Psych Assessment Quiz Prpjet Flashcards
The research has found that child custody litigants often respond to MMPI-2 items in a defensive way that’s indicated by:
A. a higher than normal score on the F scale and lower scores on the L and K scales.
B. a lower than normal score on the S scale and higher scores on the F and L scales.
C. higher than normal scores on the L and K scales and a lower score on the F scale.
D. higher than normal scores on the S and F scales and lower scores on the L and K scales.
Answer C is correct. Even if you’re unfamiliar with research on the MMPI-2 scores of child custody litigants, you would have been able to identify answer C as the correct answer as long as you noticed that the question states that these individuals often respond to items in a defensive way and know that high scores on the L, K, and S scales suggest defensiveness (an attempt to “fake good”), while a high score on the F scale suggests an attempt to “fake bad.”
The three-point code known as the psychotic valley consists of which of the following?
A. elevated scores on scales 1 and 3 with a lower score on scale 2
B. elevated scores on scales 6 and 8 with a lower score on scale 7
C. elevated scores on scales 1, 2, and 3
D. elevated scores on scales 6, 7, and 8
Answer B is correct. The psychotic valley is also known as the psychotic V, and these names suggest that the code consists of two high scores and one lower score, which eliminates answers C and D. Answer A is the conversion V code which is associated with the expression of psychological symptoms as somatic complaints. Answer B (the correct answer) is the psychotic V code and is associated with delusions, hallucinations, paranoia, and disordered thought. Even if you’re unfamiliar with the psychotic V, knowing that the V refers to the presence of two high scores with a lower score and that scale 8 is the Schizophrenia scale would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
A 21-year-old man is extraverted and talkative and has a history of impulsive and criminal behaviors that began during his pre-adolescent years. He will most likely obtain elevated scores on which of the following MMPI-2 clinical scales? A. 1(Hs) and 3(Hy) B. 1(Hs) and 6(Pa) C. 0(Si) and 4(Pd) D. 4(Pd) and 9(Ma)
Answer D is correct. It makes sense that a person with a history of criminal behaviors will obtain an elevated score on scale 4, which is the Psychopathic Deviate (PD) scale. This narrows the choices to answers C and D: Answer C can be eliminated because scale 0 is the Social Introversion scale. A high score on this scale indicates social discomfort and withdrawal, but this young man is extraverted and talkative. That leaves answer D which is elevated scores on the Psychopathic Deviate and Hypomania scales. Individuals with high scores on these scales have antisocial tendencies and are manipulative, impulsive, and extraverted.
Theo, age 35, lost sensory and motor functioning in his left hand after being in a car accident that killed his best friend. His physician has found no medical explanation for Theo’s symptoms. On the MMPI-2, Theo is most likely to obtain which of the following?
A. elevated scores on scales 1 and 3 with a lower score on scale 2
B. elevated scores on scales 6 and 8 with a lower score on scale 7
C. elevated scores on scales 2, 4, and 7
D. elevated scores on scales 2, 7, and 8
Answer A is correct. The presence of neurological symptoms without a physical explanation for them is characteristic of conversion disorder and individuals with conversion disorder often obtain the conversion V pattern on the MMPI-2, which is the pattern described in Answer A. Answer B is the psychotic V pattern and is associated with delusions, hallucinations, paranoia, and disordered thought. Answer C is the pattern associated with alcohol and drug abuse, vague somatic complaints, and relationship- and work-related problems. It isn’t the best answer because Theo has a specific somatic complaint rather than vague somatic complaints and the question doesn’t indicate that he has an alcohol or drug problem or interpersonal- or work-related problems. And answer D is the pattern associated with chronic psychological maladjustment, anxiety, depression, internal conflict, and poor self-esteem.
A psychologist interviews 28-year-old Jack who was recently incarcerated. Jack is forthcoming during the interview and is willing to disclose the behaviors that led to his incarceration and other problematic behaviors, and he seems to have previously undiagnosed psychopathology. On the MMPI-2, Jack is most likely to obtain which of the following? A. high L and high K scale scores B. high F and low VRIN scale scores C. low F and low Fb scale scores D. high S and high TRIN scale scores
Answer B is correct. Of the answers given, answer B is the best answer: Individuals who have genuine psychopathology are likely to obtain the combination of a high F scale score and a low VRIN scale score. Answers A and D can be eliminated because high L and high K scale scores indicate an attempt to “fake good,” and a high S scale score similarly indicates denial or defensiveness – but the question indicates that Jack is willing to disclose his problems. Answer C can be eliminated because low F and low Fb scale scores do not indicate that an examinee has answered in a way that suggests actual or faked psychopathology.
Scoring the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) involves considering the hero’s: A. coping strategies. B. needs and press. C. self-concept. D. style of life.
Answer B is correct. Murray’s scoring system for the TAT involves identifying the story’s hero, the hero’s needs and press (internal and external causes of the hero’s behavior), and the outcomes for each story.
Murray’s system of human needs informed the development of which of the following? A. 16 PF and TAT B. EPPS and MBTI C. EPPS and TAT D. NEO-PI-3 and EPPS
Answer C is correct. The development of both the EPPS (Edwards Personal Preference Schedule) and the TAT (Thematic Apperception Test) was based on Murray’s theory of human needs.
The lexical strategy was used in the development of which of the following tests? A. MBTI and EPPS B. 16 PF and NEO-PI-3 C. TAT and MBTI D. 16 PF and EPPS
Answer B is correct. The lexical strategy is based on the assumption that important personality traits are encoded in language. It was used in the development of the 16 PF and the NEO-PI-3.
Confabulation on the Rorschach inkblot test is most likely indicative of: A. concrete thinking. B. impulsivity. C. brain injury. D. perseveration.
Answer C is correct. Confabulation refers to overgeneralizing a part of the inkblot to the whole inkblot and may indicate brain injury, cognitive impairment, or schizophrenia.
Jung’s personality theory was the basis for which of the following tests? A. MBTI B. EPPS C. NEO-PI-3 D. 16 PF
Answer A is correct. The MBTI (Myers-Briggs Type Indicator) is based on Jung’s personality typology.
A 10-year-old child who has received a diagnosis of autism spectrum disorder will most likely receive the highest score on the WISC-V’s ________ Index and lowest score on the ________ Index.
A. Fluid Reasoning; Processing Speed
B. Fluid Reasoning; Working Memory
C. Verbal Comprehension; Working Memory
D. Verbal Comprehension; Processing Speed
Answer A is correct. The WISC-V Technical and Interpretive Manual provides scores obtained by several clinical groups, including individuals with autism spectrum disorder who obtained the highest score on the Fluid Reasoning Index and lowest score on the Processing Speed Index.
The WAIS-IV is appropriate for individuals \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ years of age. A. 2 through 90 B. 8 through 85 C. 16 through 90 D. 6 through 95
Answer C is correct. The WAIS-IV is a measure of intelligence for individuals 16 through 90 years of age.
A 68-year-old woman recently received a diagnosis of mild neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease. Most likely she will receive the highest score on the WAIS-IV’s __________ Index and lowest score on the __________ Index.
A. Verbal Comprehension; Perceptual Reasoning
B. Working Memory; Perceptual Reasoning
C. Verbal Comprehension; Processing Speed
D. Perceptual Reasoning; Processing Speed
Answer C is correct. For the exam, you want to be familiar with the WAIS-IV Indexes that have the lowest and highest scores for individuals in several clinical samples. Note that for many of these samples – including individuals with mild neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease – the highest index score is on the Verbal Comprehension Index and the lowest score is on the Processing Speed Index.
The Flynn effect refers to:
A. generational increases in IQ scores in the last century.
B. generational decreases in IQ scores in the last century.
C. individual increases in IQ scores over the lifespan in the last century.
D. individual decreases in IQ scores over the lifespan in the last century.
Answer A is correct. Because Flynn was the first to describe the increase in IQ scores from one generation to the next during the 20th century, this increase is referred to as the Flynn effect.
The Processing Speed Index of the WAIS-IV consists of which of the following subtests?
A. symbol search, digit span, and block design
B. symbol search, coding, and cancellation
C. digit span, coding, and cancellation
D. letter-number sequencing, block design, and coding
Answer B is correct. The Processing Speed Index consists of two core subtests (symbol search and coding) and one supplemental subtest (cancellation).
