car accident that damaged his hippocampus, a 24-year-old man is most likely to be unable to:
A. remember the names of his parents and other family members.
B. recall what he did on his 21st birthday.
C. remember how to shave and comb his hair.
D. recall events that happened after the accident.
Answer D is correct. The hippocampus is responsible for transferring declarative memories from short-term to long-term memory. Consequently, the man described in this question will be unable to recall events that happened after the accident because memories for those events are not being transferred to his long-term memory.
Although the exact cause of Tourette’s disorder is unknown, its symptoms have been linked to abnormalities in which of the following? A. basal ganglia B. suprachiasmatic nucleus C. thalamus D. cingulate cortex
(I will voluntarily pick up a Basal - plant)
Answer A is correct. Tourette’s disorder involves uncontrollable movements (tics) and has been linked to dysfunction of the basal ganglia, which are involved in the initiation and control of voluntary movements.
A patient with \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ will deny that her left arm is paralyzed. A. anosognosia B. asomatognosia C. prosopagnosia D. Gerstmann’s syndrome
Answer A is correct. Anosognosia is caused by damage to the parietal lobe and involves denial or lack of awareness of one’s disabilities.
Wernicke’s aphasia and Broca’s aphasia share which of the following symptoms?
A. impaired repetition
B. anomia
C. impaired repetition and anomia
D. neither impaired repetition nor anomia
Answer C is correct. Wernicke’s aphasia and Broca’s aphasia differ in terms of comprehension and fluency of speech, but both involve impaired repetition and anomia (an inability to recall the names of familiar objects).
The words “food mart” are presented to split-brain patients so that “food” is presented to their left visual fields only and “mart” is projected to their right visual fields only. When they’re asked what they have seen, the patients will most likely say which of the following? A. food B. mart C. food mart D. mart food
Answer B is correct. For this question, you want to assume that the left hemisphere of these patients is dominant for language since this is true for most people. Because “food” was presented to the patients’ left visual fields, information about the word was transmitted directly to their right (nondominant) hemispheres, so they will be unable to say “food.” However, because “mart” was presented to the patients’ right visual fields, information about the word was transmitted directly to their left (dominant) hemispheres, and they will be able to say “mart.”
As the result of a traumatic brain injury, a middle-aged man exhibits \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, which means he cannot recognize family members by their faces. A. anosognosia B. asomatognosia C. prosopagnosia D. Gerstmann’s syndrome
Answer C is correct. Prosopagnosia is usually caused by bilateral lesions in the occipitotemporal junction and involves an inability to recognize the faces of familiar people and, in some cases, the faces of pets and other familiar animals.
Patients with lesions in the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex are most likely to exhibit: A. acquired sociopathy. B. perseverative responses. C. decreased initiative and motivation. D. behavioral disinhibition.
Answer B is correct. Perseverative (repetitive) responses are most associated with damage to the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex. For example, when asked to draw as many different shapes as possible, patients with damage to this area are likely to repeatedly draw the same shape or similar shapes. Patients with lesions in the orbitofrontal cortex are likely to exhibit acquired sociopathy and behavioral disinhibition (answers A and D), and those with lesions in the mediofrontal cortex are likely to exhibit decreased initiative and motivation (answer C).
Memory loss during the initial stage of Alzheimer’s disease has been most consistently linked to low levels of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ in the entorhinal cortex and hippocampus. A. dopamine B. norepinephrine C. acetylcholine D. GABA
Answer C is correct. The research suggests that the degeneration of acetylcholine receptors in the entorhinal cortex and hippocampus is responsible for the early memory loss associated with Alzheimer’s disease.
Which of the following is the most important reward pathway in the brain and the key pathway in substance abuse?
A. mesocortical dopaminergic pathway
B. mesolimbic dopaminergic pathway
C. nigrostriatal dopaminergic pathway
D. tuberoinfundibular dopaminergic pathway
Answer B is correct. The mesolimbic dopaminergic pathway is an essential part of the brain’s “reward circuit” and plays a role in the reinforcing effects of cocaine, amphetamines, nicotine, alcohol, opiates, and other substances of abuse.
A drug that has the same effects as a neurotransmitter or that increases the effects of a neurotransmitter is referred to as a(n): A. antagonist. B. inverse agonist. C. partial agonist. D. agonist
Answer D is correct. Agonists mimic or increase the effects of a neurotransmitter.
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is a major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain, and low levels have been linked to chronic insomnia and anxiety disorders. A. Dopamine B. Acetylcholine C. GABA D. Glutamate
Answer C is correct. Low levels of GABA have been linked to insomnia, seizures, and anxiety, and benzodiazepines reduce anxiety and induce sleep by amplifying its effects.
A drug that increases which of the following is likely to be most effective as a treatment for obsessive-compulsive disorder? A. serotonin B. acetylcholine C. norepinephrine D. GABA
Answer A is correct. Knowing that SSRIs (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors) are prescribed for obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. Note that, while OCD has been most consistently linked to low levels of serotonin, there’s also research linking it to abnormal levels of dopamine and glutamate.
Stimulus intensity is encoded by:
A. the intensity of action potentials.
B. the frequency of action potentials.
C. the intensity and frequency of action potentials.
D. neither the intensity nor the frequency of action potentials.
Answer B is correct. Action potentials are all-or-none responses which means they either occur or don’t occur and, when they occur, they have the same intensity. Consequently, stimulus intensity is not determined by the intensity of an action potential but by the frequency of the action potentials generated by a neuron and/or by the number of neurons that generate action potentials.
The primary difficulty experienced by the patient known as “H.M.” was related to which of the following?
A. maintaining information in short-term memory
B. forming new long-term declarative memories
C. recalling procedural memories
D. recalling remote long-term declarative memories
Answer B is correct. H.M. experienced some retrograde amnesia for remote long-term declarative memories, but his primary impairment was anterograde amnesia – i.e., an inability to form new long-term declarative memories.
Long-term potentiation has been linked to the:
A. formation of new memories.
B. recall of emotional memories.
C. maintenance of memories in short-term memory.
D. maintenance of memories in remote long-term memory.
Answer A is correct. Long-term potentiation was first observed in the hippocampus and has been identified as essential for learning and memory formation.
Which of the following areas of the brain are most responsible for implicit memories? A. hippocampus and prefrontal cortex B. mammillary bodies and cerebellum C. basal ganglia and cerebellum D. thalamus and mammillary bodies
Answer C is correct. Knowing that implicit memory includes procedural memories (memories for learned skills and actions) would have helped you identify the basal ganglia and cerebellum as the correct answer since both of these brain areas are involved in the control of motor activities.
Sleep spindles and K complexes are markers of Stage \_\_\_ sleep. A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
Answer B is correct. Theta waves begin in Stage 1 sleep and continue during Stage 2 but are interrupted during Stage 2 by sleep spindles (sudden bursts of moderately fast waves) and K-complexes (large slow waves).
Which of the following is true about REM sleep and dreaming?
A. All dreams occur during REM sleep.
B. Most dreams occur during REM sleep and are more vivid than those that occur during non-REM sleep.
C. Most dreams occur during REM sleep but are similar in content to those that occur during non-REM sleep.
D. Dreams are equally common during REM and slow-wave sleep but are more likely to be recalled when they occur during REM sleep.
Answer B is correct. Most dreams occur during REM sleep and are more vivid, bizarre, and detailed than those that occur during non-REM sleep.
Which of the following is true about the sleep patterns of older (versus younger) adults?
A. Older adults spend more time in Stage 3 and Stage 4 sleep.
B. Older adults experience more REM sleep in the second half of the sleep period.
C. Older adults often experience an advanced sleep phase.
D. Older adults often begin a sleep period with REM sleep.
Answer C is correct. Compared to younger adults, older adults spend less time in deep sleep (especially Stage 4 sleep), experience more evenly distributed REM sleep throughout the night, and experience an advanced sleep phase, which involves going to sleep earlier in the evening and waking up earlier.
Which of the following attributes the experience of emotion to physiological arousal followed by assigning a cognitive label to that arousal?
A. Schachter and Singer’s two-factor theory
B. Cannon-Bard theory
C. Lazarus’s cognitive appraisal theory
D. Hering’s opponent process theory
Answer A is correct. Two-factor theory is also known as cognitive arousal theory and describes the experience of emotion as the result of physiological arousal and assigning a cognitive label (attribution) to the arousal.
According to Lazarus’s (1991) cognitive appraisal theory, secondary appraisal involves:
A. determining if an event is irrelevant, benign-positive, or stressful.
B. re-evaluating a primary appraisal when additional information is obtained.
C. considering what coping options are available for dealing with a stressful event.
D. determining if an emotional response to an event is appropriate.
Answer C is correct. Cognitive appraisal theory distinguishes between three types of appraisal: primary arousal, secondary arousal, and reappraisal. Secondary appraisal involves considering what coping options are available to deal with a stressful event.
The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is responsible for attaching emotions to memories. A. amygdala B. hippocampus C. thalamus D. cingulate gyrus
Answer A is correct. The amygdala is involved in several aspects of emotion including attaching emotions to memories.
A psychology undergraduate tells his roommate who’s depressed that, if he smiles more often, he’ll feel a lot better. The student’s suggestion is consistent with the predictions of which of the following?
A. Cannon-Bard theory
B. two-factor theory
C. James-Lange theory
D. cognitive appraisal theory
Answer C is correct. The student’s suggestion is consistent with James-Lange theory, which proposes that people conclude that they’re sad because they cry, and scared because their hearts are pounding.
Damage to certain areas of the left (dominant) hemisphere are most likely to cause:
A. inappropriate rage and aggression.
B. inappropriate euphoria.
C. an indifference reaction.
D. a catastrophic reaction.
Answer D is correct. Areas in the left (dominant) hemisphere mediate happiness and other positive emotions, and damage to these areas produces a “catastrophic reaction” that involves depression, anxiety, fear, and paranoia.
Parkinson’s disease has been linked to a degeneration of dopamine-producing cells in the: A. amygdala. B. suprachiasmatic nucleus. C. pons. D. substantia nigra.
Answer D is correct. Parkinson’s disease is due to a loss of dopamine-producing cells in the substantia nigra.
Migraine headaches have been linked to abnormal levels of: A. norepinephrine. B. serotonin. C. glutamate. D. acetylcholine.
Answer B is correct. The cause of migraine headaches is not totally understood, but they have been linked to a low level of serotonin.
Loss of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ neurons in the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is believed to contribute to depression and cognitive impairment in patients with Parkinson’s disease. A. dopamine; striatum B. norepinephrine; striatum C. dopamine; locus coeruleus D. norepinephrine; locus coeruleus
Answer D is correct. The locus coeruleus is located in the brain stem and produces much of the brain’s norepinephrine. A loss of norepinephrine neurons in this area of the brain has been linked to several of the non-motor symptoms associated with Parkinson’s disease including depression, cognitive deficits, and sleep disturbances.
Which of the following types of seizures involves a very brief loss of consciousness with a blank stare? A. focal onset impaired awareness B. generalized onset non-motor C. tonic D. clonic
Answer B is correct. Generalized onset non-motor seizures are also known as absence seizures and involve a very brief loss of consciousness with a blank or absent stare and few or no other symptoms.
Which of the following symptoms is least characteristic of hypothyroidism? A. decreased libido B. confusion C. heat intolerance D. unexplained weight gain
Answer C is correct. Heat intolerance is characteristic of hyperthyroidism, while cold intolerance is characteristic of hypothyroidism.
Idris is in a serious car accident that causes a traumatic brain injury. After regaining consciousness in the hospital, Idris has anterograde amnesia and retrograde amnesia that affects memories for the ten months prior to the accident. When Idris’s long-term memories begin to return, he’s most likely to recall which of the following first?
A. his sister’s graduation from college nine months ago
B. the fight he had with his parents about his financial situation six months ago
C. the birthday dinner he had with a close friend one week before the accident
D. where he was going when he was in the accident
Answer A is correct. When retrograde amnesia occurs as the result of a traumatic brain injury, recent memories are affected more than remote memories; and, when lost memories begin to return, those from the most distant past are recovered first.
Bupropion (Wellbutrin) and other antidepressants that __________ have an energizing (stimulating) effect.
A. increase norepinephrine and dopamine levels
B. decrease norepinephrine and increase dopamine levels
C. increase norepinephrine and decrease dopamine levels
D. decrease norepinephrine and dopamine levels
Answer A is correct. Bupropion and other antidepressants that increase levels of norepinephrine and dopamine have an energizing effect, which means they are useful for patients with depression who have low energy and motivation.
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ may develop after long-term use of a first-generation antipsychotic and begins with involuntary movements of the tongue, face, and jaw. A. Metabolic syndrome B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome C. Dystonia D. Tardive dyskinesia
Answer D is correct. Tardive dyskinesia is potentially life threatening and begins after long-term antipsychotic use. It starts with involuntary, rhythmic movements of the tongue, face, and jaw and, over time, may also affect the limbs and trunk. (Second-generation antipsychotics may produce tardive dyskinesia but do so less often than first-generation antipsychotics do.)
Compared to first-generation antipsychotics, second-generation antipsychotics are:
A. less effective for reducing the positive symptoms of schizophrenia but more effective for reducing the negative symptoms.
B. more effective for reducing the positive symptoms of schizophrenia but less effective for reducing the negative symptoms.
C. as effective or more effective for reducing the positive symptoms of schizophrenia and more effective for reducing the negative symptoms.
D. more effective for reducing the positive symptoms of schizophrenia and equally effective for reducing the negative symptoms.
Answer C is correct. The research has not produced entirely consistent results, but the best conclusion is that the SGAs are as effective as or more effective than the FGAs for reducing the positive symptoms of schizophrenia and more effective for reducing the negative symptoms.
A person who takes an SSRI concomitantly with an MAOI may develop serotonin syndrome, which is characterized by:
A. agitation, hyperthermia, and autonomic instability.
B. substantial weight gain, hypertension, and hyperglycemia.
C. throbbing headache, stiff neck, and light sensitivity.
D. parkinsonism, akathisia, and dystonia.
Answer A is correct. Combining an SSRI with an MAOI, lithium, or other serotonergic drug can cause serotonin syndrome, which is potentially fatal and involves restlessness and extreme agitation, confusion, autonomic instability, hyperthermia, tremor, seizures, and delirium.
Which of the following antidepressants is least likely to have an adverse impact on sexual functioning? A. fluoxetine B. phenelzine C. paroxetine D. bupropion
Answer D is correct. An advantage of bupropion (an NDRI) is that it does not cause sexual dysfunction. In fact, it is sometimes used in conjunction with an SSRI to help relieve sexual dysfunction caused by fluoxetine, paroxetine, or other SSRI. (Phenelzine is an MAOI that can also cause sexual dysfunction.)
Clozapine and other second-generation antipsychotics are:
A. dopamine and serotonin agonists.
B. dopamine and serotonin antagonists.
C. dopamine agonists and serotonin antagonists.
D. dopamine antagonists and serotonin agonists.
Answer B is correct: Second-generation (atypical) antipsychotics alleviate the symptoms of schizophrenia by blocking dopamine and serotonin receptors, which means that they act as dopamine and serotonin antagonists. (Antagonists exert their therapeutic effects by blocking or reducing the effects of a neurotransmitter or agonist at receptor sites.)
