Smalls Flashcards

1
Q

always include this before describing a specimen

A

weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

appendix CPT code

A

88304

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

palpating the LLQ increases RLQ pain

A

Rovsing’s sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

fibrinous, adhesions descriptor

A

shaggy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

________ symptoms are more severe in appendicitis

A

acute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

if this is identified in the appendix, submit the entire specimen

A

mucin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

neuroendocrine enterochromaffinandenteroglucagon cellsnormally found in the lamina propria

A

carcinoid tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

High grade appendiceal mucinous neoplasm (HAMN) shows

A

increased nuclear atypia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

usually bilateral, large multinodular tumors of metastatic origin involving the ovaries with primary sites in the GI tract (appendix); signet ring cell appearance histologically

A

Krukenberg tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

gallbladder doesnt empty properly

A

biliary dyskinesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

gallstones have moved to the common bile duct causing blockage that doesn’t allow the gallbladder or rest of the biliary tree to drain

A

choledocholithasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

gallstones

A

cholelithiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

inflammation often due to bile sludge

A

cholecystitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

hepatic resection margin

A

adventitia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

you are at risk of gallstones if you have rapid weight loss on a

A

crash or starvation diet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

gallstones form because

A

cholesterol or bilirubin in the bile is high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

pigment stones (bilirubin) form most often in people with these diseases

A

liver disease or blood disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

residual bile may also promote the formation of these

A

gallstones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

gallstones cpt code

A

88304

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

this gallbladder lesion increases risk of carcinoma

A

porcelain gallbladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

porcelain gallbladder occurs because of

A

chronic cholecystitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

sentinel lymph node of the gallbladder (periductal)

A

Lund’s or Mascagni’s LN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

the periductal lymph node of gallbladder is a

A

pertinent negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

describe the gallbladder from the ________ in

A

outside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
this margin is usually not described unless there is a tumor or defect on the surface
adventitia/hepatic soft tissue margin
26
routine sections of gallbladder (5)
-cystic duct -periductal lymph node -perpendicular neck to margin -neck -fundus
27
if there is a polyp/mass/palpable lesion in a gallbladder, you must
submit all and ink the cystic duct margin and hepatic soft tissue margin
28
gallbladder cpt code
88304
29
gallbladder staging is based on
invasion
30
for local/segmental biliary resections, remove all _____ ________ and submit them separately, each in their own cassette en face
duct margins
31
do not open local/segmental biliary resections ____________ or you may dislodge a papillary lesion, rather, do this
longitudinally; serially cross section ducts
32
removing prostate tissue in small fragments via a resectoscope
transurethral resection of prostate
33
what must you do with TURP specimens (3)
weigh them, measure in aggregate, and separate any calculi
34
TURP cpt code
88305
35
do you submit TURP calculi for chemical analysis
no unless requested
36
are bladder calculi submitted
no
37
TURBT cpt code
88307
38
done to remove superficial bladder cancer
TURBT
39
do you weigh a TURBT specimen
no
40
TURBT is ________ submitted
entirely
41
tonsils cpt code in younger patients
88300
42
tonsils cpt code in older patients
88304
43
one section of tonsils are submitted for two conditions
tonsilitis or pharyngitis
44
all tonsil tissue is submitted if there is a history of (3)
head and neck cancer, cervical lymphadenopathy, neck mass
45
inking tonsils is dependent on
history
46
if there is a history of SCC, you should do this with the tonsils
ink them
47
if a tonsil specimen is to rule out lymphoma, what should you do
section superficially with a sterile kit before inking
48
gross examination of tissue in the OR, no frozen performed just sectioning and evaluating
88329
49
most common salivary gland for a tumor
parotid
50
most common salivary gland for a malignant tumor
sublingual
51
pathologies of salivary glands (3)
-sialadenitis -sialolithiasis -neoplasm
52
most common component of sialoliths (99%)
carbonate apatite
53
sialoliths are mainly composed of
inorganic material
54
most common benign salivary neoplasm
pleomorphic adenoma
55
second most common salivary benign neoplasm
Warthin's tumor (papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum)
56
main tumor in parotid gland
pleomorphic adenoma
57
most common malignancy of salivary glands
mucoepidermoid carcinoma
58
present as a slow-growing painless mass
low grade mucoepidermoid carcinoma
59
present as a rapidly growing painful mass
high grade mucoepidermoid carcinoma
60
major risk factor for development of malignant salivary tumors
tobacco use
61
low grade malignancies of the salivary glands (2)
acinic cell carcinoma, epithelial-myoepithelial carcinoma
62
inflammation of the salivary glands
sialadenitis
63
most common salivary gland tumor in infants/children
hemangioma
64
90% of salivary gland hemangiomas arise within the
parotid gland
65
salivary gland CPT code
88307
66
sialolith CPT code
88307
67
most common received salivary gland
parotid gland
68
what should you always look for in a salivary gland specimen
nerves (facial nerve)
69
sinus CPT code
88304
70
salivary gland staging is dependent on (2)
-tumor size -extension/invasion
71
this type of sinus specimen is gross only
deviated septum
72
what should you do for a sinus specimen that has a clinical history of known or suspected sinonasal papilloma
submit the entire specimen for carcinoma evaluation
73
most common nasal papilloma
inverted papilloma
74
all nasal papillomas should be
completely excised
75
bone biopsy CPT code
88307
76
lipoma CPT code
88304
77
a condition that causes benign tumors to form
Gardner syndrome
78
a condition marked by the growth of lipomas most commonly in overweight or obese women
adiposis dolorosa
79
a hereditary condition that causes multiple lipomas to form particularly in the trunk and extremities
Familial multiple lipomatosis
80
Herniated fat that appears to originate from the retroperitoneal fat outside and posterior to the internal spermatic fascia and protrudes through the internal ring lateral to the cord
lipoma of cord
81
most common types of hernias (4)
-inguinal -incisional -femoral -umbilical
82
most common hernia in women, especially in pregnant or obese
femoral
83
common hernia in newborns, obese women, or multiparous women
umbilical
84
most common hernia in elderly or overweight people who are inactive after abdominal surgery
inguinal
85
combination of pressure and an opening or weakness of muscle or fascia; the pressure pushes an organ or tissue through the opening or weak spot
hernia
86
four risk factors for hernias
-diarrhea -constipation -persistent cough -persistent sneezing
87
hernia mesh gross only cpt code
88300
88
hernia tissue cpt code
88302
89
hydrocele cpt code
88302
90
spermatocele cpt code
88304
91
cyst CPT code
88304
92
intervertebral disk cpt code
88304
93
bone marrow biopsies are typically taken from this
iliac crest
94
if a lawsuit is suspected for a mesh hernia specimen, what should you do
photograph the specimen
95
for a hernia mesh specimen, do you submit the mesh?
no, dissect the soft tissue off
96
cysts that form in the tubules leading to the testis
spermatocele
97
collections of clear fluid that form between the layers of tissue surrounding the testis (tunica vaginalis)
hydrocele
98
spermatic or epididymal cyst
spermatocele
99
this is a common specimen after a herniation or prolapse occurs
intervertebral disk
100
often submitted for phimosis
foreskin
101
foreskin in non-newborns cpt code
88304
102
foreskin tissue cpt code
88302
103
foreskin gross only cpt code
88300
104
hemorrhoids CPT code
88304
105
dilated veins that can be internal or external
hemorrhoids
106
caused by chronic constipation, chronic diarrhea, pregnancy, portal HTN
hemorrhoids
107
joint mice
joint, loose body
108
joint cpt code
88304
109
chondrocytes die causing full thickness portions of cartilage to slough into the joint, forming loose bodies
osteoarthritis
110
most common manifestation of osteoarthritis or severe degenerative disease
joint loose bodies
111
anal skin tag CPT code
88304
112
vulvar skin tag
88305
113
one of the most common cutaneous lesions
fibroepithelial polyp
114
heart valve CPT code
88305
115
valve doesn't close properly and the valve leaks
regurgitation
116
valve folds back into atrium and. causes regurgitation
prolapse
117
valve gets thickened and may fuse together, causing narrowing
stenosis
118
valve is not formed
atresia
119
vegetations on a heart valve may be indicative of
infective endocarditis
120
these are primary submitted for stenosis or insufficiency
aortic valves
121
a bicuspid aortic valve is a
congenital defect
122
what should you describe when assessing calcifications suggestive of rheumatic heart disease
-% of valve involved with calcifications -extent of calcifications (from aortic root to within __cm to free edge or just to the free edge)
123
primarily submitted for prolapse, regurgitation, insufficiency
mitral/tricuspid valves
124
this valve is prone to vegetations
mitral valve
125
this type of change is usually noted in mitral and tricuspid valves
myxoid change
126
transplant from the same species (2)
homograph, allograph
127
transplant from one species to another species (2)
heterograph, xenograft
128
transplant form the same body from one part to another part
autograph
129
ball and cage, Starr-Edwards type of mechanical prosthetic valve
high profile
130
disk-harken, Hinged leaflet (gott-daggett), central flow (bjork-shiley) type of mechanical prosthetic valve
low profile
131
prosthetic heart valve cpt code
88300
132
granulation tissue
pannus
133
what should you state about the prosthetic heart valve
if it is mechanical or bioprosthetic