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CP > Skin & MSK Pathology > Flashcards

Skin & MSK Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

Are vocal cord polyps unilateral or bilateral?

A

Unilateral

They usually occur in the anterior half of Reinke’s space

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2
Q

hoarsness, obstruction, dysphagia and dysphonia can be seen in

A

contact ulcer of the pharynx

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3
Q

Where do contact ulcers usually occur in the pharynx?

A

The posterior aspect of the vocal cords

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4
Q

Juvenile laryngeal papillomatosis is common with

A

HPV 6/11

it is a benign neoplasm

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5
Q

Which regions of the larynx are most affected by SCC?

A

Supraglottic and glottic regions

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6
Q

What is a spindle cell carcinoma?

A

SCC with sarcomatous pattern

It affects the anterior aspect of the true vocal cords

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7
Q

What is a verrucous carcinoma?

A

well differentiated SCC of the larynx with favourable prognosis

It has a ‘church spire’ appearance

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8
Q

Rhinorrhea, nasal stuffiness, obstruction and chronic headache are all features of

A

sinonasal polyps

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9
Q

Allergic fungal sinusitis is most commonly due to

A

Aspergillus

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10
Q

septal erosion and perforation as well as nasal pain and stuffiness are features of

A

Wegener’s granulomatosis

It also affects the kidneys and the lungs

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11
Q

Where are exophytic papillomas located?

A

Exclusively on the nasal septum

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12
Q

Inverted papillomas affect

A

the lateral nasal wall and middle meatus

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13
Q

Nasopharyngeal angiofibromas can present as

A

anosmia
headaches
obstruction

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14
Q

Cranial nerve involvement can occur in

A

SCC of the nose and paranasal sinuses

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15
Q

What are the clinical features of oral lichen planus?

A

fine white lace like striae

atrophic oedematous mucosa with ulcerations

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16
Q

Apthous stomatitis presents as

A

ulcers with a white, yellow or grey membrane with an erythematous halo

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17
Q

SCC of the oral cavity is often preceded by

A

leukoplakia and erythroplakia

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18
Q

SCC of the oropharynx is associated with

A

HPV 16 and 18

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19
Q

Salivary gland mucoceles often arise due to

A

blockage/rupture of a salivary gland duct

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20
Q

Pleomorphic adenomas are benign neoplasms that make up what percentage of parotid, submandibular and minor salivary gland tumours?

A

60%

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21
Q

What is a biphasic tumour composed of bilayered oncocytic cells in a dense lymphoid stroma?

A

Warthin’s tumour

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22
Q

What are the 3 stages of eczema?

A 
Acute: 
skin is red, weeping with exudate 
Subacute: 
itching with crusting 
Chronic: 
thick and leathery skin secondary to scratching
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23
Q

Coin shaped lesions are seen in

A

nummular dermatiits

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24
Q

What commonly shows the Auspitz sign?

A

Psoriasis

When you peel the scale, it causes bleeding

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25
Q

what presents as a butterfly rash on the cheeks and nose?

A

SLE

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26
Q

What would show a IMF-LE band microscopically?

A

SLE

IgG is deposited in the basement membrane of the kidneys

27
Q

Dermamyositis can present as

A

heliotropic rash and peri-ocular oedema

28
Q

What is the difference between a pemphigus and pemphigoid bullous?

A 
Pemphigus= intraepidermal blister 
Pemphigoid= subepidermal blister
29
Q

Dermatitis Herpetiformis is associated with what disease?

A

Coeliac

It presents as small, intensely itchy blisters on extensor surfaces

30
Q

BCC is often formed on

A

sun exposed sites

31
Q

SCC is classified as high risk if it is

A

2cm or >4mm thick

32
Q

From where to melanocytes hail?

A

Neural crest cells

33
Q

What is the ABCD to consider in melanoma?

A

Asymmetrical
Borders uneven
Colour variation
Diameter >6mm

34
Q

Melanomas are often common in those with

A

fair skin and sunburn

35
Q

chronic skin damage in elderly people can lead to

A

lentigo maligna melanoma

36
Q

Acral lentigenous melanoma presents in

A

Afro-Caribbeans and on the palms and soles

37
Q

The commonest type of melanoma in the UK is

A

superficial spreading melanoma

38
Q

The most important prognostic factor melanomas is

A

Breslow thickness

39
Q

Where are melanomas most common?

A

BANS

back, arms, neck and scalp

40
Q

How can melanomas be treated?

A

BRAF Inhibitors

41
Q

subchondral cysts and osteophytes are features of

A

OA

42
Q

Morning stiffness, serum RF and swollen, warm joints are common features of

A

RA

43
Q

Sero negative arthritides that lack RF include

A

Ankylosing spondylitis
Psioratic arthiritis
Reiter’s syndrome

44
Q

Allopurinol should not be used to treat

A

acute gout attacks

NSAIDs and steriods can be used in an acute attack

45
Q

pyogenic osteomyelitis can be caused by

A

bacteria due to haematogenous spread

46
Q

Infective arthritis can be caused by

A

trauma, IV drug abuse and debilitating illness

47
Q

chalk stick fractures are common in what disease?

A

Paget’s

48
Q

Lack of vit D is related to

A

osteomalacia

49
Q

What is osteitis fibrosa cystica?

A

Loss of bone mineral with osteoporosis

50
Q

Osteomas and osteoblastomas are

A

benign bone tumours

51
Q

60% of cases of osteosarcoma occur

A

around the knee

52
Q

Secondary bone tumours come from

A 
prostate 
kidney
breast
thyroid
GIT
53
Q

CREST syndrome is associated with

A

systemic sclerosis

Calcinosis
Raynaud's 
Oesophageal dysfunction
Sclerodactyly 
Telangiectasia
54
Q

Polymyalgia rheumatica is

A

stiffness, weakness, aching and pain in the muscles of the neck, limb girdles and UL

55
Q

Rhambomyolysis is

A

destruction of skeletal muscle

myoglobin ins released into the blood

56
Q

Viral warts can be treated with

A

salicylic acid, silver nitrate and cryrosurgery

57
Q

How can HPV be prevented?

A

Gardasil vaccine

Barrier protection

58
Q

cysts or abscesses in the natal cleft are known as

A

Pilonidal cysts

59
Q

Impetigo can be caused by

A

S. aureus

60
Q

Erysipelas is caused by

A

S. pyogenes

61
Q

dishwater exudate is a feature of

A

necrotising fasciitis

62
Q

In sickle cell what can cause osteomyelitis?

A

Salmonella

63
Q

lymphadenopathy is associated with what stage of syphilis?

A

Primary

64
Q

Rashes all over the body are associated with what stage of syphilis?

A

Secondary

CP (12 decks)

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