Adult Autopsy Flashcards

1
Q

where it originated

A

in situ

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2
Q

certain groupings of organs

A

en bloc

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3
Q

everything together

A

en masse

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4
Q

one by one

A

piecemeal

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5
Q

autopsy technique where organs are removed piecemeal

A

Virchow

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6
Q

autopsy technique where the thoracic, cervical, abdominal, and GU are removed as separate organ blocks, en bloc

A

Ghon

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7
Q

autopsy technique where there is in situ dissection in part combined with en block removal (neck to rectum)

A

Rokitansky

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8
Q

autopsy technique thoracic, cervical, abdominal and pelvic organs are removed en masse and subsequently dissected

A

Letulle

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9
Q

typical amount of pericardial fluid

A

15-60 cc

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10
Q

typical color of pericardial fluid

A

straw colored and clear

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11
Q

most common site a blood culture is taken from in a hospital based autopsy

A

left atrium

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12
Q

how long is a brain fixed for

A

3 weeks

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13
Q

where is the stomach opened along

A

the greater curvature

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14
Q

what should you always do with the lungs before perfusion

A

weigh them

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15
Q

yellow stones in the gallbladder are most likely made of

A

cholesterol

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16
Q

grey-white stones in the gallbladder are most likely made of

A

calcium carbonate

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17
Q

black stones in the gallbladder are most likely made of

A

bilirubinate

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18
Q

what should the seminiferous tubule parenchyma do if it is normal

A

string with ease

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19
Q

to orient the eye, the temporal side has this anatomic landmark

A

inferior oblique muscle

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20
Q

to orient the eye, the nasal side has this anatomic landmark

A

superior oblique tendon

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21
Q

what stain gives adequate examination of Descement’s membrane, the lens capsule, and Bruch’s membrane

A

PAS (periodic-acid Schiff)

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22
Q

most common cause of direct maternal death

A

thromboembolic disease

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23
Q

common finding within the hepatobiliary system during a maternal autospy

A

fatty change

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24
Q

postmortem purpura or petechial type hemorrhages

A

Tardieu spots

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25
Q

skin turns white when applying firm pressure within the first 12 hours

A

blanching

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26
Q

blood pooling in areas of dependency under the force of gravity, develops from 30 min to 2 hours, lasts 8-18 hours

A

livor mortis

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27
Q

localized, elevated, yellow-white areas that develop on the conjunctiva and cornea, mostly caused by solar damage and often bilateral

A

conjunctival pterygia

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28
Q

constellation of profound weakness, anorexia, anemia, wasting

A

cachexia

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29
Q

irregular pigmented areas

A

vitiligo

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30
Q

round to ovoid hyperpigmented macules often lying over nerve trunks; presence of six or more macules >1.5 cm in an adult indicated neurofibromatosis type I

A

cafe au lait spots

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31
Q

common red scaly patches that become vesicular and crusted that can be hyperpigmented or atrophic scarring

A

stasis dermatitis

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32
Q

chronic version with brawny indurations and a scaly irregular surface

A

lymphedema

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33
Q

marked erythema of the skin and swelling of subcutaneous tissues; microvascular vasodilation is largely maintained postmortem and is critical to guide the prosector to areas of inflammation

A

cellulitis

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34
Q

bruises

A

contusion

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35
Q

often seen in patients receiving long term corticosteroid therapy and in elderly people after minor trauma

A

ecchymoses

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36
Q

putrefaction of erythrocytes within superficial blood vessels that leads to the formation of greenish blue discoloration which is observable through the skin

A

marbling

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37
Q

can appear on the neck, groin, or axilla, associated with obesity, endocrine dysfunction, insulin resistance and sometimes malignancy

A

acanthosis nigricans

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38
Q

nail fungus, dermatophyte fungus

A

onychomycosis

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39
Q

soft nails with a spoon shaped dent due to a nutritional deficiency

A

koilonychia

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40
Q

nails that indicate heart or lung disorders

A

cyanotic or clubbing of the nails

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41
Q

nails with these are indicative of a systemic disease

A

splinter hemorrhages

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42
Q

deposition of phospholipid and cholesterol in the peripheral cornea in patients over the age of 60 which appears as a hazy white, grey, or blue opaque ring

A

arcus senilis

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43
Q

donation of these may cause periorbital bruising

A

eyes

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44
Q

donation of this often leaves wide, clean edged, even depth, rectangular abrasions

A

skin

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45
Q

what must you always do with a foley catheter

A

always point down, towards a sink

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46
Q

there should be only this in the dissection field at any time

A

a single blade

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47
Q

minimum PPE (3)

A

gloves, aprons, eyeprotection

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48
Q

For preliminary reports based on gross examination only,_____________ is
the recommended TAT.

A

two working days

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49
Q

if the patient has had a CABG, you want to know these three things

A

if the ostia are patent, the lumen is patent, and the lumen of the native vessel is patent

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50
Q

effusion that occurs due to tuberculosis, spread from empyema

A

exudative

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51
Q

effusion that occurs due to trauma, rupture of aneurysms, malignant effusion

A

hemorrhagic

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52
Q

effusion that occurs due to fluid accumulation caused by metastasis

A

malignant

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53
Q

pericarditis produced by non infectious inflammatory diseases such as a rheumatic fever, SLE, scleroderma, tumor, or uremia; or from an infection in tissues close to the pericardium that produces a sterile effusion

A

serous pericarditis

54
Q

most frequent type of pericarditis and composed of serous fluid mixed with a fibrinous exudate

A

fibrinous and serofibrinous pericarditis

55
Q

pericarditis that occurs when there is an invasion of the pericardial space by microbes

A

purulent or suppurative pericarditis

56
Q

pericarditis with an exudate composed of blood mixed with a fibrinous or suppurative effusion most commonly caused by the spread of a malignant neoplasm to the pericardial space

A

hemorrhagic pericarditis

57
Q

pericarditis that occurs when there is direct spread from tuberculous foci within the tracheobronchial nodes

A

caseous pericarditis

58
Q

post myocardial infarction pericarditis

A

Dressler syndrome

59
Q

myocardial inflammatory lesions that are pathognomonic for rheumatic fever

A

Aschoff bodies

60
Q

filiform fibrous projection from the peak of a valve leaflet, can be seen in endocarditis

A

Lambl excresence

61
Q

this stain is used to macroscopically differentiate ischemic vs non-ischemic areas of the myocardium

A

triphenyltetrazolium chloride (TTC)

62
Q

located between the atria and ventricular septum adjacent to the point where the tricuspid, aortic and mitral valve annuli meet

63
Q

located along the lateral aspect of the junction between the superior vena cava and the right atrium

64
Q

most common primary tumor of the heart

65
Q

where do majority of myxomas occur

A

left atrium

66
Q

emphysema associated with an alpha1 -antitrypsin deficiency

A

panacinar emphysema

67
Q

four stages of inflammatory response in lobar pneumonia

A

1.congestion
2. red hepatization
3. gray hepatization
4. resolution

68
Q

most common bacterial etiologic agent

A

streptococcus pneumonia

69
Q

bronchopneumonia type of spread

A

diffuse, patchy, spread out

70
Q

dilated and tortuous submucosal veins produced by chronic portal hypertension

A

esophageal varices

71
Q

where does 50% of esophageal carcinomas arise

A

middle 1/3

72
Q

most common site of peptic ulcers

A

proximal duodenum

73
Q

this ulcers occur due to shock, sepsis, or severe trauma

A

stress ulcer

74
Q

duodenal ulcers associated with severe burns or trauma

A

curling ulcers

75
Q

gastric duodenal and esophageal ulcers in those with intracranial disease

A

cushing ulcers

76
Q

diaphragmatic grooves on the superior anterior surface of the right lobe on the liver

A

Leibermeister grooves

77
Q

accumulation of iron resulting in a rusty brown liver

A

hemochromatosis

78
Q

a yellow orange cast to the liver parenchyma and the tissue is also greasy

A

hepatic steatosis

79
Q

liver becomes green and accentuated after fixation

A

hepatic cholestasis

80
Q

this form of cirrhosis is typically seen in cases of viral hepatitis, drug induced, and hereditary diseases, >0.3cm

A

Macronodular cirrhosis

81
Q

this form of cirrhosis is typically due to alcoholic liver disease, nonalcoholic steatohepatitis, hemochromatosis, primary and secondary biliary cirrhosis, metabolic disorders and autoimmune hepatitis, <0.3cm

A

micronodular cirrhosis

82
Q

bile duct hamartoma

A

von Meyenburg complex

83
Q

centrilobular necrosis and hemorrhage leads to variegated, mottled red hepatic parenchyma

A

nutmeg liver- passive congestion

84
Q

yellow flecks visible on mucosa represent accumulations of cholesterol within macrophages

A

cholesterolosis of the gallbladder

85
Q

cystically dilated endocervical glands

A

Nabothian cysts

86
Q

most common tumors in women

A

uterine leiomyomas

87
Q

cysts filled with serous fluid and common incidental finding in the femal reproductive system

A

paratubal cysts

88
Q

paratubal cysts occuring near the fimbriae

A

hydatids of Morgagni

89
Q

the most common form of skeletal malignancy

A

metastatic tumors

90
Q

decreased bone density that is more prevalent in women and with aging

A

osteoporosis

91
Q

muscle that is easily accessible during an autopsy and can be sampled to show effects of general systemic disease on the skeletal muscles

92
Q

type of brain herniation that occurs when unilateral or asymmetric expansion of the cerebral hemisphere displaces the cingulate gyrus under the falx

A

subfalcine herniation (cingulate)

93
Q

type of brain herniation that occurs when the medial aspect of the temporal lobe is compressed against the free margin of the tentorium

A

transtentorial herniation (uncinate)

94
Q

secondary hemorrhagic lesions in the midbrain and pons that often accompanies a transtentorial herniation

A

duret hemorrhages

95
Q

type of brain herniation that refers to the displacement of the cerebellar tonsils through the foramen magnum

A

tonsillar herniation

96
Q

the watershed zones in the brain that are most likely to harbor small ischemic lesions

A

superior and middle frontal gyri

97
Q

2 types of tumors that make up 80% of primary brain tumors

A

astrocytoma and glioblastoma

98
Q

most common location for a berry aneurysm in men

A

anterior communicating artery or anterior cerebral artery

99
Q

most common location for a berry aneurysm in women

A

junction of internal carotid with posterior communicating artery

100
Q

according to CAP, wet tissue should be held onto after the final report is signed out for an autopsy for how long

101
Q

what is a PAD

A

provisional/preliminary anatomic diagnosis

102
Q

how long do you have to submit a written PAD according to CAP

A

2 working days

103
Q

how long do you have to submit a final diagnosis for a routine autopsy according to CAP

104
Q

how long do you have to submit a final diagnosis for a complicated case according to CAP

105
Q

the most common testicular tumor in men over 60

106
Q

at autopsy cirrhotic livers should be serially sectioned, rinsed, and examined for this

A

small carcinomas

107
Q

postmortem autolysis occurs in these two organ mucosa, exposing submucosal blood vessels

A

bladder and stomach

108
Q

chronic bladder obstruction can cause this and trabeculation

A

smooth muscle hypertrophy

109
Q

where does majority of prostate adenocarcinomas arise

A

in the peripheral zone

110
Q

most frequent cause of spontaneous subarachnoid hemorrhage

A

rupture of a berry aneurysm

111
Q

most common cause of sudden death in the US

A

ischemic heart disease

112
Q

percent of major discrepancies between clinical diagnosis and the underlying cause of death as recorded on the death certificate

113
Q

intentionally, recklessly, or negligently removes, mutilates, or operates upon of a dead person or when they prevent the proper burial or cremation of the dead body

A

violating tort law

114
Q

spontaneous esophageal rupture/full thickness tear

A

Boerhaave syndrome

115
Q

diffuse metastatic seeding of the peritoneum occurs most commonly due to what two carcinomas

A

ovary and pancreas

116
Q

acquired mitral stenosis is almost always due to

A

rheumatic heart disease

117
Q

hallmark lesion in infective endocarditis

A

vegetations on the aortic and mitral valves

118
Q

significant or severe atherosclerosis is classified by coronary vessel occlusion of what percent

A

at least 75%

119
Q

the most common form of myocardial rupture

A

rupture of the left ventricular free wall

120
Q

common cause of right ventricular hypertrophy

A

pulmonary hypertension

121
Q

common finding in intubated patients

A

iatrogenic laryngeal ulcers

122
Q

larynx swelling in anaphylactic reactions, infections, or after trauma

A

laryngeal edema

123
Q

most common malignant tumor of the larynx

A

squamous cell carcinoma

124
Q

pts with hypertension and severe atherosclerosis have this combination of injury in the kidney

A

nephrosclerosis and cortical infarcts

125
Q

associated with stagnant concentrated urine due to underlying voiding dysfunction

A

bladder stone

126
Q

uncommon tumors that are associated with previous radiation therapy

A

meningiomas

127
Q

Systemic inflammatory response syndrome in response to an infection

128
Q

dysfunction is present in 2 or more organ systems

A

multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)

129
Q

most common lethal arrhythmias (2) that cause ischemic heart disease

A

ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation

130
Q

immersion in 80% ethanol for 30 minutes does what to specimens previously fixed in formalin

A

restores natural colors

131
Q

killed in a fixative of 10% formalin in 50% ethyl alcohol

A

mycobacteria