Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

3 REPRO > small/large for dates > Flashcards

small/large for dates Flashcards

1
Q

definition of preterm baby

A

delivery before 37 weeks
extreme = 24 - 27+6
very = 28 - 31+6
moderate to late = 32 - 36+6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

aetiology of preterm birth

A

infection
over-distension (multiple/polyhydramnios)
vascular (placental abruption)
intercurrent illness (pyelonephritis, appendicitis, pneumonia)
cervical incompetence
idiopathic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

risk factors for preterm birth

A 
previous PTL
multiple 
uterine abnormalities 
age (teenagers)
parity (=0 or >5)
ethnicity 
poor socio-economic status 
smoking 
drugs (esp cocaine)
low BMI (<20)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

definition of small for gestational age

A

estimated fetal weight or abdominal circumference below the 10th centile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is IGUR

A

intra uterine growth retardation

failure to achieve growth potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

definition of low birth weight

A

brith weight below 2.5 kg (regardless of gestation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

symmetrical vs asymmetrical IUGR

A 
symmetrical = small head and small body 
asymmetrical = normal head and small body
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

screening for SGA

A

symphysis fundal height
growth scan if single measurement below 10th centile on customised chart
serial measurements suggest slow/static growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

diagnosis of SGA

A

measurement of fetal AC
combine with head circumference +/- femur length to give EFW
additional information may come from liquor volume or amniotic fluid index and dopplers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

maternal factors for SGA

A

lifestyle (smoking, alcohol, drugs)
height and weight
age
maternal disease eg HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

placental factors for SGA

A

infarcts
abruption
often secondary to HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

fetal factors for SGA

A 
infections (rubella, CMV, toxoplasma)
congenital anomalies (absent kidneys)
chromosomal abnormalities (down's)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

antenatal/labour consequences of IUGR

A

risk of hypoxia and/or death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

post natal consequences of IUGR

A 
hypoglycaemia 
effects of asphyxia 
hypothermia 
polycythaemia 
hyperbilirubinaemia 
abnormal neurodevelopment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

clinical features of poor growth

A

predisposing factors
feudal height less than expected
reduced liquor
reduced fetal movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what does an umbilical arterial doppler measure

A

placental resistance to flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

indications for delivery earlier than 37 weeks

A

growth becomes static (IOL may be appropriate)
abnormal umbilical artery doppler
normal umbilical artery doppler with abnormal MCA between 32 and 37 weeks
abnormal umbilical artery doppler with abnormal ductus venous doppler between 24 and 32 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

definition of large for gestational age

A

symphysis fundal height >2 cm for gestational age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is fetal macrosomia

A

‘big baby’

USS EFW >90th centile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

risks of fetal macrosomia

A

clinician and maternal anxiety
labour dystocia
shoulder dystocia
PPH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

management of fetal macrosomia

A

exclude diabetes
reassure
conservative vs IOL vs c-section delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is polyhdramnios

A

excess amniotic fluid

amniotic fluid index >25 cm

23
Q

causes of polyhydramnios

A 
maternal diabetes 
fetal anomaly (GI atresia, cardiac, tumour)
monochorionic twin pregnancy 
hydros fetalis 
fetal viral infection 
idiopathic
24
Q

clinical features of polyhydramnios

A 
abdominal discomfort 
prelabour rupture of membranes 
preterm labour 
cord prolapse 
LFD 
malpresentation 
tense shiny abdomen 
inability to feel fetal parts
25
Q

diagnosis of polyhydramnios

A

USS
amniotic fluid index >25 cm
deepest vertical pocket >8 cm

26
Q

investigations for polyhydramnios

A

oral glucose tolerance test
serology (toxoplasmosis, CMV, parvovirus)
antibody screen
USS

27
Q

management of polyhydramnios

A 
serial USS (growth, LV, presentation)
IOL by 40 weeks
28
Q

risks of polyhydramnios during labour

A

malpresentation
cord prolapse
preterm labour
PPH

29
Q

risk factors for multiple pregnancy

A 
assisted conception 
African race 
FHx
increased maternal age 
increased parity 
tall women > short women
30
Q

what is zygoisity (relating to multiple pregnancy)

A 
monozygotic = splitting of a single fertilised egg 
dizygotic = fertilisation of 2 ova by 2 sperm
31
Q

what is chorionicity

A

1 placenta/2 placentas?

32
Q

what is the chorionicity of dizygous twins

A

always DCDA

dichorionic diamniotic

33
Q

what is the chorionicity of monozygous twins

A

MCMA/MCDA/DCDA

depends on time of splitting of ovum

34
Q

cleavage occurs when to DCDA monozygous twins

A

day 0 - 3

35
Q

cleavage occurs when for MCDA twins

A

day 4 - 7

36
Q

cleavage occurs when for MCMA twins

A

day 8 - 14

37
Q

cleavage occurs with for conjoined twins

A

day 15 onwards

38
Q

why is chorionicity important

A

monochorionic twins are at higher risk of pregnancy complications

39
Q

USS sign for DCDA twins

A

lambda sign

40
Q

USS sign for MCDA twins

A

T-sign

41
Q

clinical features of multiple pregnancy

A

exaggerated pregnancy symptoms
high AFP
large for dates uterus
multiple fetal poles

42
Q

confirmation of multiple pregnancy

A

USS at 12 weeks

43
Q

complications of multiple pregnancy

A 
higher perinatal mortality 
congenital anomalies 
IUD 
pre term labour 
growth restriction 
cerebral palsy 
twin to twin transfusion
44
Q

maternal complications of multiple pregnancy

A 
hyperemesis gravidarum
anaemia 
pre-eclampsia 
antepartum haemorrhage (abruption, placenta praaevia)
preterm labour 
c-section
45
Q

how regular should clinic appointments be for multiple pregnancy

A

every 2 weeks for MC

every 4 weeks for DC

46
Q

timing of delivery in multiple pregnancy

A

DCDA 37-38 weeks

MCDA 36+0 with steroids

47
Q

what is gestational diabetes

A

carbohydrate intolerance resulting in hyperglycaemia of variable severity with onset or first recognition during pregnancy

48
Q

complications specific to pre-existing maternal diabetes

A

congenital anomalies
miscarriage
IUD

49
Q

complications common to pre-existing and gestational diabetes

A 
pre-eclampsia 
polyhydromanios 
macrosomia 
shoulder dystocia 
neonatal hypoglycaemia
50
Q

risk factors for gestational diabetes

A 
previous GDM
BMI >30 
FHx
ethnicity 
previous big baby 
polyhydramnios 
big baby 
glycosuria
51
Q

glycemic targets

A

fasting 3.5 - 5.5 mmol/l

1 hr <7.8 mol/l

52
Q

timing of delivery in GDM

A

insulin treatment 38 weeks
metformin treatment 39-40 weeks
diet alone 40-41 weeks

53
Q

folic acid supplements in GDM

A

5 mg

3 REPRO (40 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions