Research Methods / Stats Prpjet Quizes Flashcards

1
Q
Psychology 101 students are assigned ranks based on their total scores on a 50-item midterm exam. The ranks represent a(n) \_\_\_\_\_ scale of measurement.
A. nominal
B. interval
C. ratio
D. ordinal
A

Answer D is correct. Ranks are a type of ordinal score – i.e., when scores are reported as ranks, it’s possible to conclude that one rank is higher or lower than another but it’s not possible to conclude that the differences between adjacent ranks are equal. For example, if students with the three highest midterm scores obtained scores of 50, 49, and 45, the student who received the score of 50 would be assigned a rank of 1, the student who received the score of 49 would be assigned a rank of 2, and the student who received the score of 45 would be assigned a rank of 3. In this situation, there’s only a one point score difference between the ranks of 1 and 2 but a four point score difference between the ranks of 2 and 3.

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2
Q
The mode, median, and mean for a distribution of final exam scores are 75, 50, and 35, respectively. Based on this information, you can conclude that this distribution is:
A. positively skewed.
B. negatively skewed.
C. leptokurtic.
D. platykurtic.
A

Answer B is correct. When the mode (the most frequent score) has the highest value and the mean (the arithmetic average) has the lowest value, this means that most scores are “piled up” in the positive side of the distribution and only a relatively few scores are in the negative tail. When this occurs, the distribution is negatively skewed.

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3
Q
A school psychologist designs a study to determine if student gender and grade level are related to the number of interactions male and female teachers have with their students. This study has \_\_\_ independent variables and \_\_\_ dependent variable(s).
A. 2; 1
B. 2; 2
C. 3; 1
D. 3; 2
A

Answer C is correct. If you’re having trouble distinguishing between a study’s independent and dependent variables, remember that the independent variable is believed to have an effect on the dependent variable and that, for questions like this one, anything that varies will be either an independent or dependent variable. Converting the information given in the description of the study to the following question might be helpful: “What are the effects of the [independent variable(s)] on the [dependent variable(s)]?” For this study, the question is, “What are the effects of the student gender, student grade level, and teacher gender on number of teacher-student interactions? In other words, this study has three independent variables (student gender, student grade level, and teacher gender) and one dependent variable (number of teacher-student interactions).

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4
Q
A distribution of scores has a mean of 60 and standard deviation of 5 and scores are normally distributed. Based on this information, you can conclude that about \_\_\_% of scores fall between the scores of 50 and 70.
A. 50
B. 68
C. 95
D. 99
A

Answer C is correct. In this distribution, the scores of 50 and 70 are minus and plus two standard deviations from the mean. In a normal distribution, about 95% of scores fall between the scores that are minus and plus two standard deviations from the mean.

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5
Q
A sociologist proposes that the reason why people living below the poverty level have worse outcomes even for relatively minor health problems is because they have little or no access to adequate healthcare. In this situation, lack of access to healthcare is a(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ variable.
A. moderator
B. mediator
C. control
D. outcome
A

Answer B is correct. Mediator variables explain the relationship between independent and dependent variables. In the situation described in this question, the psychologist believes that lack of access to adequate healthcare explains the relationship between poverty and health outcomes.

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6
Q

The Solomon four-group design is used to:
A. evaluate the effects of pretesting.
B. reduce the effects of multiple treatment interference.
C. ensure that groups are similar at the beginning of the study.
D. reduce experimenter expectancy effects.

A

Answer A is correct. The Solomon four-group design is used to identify the effects of pretesting on a study’s internal and external validity.

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7
Q
A researcher conducted a study to assess the effects of cognitive behavior therapy for treating depression in adolescents by comparing it to nondirective supportive therapy. Fifty adolescents who recently received a diagnosis of major depressive disorder were randomly assigned to one of the two therapies. Each participant’s level of depression was assessed at the beginning of treatment and one month after treatment ended. The results indicated that adolescents in both groups improved to the same degree in terms of depressive symptoms. Which of the following is the biggest threat to this study’s internal validity?
A. differential selection
B. reactivity
C. maturation
D. instrumentation
A

Answer C is correct. The lack of difference in the outcomes for the two groups in this study could be due to the fact that the treatments were equally effective or to maturation since symptoms of major depressive disorder tend to decline in severity or remit over time with or without treatment.

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8
Q

The best way to reduce the effects of differential selection on the results of a research study is to:
A. randomly select subjects from the population.
B. randomly assign subjects to the treatment groups.
C. use the single-blind technique.
D. use the double-blind technique.

A

Answer B is correct. Differential selection occurs when subjects in different groups differ at the beginning of a study in a way that affects the results of the study, and this difference is due to the way that subjects were assigned to the groups. The best way to control differential selection is to randomly assign subjects to groups, which helps ensure that subjects in the different groups are similar at the beginning of the study.

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9
Q
Counterbalancing is most useful for controlling which of the following threats to external validity?
A. reactivity
B. selection-treatment interaction
C. multiple treatment interference
D. pretest sensitization
A

Answer C is correct. Counterbalancing is used to control multiple treatment interference, which may occur whenever each participant receives multiple levels of the independent variable. It involves administering the levels in a different order to different groups of subjects.

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10
Q
To evaluate a brief intervention for improving the social skills of adolescents with autism spectrum disorder, a researcher administers a measure of social skills to a sample of adolescents with this diagnosis, chooses the adolescents with the lowest scores on this measure to participate in the intervention, and then re-administers the measure of social skills one week after the adolescents have participated in the intervention. The biggest threat to the internal validity of this study is:
A. instrumentation.
B. reactivity.
C. pretest sensitization.
D. statistical regression.
A

Answer D is correct. Statistical regression threatens a study’s internal validity whenever subjects are chosen because of their extreme scores on a pretest. Because this study included only adolescents with the lowest scores on the measure of social skills, their scores on the posttest measure of social skills are likely to improve somewhat just because of statistical regression.

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11
Q

An advantage of the multiple baseline across behaviors design over the ABAB design is that it:
A. helps the researcher determine if there’s a causal relationship between the independent and dependent variables.
B. doesn’t require the researcher to withdraw a treatment from a behavior during the course of the study once it’s been applied to that behavior.
C. allows the researcher to compare the effectiveness of two different treatments during the course of the study.
D. doesn’t require the behavior to exhibit a stable pattern during the baseline phase before the treatment is applied to that behavior.

A

Answer B is correct. The multiple-baseline across behaviors design involves sequentially applying a treatment to two or more behaviors. An advantage of this design is that, once the treatment has been applied to a behavior, it continues being applied to that behavior for the duration of the study.

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12
Q

A psychologist conducts a study to evaluate the effects of type of workshop (face-to-face and online) and level of motivation (high, average, and low) on mock EPPP scores. The results indicate that there are statistically significant main effects of both independent variables and a statistically significant interaction. When interpreting these results, the psychologist will conclude which of the following?
A. Both types of workshop are effective regardless of a person’s level of motivation.
B. Both types of workshop are ineffective regardless of a person’s level of motivation.
C. The most effective type of workshop is the same regardless of a person’s level of motivation.
D. The most effective type of workshop depends on the person’s level of motivation.

A

Answer D is correct. The interaction between type of workshop and motivation is statistically significant, which means that the effects of type of workshop differ for different levels of motivation. For example, the face-to-face workshop might be more effective for people with low motivation, while the online workshop is more effective for people with moderate or high motivation.

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13
Q
Like the AB single-subject design, the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ group design involves measuring the dependent variable measure multiple times before and after applying the independent variable.
A. Solomon four-group
B. factorial
C. counterbalanced
D. time-series
A

Answer D is correct. The AB single-subject design has a single baseline (no treatment) phase that is followed by a single treatment phase. Like the time-series group design, it involves measuring the dependent variable multiple times before and after the independent variable (treatment) is applied.

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14
Q
To obtain a sample for her study, a researcher randomly selects 25 schools from the 90 schools in a single school district and then interviews all teachers in each selected school. The researcher has used which of the following sampling methods?
A. stratified sampling
B. cluster sampling
C. systematic sampling
D. convenience sampling
A

Answer B is correct. Cluster sampling involves randomly selecting a sample of clusters from all of the clusters in the designated population (e.g., schools in a school district) and then either including in the study all individuals in each selected cluster or a random sample of individuals in each selected cluster.

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15
Q

The primary characteristic that distinguishes true experimental research from quasi-experimental research is that, when conducting a true experimental research study, the researcher is able to:
A. randomly select subjects from the population.
B. randomly assign subjects to different treatment groups.
C. use a parametric statistical test to analyze the data.
D. use a nonparametric statistical test to analyze the data.

A

Answer B is correct. True experimental research allows researchers to control many aspects of their studies, which allows them to determine if observed changes in the dependent variable were caused by the independent variable. The most important aspect of this control is the ability to randomly assign subjects to different treatment groups, which helps ensure that groups are equivalent at the beginning of the study. (The appropriate use of a parametric or nonparametric statistical test depends primarily on the type of data that is to be analyzed, not whether the study was true or quasi-experimental.)

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16
Q
Which of the following types of qualitative research is likely to be most useful for gaining an understanding of the daily experiences of family members after one member receives a diagnosis of schizophrenia?
A. thematic analysis
B. ethnography
C. phenomenology
D. grounded theory
A

Answer C is correct. The purpose of research using a phenomenological approach is to gain an in-depth understanding of the “lived experience” of the study’s participants.

17
Q
To determine the relationship between cigarette smoking and absence from work, Dr. Nunez obtains a sample of employees who are either smokers or nonsmokers and determines the number of days each employee was absent from work the previous year. Dr. Nunez will use which of the following to calculate the correlation between these two variables?
A. Pearson r
B. Spearman rho
C. point biserial coefficient
D. contingency coefficient
A

Answer C is correct. The point biserial coefficient is used when one variable is a true dichotomy (smokers versus nonsmokers) and the other is continuous (number of days absent from work). (A useful mnemonic for distinguishing between the point biserial and biserial coefficients is to use the “t” in point as a reminder that the point biserial coefficient is used when one variable is a true dichotomy.)

18
Q
For a sample of middle school students with high IQs, the correlation between IQ scores and achievement test scores is .35. If the correlation between IQ scores and achievement test scores is calculated for a sample of middle school students whose IQs represent the full range of IQ scores, the correlation coefficient is likely to be:
A. .35
B. larger than .35.
C. smaller than .35.
D. smaller or larger than .35
A

Answer B is correct. The scores used to obtain the original correlation coefficient had a restriction in range because the sample included only students with high IQs. A restricted range of scores tends to lower the correlation coefficient, so recalculating the coefficient for students with an unrestricted range is likely to produce a larger correlation coefficient.

19
Q
When two variables are measured on a continuous scale and the relationship between the variables is nonlinear, you would use which of the following to determine the degree of association between the variables?
A. eta coefficient
B. contingency coefficient
C. biserial coefficient
D. Pearson r
A

Answer A is correct. Eta is the alternative to the Pearson r for calculating the correlation between two continuous variables when the variables have a nonlinear relationship.

20
Q
A psychologist finds that the relationship between physiological arousal and motor performance for a sample of athletes is .40. This means that \_\_\_% of variability in motor performance is explained by variability in physiological arousal.
A. 60
B. 40
C. 36
D. 16
A

Answer D is correct. A correlation coefficient between two different variables can be squared to calculate the coefficient of determination, which indicates the amount of variability in one variable that’s explained by variability in the other variable. The psychologist obtained a correlation of .40 between arousal and motor performance, and .40 squared is .16. This means that 16% of variability in motor performance is explained by variability in arousal.

21
Q
Which of the following is the appropriate technique for using measures of severity of depression, anxiety, drug/alcohol use, and cognitive impairment to classify individuals with major depressive disorder as being at risk or not at risk for suicide?
A. regression analysis
B. multiple regression
C. canonical correlation
D. discriminant function analysis
A

Answer D is correct. Discriminant function analysis is the appropriate multivariate technique when two or more predictors will be used to estimate status on one nominal (grouping) variable.

22
Q
The probability of making a Type II error equals which of the following?
A. alpha
B. beta
C. one minus alpha
D. one minus beta
A

Answer B is correct. The probability of making a Type II error is equal to beta which is not set by the researcher but can be reduced by increasing statistical power.

23
Q
A Type I error occurs when a researcher:
A. retains a true null hypothesis.
B. retains a false null hypothesis.
C. rejects a true null hypothesis.
D. rejects a false null hypothesis.
A

Answer C is correct. When a researcher rejects a true null hypothesis, the researcher has concluded that the independent variable has had a significant effect on the dependent variable, but the observed effect is actually due to sampling error or other factors. This type of incorrect decision is known as a Type I error.

24
Q

The central limit theorem predicts that the sampling distribution of means increasingly approaches normal as the:
A. number of samples increases regardless of the shape of the population distribution.
B. size of the sample increases regardless of the shape of the population distribution.
C. number of samples increases only when the population distribution is normal.
D. size of the sample increases only when the population distribution is normal.

A

Answer B is correct. The central limit theorem predicts that the sampling distribution of means increasingly approaches a normal shape as the size of the sample increases, regardless of the shape of the population distribution of scores.

25
Q
Statistical power refers to the ability to:
A. retain a null hypothesis.
B. retain a true null hypothesis.
C. reject a null hypothesis.
D. reject a false null hypothesis.
A

Answer D is correct. Statistical power refers to the ability to reject a false null hypothesis, which is ordinarily what a researcher wants to do.

26
Q

To calculate the standard error of means you need which of the following?
A. sample mean and standard deviation
B. sample mean and sample size
C. population standard deviation and sample size
D. population mean and standard deviation

A

Answer C is correct. The central limit theorem predicts that the standard deviation of the sampling distribution (also known as the standard error of means) is equal to the population standard deviation divided by the square root of the sample size.

27
Q

Changing alpha from .05 to .01:
A. increases the probability of making a Type I error and decreases the probability of making a Type II error.
B. decreases the probability of making a Type I error and increases the probability of making a Type II error.
C. increases the probability of making a Type I error and Type II error.
D. decreases the probability of making a Type I error and Type II error.

A

Answer B is correct. Knowing that changing the size of alpha has opposite effects on the chance of making a Type I and Type II error would have allowed you to eliminate answers C and D. Then knowing that a Type I error occurs when a true null hypothesis is rejected and that decreasing alpha makes it harder to reject a null hypothesis whether it is true or false would have helped you identify answer B as the correct answer: Decreasing alpha decreases the probability of making a Type I error (rejecting a true null hypothesis) and, conversely, increases the probability of making a Type II error (retaining a false null hypothesis).

28
Q

An advantage of using the Bonferroni procedure and the Tukey HSD test and other post hoc tests is that they:
A. increase statistical power.
B. reduce statistical power.
C. reduce the probability of making a Type I error.
D. reduce the probability of making Type I and Type II errors.

A

Answer C is correct. Knowing that the Bonferroni procedure and the Tukey HSD test and other post hoc tests reduce the experimentwise error rate and that the experimentwise error rate refers to a Type I error would have helped you identify answer C as the correct answer. Answer A is incorrect because post hoc tests reduce the experimentwise error rate by reducing alpha for each test, and reducing alpha reduces statistical power (i.e., a smaller alpha makes it harder to reject the null hypothesis whether it is true or false). Answer B is incorrect because, although these tests reduce statistical power, this question is asking for an advantage of these tests and reducing power is a disadvantage – not an advantage – of using them. Answer D is incorrect because changing the size of alpha has opposite effects on the chances of making Type I and Type II errors. In other words, reducing alpha decreases the probability of making a Type I error and increases the probability of making a Type II error, and vice versa.

29
Q
To compare the mean achievement test score obtained by a sample of sixth-grade students in one school district in California to the mean achievement test score of all sixth-grade students in California, you would use which of the following?
A. single-sample chi-square test
B. factorial ANOVA
C. t-test for related samples
D. t-test for a single sample
A

Answer D is correct. The t-test for a single sample is used to compare a sample mean to a known population mean.

30
Q
A Cohen’s d of .6 suggests that a treatment has had:
A. no effect.
B. a small effect.
C. a medium effect.
D. a large effect.
A

Answer C is correct. As described by Cohen (1969), a d less than .2 indicates the treatment had a small effect, a d between .2 and .8 indicates the treatment had a medium effect, and a d larger than .8 indicates the treatment had a large effect.

31
Q
Dr. Bashir conducts a study to compare the effects of in vivo exposure, imaginal exposure, and virtual reality exposure for clinic clients with claustrophobia on three physiological measures of arousal and a self-report measure of anxiety. Which of the following statistical tests is Dr. Bashir most likely to use to analyze the data she obtains?
A. randomized block ANOVA
B. factorial ANOVA
C. MANOVA
D. mixed ANOVA
A

Answer C is correct. The MANOVA (multivariate analysis of variance) is the appropriate statistical test when a study includes one or more independent variables and two or more dependent variables.

32
Q
The numerator of the F-ratio produced by a one-way ANOVA is referred to as \_\_\_\_\_\_ and is a measure of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. MSW; treatment effects plus error
B. MSB; treatment effects plus error
C. MSW; error only
D. MSB; error only
A

Answer B is correct. The F-ratio is calculated by dividing MSB (mean square between) by MSW (mean square within). MSB is a measure of variability in dependent variable scores that’s due to treatment effects plus error, while MSW is a measure of variability due to error only.

33
Q
An investigator would use Jacobson and Truax’s reliable change index (RCI) to determine if the difference between an individual’s pre- and posttreatment scores on a measure of symptom severity is:
A. due to measurement error.
B. due to sampling error.
C. a significant effect size.
D. practically significant.
A

Answer A is correct. A reliable change index is used to determine if a difference in an individual’s pretreatment and posttreatment test scores is statistically reliable – i.e., the extent to which the change is due to actual change rather than measurement error. It is part of the Jacobson-Truax method which is used to determine if an intervention has clinical significance.

34
Q
A psychologist wants to compare the number of therapy clients who have just received a diagnosis of specific phobia who say they prefer in vivo exposure, imaginal exposure, or virtual reality exposure as part of their treatment. The psychologist will use which of the following to make this comparison?
A. single-sample chi-square test
B. multiple-sample chi-square test
C. one-way ANOVA
D. three-way ANOVA
A

Answer A is correct. This study includes only one variable (type of exposure) which is measured on a nominal scale. Consequently, the appropriate statistical test is the single-sample chi-square test.

35
Q
Which of the following statistical tests is used to control the effects of an extraneous variable on a dependent variable by treating the extraneous variable as an independent variable?
A. split-plot ANOVA
B. factorial ANOVA
C. ANCOVA
D. randomized block ANOVA
A

Answer D is correct. The randomized block ANOVA is used to control the effects of an extraneous variable on a dependent variable by including it as independent variable so that its main and interaction effects on the dependent variable can be determined.