Learning and memory quiz prpjet Flashcards

1
Q

When using implosive therapy, the client’s image of:
A. a stimulus associated with the problem behavior is paired with an image of a scene that naturally elicits relaxation.
B. a stimulus associated with the problem behavior is paired with an image of a stimulus that naturally produces an incompatible and undesirable response.
C. a feared stimulus is embellished by the therapist with psychodynamic themes.
D. a feared stimulus is embellished with a “relief scene.”

A

Answer C is correct. Implosive therapy is a type of exposure that’s always conducted in imagination and incorporates psychodynamic elements.

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2
Q

Davidson and Parker’s (2013) meta-analysis of the research suggests that the effectiveness of EMDR is due to:
A. replacement of dysfunctional thoughts with more adaptive ones.
B. the acquisition of adequate coping skills.
C. replacement of the fear response with an incompatible response.
D. repeated exposure to the feared object or event.

A

Answer D is correct. Based on their review of the research, Davidson and Parker (2013) concluded that eye movements do not add to the effectiveness of EMDR and that its effectiveness is attributable to repeated exposure to the feared object or event in imagination.

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3
Q
To eliminate a client’s nail-biting, a therapist instructs her to paint her nails with a foul-tasting substance. The therapist is using which of the following interventions?
A. aversion therapy
B. implosive therapy
C. reciprocal inhibition
D. covert sensitization
A

Answer A is correct. When using aversion therapy, a stimulus associated with the problem behavior (or the problem behavior itself) is paired with an unconditioned stimulus that naturally produces an unpleasant response that’s incompatible with that behavior. In the situation described in this question, nail-biting is the CS, while the foul-tasting substance is the US that causes nausea or other unpleasant response (the UR). As a result of pairing nail-biting with the foul-tasting substance, nail-biting will stop because it has become associated with an unpleasant response (CR).

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4
Q

When using covert sensitization, the client’s image of:
A. a stimulus associated with the problem behavior is paired with an image of a scene that naturally elicits relaxation.
B. a stimulus associated with the problem behavior is paired with an image of a stimulus that naturally produces an incompatible and undesirable response.
C. a feared stimulus is embellished by the therapist with psychodynamic themes.
D. a feared stimulus is embellished with a “relief scene.”

A

Answer B is correct. Covert sensitization is a type of aversion therapy (aversive counterconditioning) that’s conducted in imagination and involves pairing presentation of the stimulus (CS) associated with the problem behavior with a stimulus (US) that naturally elicits an incompatible and undesirable response.

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5
Q
Research using the dismantling strategy has found that \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is responsible for the beneficial effects of systematic desensitization.
A. reciprocal inhibition
B. response prevention
C. extinction
D. higher-order conditioning
A

Answer C is correct. Wolpe viewed reciprocal inhibition (counterconditioning) to be responsible for the effectiveness of systematic desensitization, but studies using the dismantling strategy have found extinction (repeated exposure to the CS without the US) to be the curative factor.

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6
Q
Whenever Charlie, a chronic user of an opioid drug, stops taking the drug, he quickly develops withdrawal symptoms and starts taking the drug again. In this situation, Charlie’s drug use is being maintained by which of the following?
A. positive punishment
B. negative punishment
C. positive reinforcement
D. negative reinforcement
A

Answer D is correct. Negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior increases or continues because a stimulus is removed following the behavior. In the situation described in this question, Charlie continues taking the drug because it stops his withdrawal symptoms.

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7
Q
Which of the following reinforcement schedules is likely to produce the fastest rate of acquisition of a behavior and the greatest resistance to extinction?
A. fixed ratio
B. variable ratio
C. fixed interval
D. variable interval
A

Answer B is correct. Of the four intermittent schedules, the variable ratio (VR) schedule produces the highest rate of responding and greatest resistance to extinction. The effectiveness of this schedule is evidenced by gambling – e.g., when playing a slot machine, a person continues playing because he/she is being reinforced on a variable ratio schedule.

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8
Q

With regard to stimulus control, a negative discriminative stimulus:
A. is a secondary reinforcer.
B. is a backup reinforcer.
C. signals that a behavior will not be reinforced.
D. signals that a behavior will be followed by negative (but not positive) punishment.

A

Answer C is correct. A negative discriminative stimulus signals that reinforcement will not be provided following performance of a particular behavior, while a positive discriminative stimulus signals that reinforcement will be provided.

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9
Q
The matching law is useful for understanding the effects of rate of reinforcement on:
A. rate of responding.
B. susceptibility to extinction.
C. stimulus discrimination.
D. stimulus generalization.
A

Answer A is correct. According to the matching law, when two or more behaviors are concurrently reinforced on different schedules, the rate of performing each behavior is proportional to the frequency of the reinforcement.

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10
Q

A behavior that’s acquired as the result of avoidance conditioning is not likely to extinguish because it’s being:
A. maintained by positive reinforcement.
B. maintained by negative reinforcement.
C. reinforced on a variable ratio schedule.
D. reinforced on a variable interval schedule.

A

Answer B is correct. Avoidance conditioning occurs when a stimulus signals that an unpleasant stimulus is about to be applied and a behavior increases because it allows the individual to avoid the unpleasant stimulus. In this situation, the individual’s behavior is being negatively reinforced.

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11
Q

Differential reinforcement combines:
A. stimulus control and positive reinforcement.
B. stimulus control and negative reinforcement.
C. extinction and positive reinforcement.
D. extinction and negative reinforcement.

A

Answer C is correct. Differential reinforcement combines extinction of an undesirable behavior with reinforcement for desired behaviors.

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12
Q
The two forms of overcorrection are:
A. restitution and positive practice.
B. restitution and graded practice.
C. shaping and positive practice.
D. shaping and graded practice.
A

Answer A is correct. Overcorrection consists of two procedures that can be used alone or together – restitution and positive practice.

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13
Q
A rat is trained to press a lever to obtain food by first providing food when it’s facing the lever, then only when it’s facing the lever and is close to it, then only when it’s facing the lever and is next to it, then only when it touches the lever with its paw, and then only when it presses the lever. The technique being used to train the rat to press the lever is which of the following?
A. chaining
B. shaping
C. discrimination training
D. differential reinforcement
A

Answer B is correct. Shaping is also known as successive approximation conditioning because it involves providing reinforcement only for behaviors that come closer and closer to the desired behavior.

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14
Q
In a facility for adults with schizophrenia, patients earn tokens when they engage in desirable behaviors and lose tokens when they engage in undesirable behaviors. Losing tokens is an example of which of the following?
A. differential reinforcement
B. Premack principle
C. secondary reinforcement
D. response cost
A

Answer D is correct. Response cost is an application of negative punishment and involves removing a specific reinforcer (e.g., tokens) following a behavior in order to decrease that behavior.

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15
Q
Access to a preferred activity is contingent on performance of a less preferred activity when using which of the following?
A. response cost
B. differential reinforcement
C. Premack principle
D. chaining
A

Answer C is correct. When using the Premack principle, a high frequency or preferred behavior is used as reinforcement for a low frequency or less preferred behavior in order to increase the low frequency behavior.

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16
Q
As described by Baddeley (2000), the phonological loop and visuo-spatial sketchpad are components of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ memory.
A. procedural
B. prospective
C. working
D. sensory
A

Answer C is correct. According to Baddeley, the working memory aspect of short-term memory consists of a central executive and three subsystems – a phonological loop, a visuo-spatial sketchpad, and an episodic buffer.

17
Q
Miller (1956) proposed that the capacity of short-term memory is fixed at \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ bits of information.
A. 7 +/- 2
B. 9 +/- 2
C. 7 +/- 3
D. 9 +/- 3
A

Answer A is correct. Miller proposed that between 5 and 9 (7+ 2) bits of information can be held in short-term memory.

18
Q
As described by Albert Bandura (1986), observational learning involves four processes, which include all of the following except:
A. motivation.
B. attention.
C. retention.
D. preparation.
A

Answer D is correct. Bandura concluded that observational learning depends on four mediational processes – attention, retention, production, and motivation.

19
Q

When using an acronym to memorize a list of words, you create:
A. a sentence using words that each start with the first letter of a different word in the list.
B. a word or pronounceable non-word from the first letter of each word in the list.
C. a visual image that links each word to a different object in a familiar location.
D. a visual image that links each word to another word in the word list.

A

Answer B is correct. Acronyms are also referred to as first letter mnemonics and involve creating a word or pronounceable non-word from the first letter of each word you’re trying to remember.

20
Q
The distinction between which of the following has been used to explain the serial position effect?
A. retrospective and prospective memory
B. iconic and echoic memory
C. short- and long-term memory
D. secondary and tertiary memory
A

Answer C is correct. When individuals are given a list of words to memorize and then immediately asked to recall as many words as possible, they usually exhibit both primacy and recency effects – i.e., they recall more words from the beginning and end of the list than words from the middle of the list. This serial position effect apparently occurs because words from the beginning of the list are in long-term memory and words from the end of the list are in short-term memory.

21
Q
Thomas just started his new job as a neuropsychologist at a thriving practice in Austin, Texas. During his internship, he was told to say "good job" whenever a patient performed well on a section or item of a neuropsychological test. However, during the orientation for his new position, the head clinical neuropsychologist told him to give patients feedback only at the end of the testing session. During his first neuropsychological evaluation at his new job, Thomas says “good job” whenever the patient gives the correct or preferred answer. This illustrates which of the following?
A. retroactive interference
B. proactive interference
C. the primacy effect
D. the recency effect
A

Answer B is correct. When distinguishing between proactive and retroactive interference, you want to determine what caused the interference. In the situation described in this question, previously learned information interfered with more recent information – and you can use the “pr” in previously to recognize that proactive interference occurred. (Retroactive interference occurs when recently acquired information is the source of interference.)