Smalls Flashcards

1
Q

always include this before describing a specimen

A

weight

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2
Q

appendix CPT code

A

88304

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3
Q

palpating the LLQ increases RLQ pain

A

Rovsing’s sign

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4
Q

fibrinous, adhesions descriptor

A

shaggy

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5
Q

________ symptoms are more severe in appendicitis

A

acute

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6
Q

if this is identified in the appendix, submit the entire specimen

A

mucin

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7
Q

neuroendocrine enterochromaffinandenteroglucagon cellsnormally found in the lamina propria

A

carcinoid tumor

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8
Q

High grade appendiceal mucinous neoplasm (HAMN) shows

A

increased nuclear atypia

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9
Q

usually bilateral, large multinodular tumors of metastatic origin involving the ovaries with primary sites in the GI tract (appendix); signet ring cell appearance histologically

A

Krukenberg tumors

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10
Q

gallbladder doesnt empty properly

A

biliary dyskinesia

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11
Q

gallstones have moved to the common bile duct causing blockage that doesn’t allow the gallbladder or rest of the biliary tree to drain

A

choledocholithasis

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12
Q

gallstones

A

cholelithiasis

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13
Q

inflammation often due to bile sludge

A

cholecystitis

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14
Q

hepatic resection margin

A

adventitia

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15
Q

you are at risk of gallstones if you have rapid weight loss on a

A

crash or starvation diet

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16
Q

gallstones form because

A

cholesterol or bilirubin in the bile is high

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17
Q

pigment stones (bilirubin) form most often in people with these diseases

A

liver disease or blood disease

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18
Q

residual bile may also promote the formation of these

A

gallstones

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19
Q

gallstones cpt code

A

88304

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20
Q

this gallbladder lesion increases risk of carcinoma

A

porcelain gallbladder

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21
Q

porcelain gallbladder occurs because of

A

chronic cholecystitis

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22
Q

sentinel lymph node of the gallbladder (periductal)

A

Lund’s or Mascagni’s LN

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23
Q

the periductal lymph node of gallbladder is a

A

pertinent negative

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24
Q

describe the gallbladder from the ________ in

A

outside

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25
Q

this margin is usually not described unless there is a tumor or defect on the surface

A

adventitia/hepatic soft tissue margin

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26
Q

routine sections of gallbladder (5)

A

-cystic duct
-periductal lymph node
-perpendicular neck to margin
-neck
-fundus

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27
Q

if there is a polyp/mass/palpable lesion in a gallbladder, you must

A

submit all and ink the cystic duct margin and hepatic soft tissue margin

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28
Q

gallbladder cpt code

A

88304

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29
Q

gallbladder staging is based on

A

invasion

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30
Q

for local/segmental biliary resections, remove all _____ ________ and submit them separately, each in their own cassette en face

A

duct margins

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31
Q

do not open local/segmental biliary resections ____________ or you may dislodge a papillary lesion, rather, do this

A

longitudinally; serially cross section ducts

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32
Q

removing prostate tissue in small fragments via a resectoscope

A

transurethral resection of prostate

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33
Q

what must you do with TURP specimens (3)

A

weigh them, measure in aggregate, and separate any calculi

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34
Q

TURP cpt code

A

88305

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35
Q

do you submit TURP calculi for chemical analysis

A

no unless requested

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36
Q

are bladder calculi submitted

A

no

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37
Q

TURBT cpt code

A

88307

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38
Q

done to remove superficial bladder cancer

A

TURBT

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39
Q

do you weigh a TURBT specimen

A

no

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40
Q

TURBT is ________ submitted

A

entirely

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41
Q

tonsils cpt code in younger patients

A

88300

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42
Q

tonsils cpt code in older patients

A

88304

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43
Q

one section of tonsils are submitted for two conditions

A

tonsilitis or pharyngitis

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44
Q

all tonsil tissue is submitted if there is a history of (3)

A

head and neck cancer, cervical lymphadenopathy, neck mass

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45
Q

inking tonsils is dependent on

A

history

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46
Q

if there is a history of SCC, you should do this with the tonsils

A

ink them

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47
Q

if a tonsil specimen is to rule out lymphoma, what should you do

A

section superficially with a sterile kit before inking

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48
Q

gross examination of tissue in the OR, no frozen performed just sectioning and evaluating

A

88329

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49
Q

most common salivary gland for a tumor

A

parotid

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50
Q

most common salivary gland for a malignant tumor

A

sublingual

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51
Q

pathologies of salivary glands (3)

A

-sialadenitis
-sialolithiasis
-neoplasm

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52
Q

most common component of sialoliths (99%)

A

carbonate apatite

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53
Q

sialoliths are mainly composed of

A

inorganic material

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54
Q

most common benign salivary neoplasm

A

pleomorphic adenoma

55
Q

second most common salivary benign neoplasm

A

Warthin’s tumor (papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum)

56
Q

main tumor in parotid gland

A

pleomorphic adenoma

57
Q

most common malignancy of salivary glands

A

mucoepidermoid carcinoma

58
Q

present as a slow-growing painless mass

A

low grade mucoepidermoid carcinoma

59
Q

present as a rapidly growing painful mass

A

high grade mucoepidermoid carcinoma

60
Q

major risk factor for development of malignant salivary tumors

A

tobacco use

61
Q

low grade malignancies of the salivary glands (2)

A

acinic cell carcinoma, epithelial-myoepithelial carcinoma

62
Q

inflammation of the salivary glands

A

sialadenitis

63
Q

most common salivary gland tumor in infants/children

A

hemangioma

64
Q

90% of salivary gland hemangiomas arise within the

A

parotid gland

65
Q

salivary gland CPT code

66
Q

sialolith CPT code

67
Q

most common received salivary gland

A

parotid gland

68
Q

what should you always look for in a salivary gland specimen

A

nerves (facial nerve)

69
Q

sinus CPT code

70
Q

salivary gland staging is dependent on (2)

A

-tumor size
-extension/invasion

71
Q

this type of sinus specimen is gross only

A

deviated septum

72
Q

what should you do for a sinus specimen that has a clinical history of known or suspected sinonasal papilloma

A

submit the entire specimen for carcinoma evaluation

73
Q

most common nasal papilloma

A

inverted papilloma

74
Q

all nasal papillomas should be

A

completely excised

75
Q

bone biopsy CPT code

76
Q

lipoma CPT code

77
Q

a condition that causes benign tumors to form

A

Gardner syndrome

78
Q

a condition marked by the growth of lipomas most commonly in overweight or obese women

A

adiposis dolorosa

79
Q

a hereditary condition that causes multiple lipomas to form particularly in the trunk and extremities

A

Familial multiple lipomatosis

80
Q

Herniated fat that appears to originate from the retroperitoneal fat outside and posterior to the internal spermatic fascia and protrudes through the internal ring lateral to the cord

A

lipoma of cord

81
Q

most common types of hernias (4)

A

-inguinal
-incisional
-femoral
-umbilical

82
Q

most common hernia in women, especially in pregnant or obese

83
Q

common hernia in newborns, obese women, or multiparous women

84
Q

most common hernia in elderly oroverweightpeople who are inactive after abdominal surgery

85
Q

combination of pressure and an opening or weakness of muscle or fascia; the pressure pushes an organ or tissue through the opening or weak spot

86
Q

four risk factors for hernias

A

-diarrhea
-constipation
-persistent cough
-persistent sneezing

87
Q

hernia mesh gross only cpt code

88
Q

hernia tissue cpt code

89
Q

hydrocele cpt code

90
Q

spermatocele cpt code

91
Q

cyst CPT code

92
Q

intervertebral disk cpt code

93
Q

bone marrow biopsies are typically taken from this

A

iliac crest

94
Q

if a lawsuit is suspected for a mesh hernia specimen, what should you do

A

photograph the specimen

95
Q

for a hernia mesh specimen, do you submit the mesh?

A

no, dissect the soft tissue off

96
Q

cysts that form in the tubules leading to the testis

A

spermatocele

97
Q

collections of clear fluid that form between the layers of tissue surrounding the testis (tunica vaginalis)

98
Q

spermatic or epididymal cyst

A

spermatocele

99
Q

this is a common specimen after a herniation or prolapse occurs

A

intervertebral disk

100
Q

often submitted for phimosis

101
Q

foreskin in non-newborns cpt code

102
Q

foreskin tissue cpt code

103
Q

foreskin gross only cpt code

104
Q

hemorrhoids CPT code

105
Q

dilated veins that can be internal or external

A

hemorrhoids

106
Q

caused by chronic constipation, chronic diarrhea, pregnancy, portal HTN

A

hemorrhoids

107
Q

joint mice

A

joint, loose body

108
Q

joint cpt code

109
Q

chondrocytes die causing full thickness portions of cartilage to slough into the joint, forming loose bodies

A

osteoarthritis

110
Q

most common manifestation of osteoarthritis or severe degenerative disease

A

joint loose bodies

111
Q

anal skin tag CPT code

112
Q

vulvar skin tag

113
Q

one of the most common cutaneous lesions

A

fibroepithelial polyp

114
Q

heart valve CPT code

115
Q

valve doesn’t close properly and the valve leaks

A

regurgitation

116
Q

valve folds back into atrium and. causes regurgitation

117
Q

valve gets thickened and may fuse together, causing narrowing

118
Q

valve is not formed

119
Q

vegetations on a heart valve may be indicative of

A

infective endocarditis

120
Q

these are primary submitted for stenosis or insufficiency

A

aortic valves

121
Q

a bicuspid aortic valve is a

A

congenital defect

122
Q

what should you describe when assessing calcifications suggestive of rheumatic heart disease

A

-% of valve involved with calcifications
-extent of calcifications (from aortic root to within __cm to free edge or just to the free edge)

123
Q

primarily submitted for prolapse, regurgitation, insufficiency

A

mitral/tricuspid valves

124
Q

this valve is prone to vegetations

A

mitral valve

125
Q

this type of change is usually noted in mitral and tricuspid valves

A

myxoid change

126
Q

transplant from the same species (2)

A

homograph, allograph

127
Q

transplant from one species to another species (2)

A

heterograph, xenograft

128
Q

transplant form the same body from one part to another part

129
Q

ball and cage, Starr-Edwards type of mechanical prosthetic valve

A

high profile

130
Q

disk-harken, Hinged leaflet (gott-daggett), central flow (bjork-shiley) type of mechanical prosthetic valve

A

low profile

131
Q

prosthetic heart valve cpt code

132
Q

granulation tissue

133
Q

what should you state about the prosthetic heart valve

A

if it is mechanical or bioprosthetic