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CP > GI Pathology > Flashcards

GI Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

What is most of the oesophagus lines with?

A

squamous epithelium

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2
Q

What is the distal 1.5cm below the diaphragm lined with?

A

columnar mucosa

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3
Q

Inflammation of the oesophagus is known as

A

oesophagitis

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4
Q

What is the commonest type of oesophagitis?

A

reflux oesophagitis

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5
Q

Sliding hiatus hernia and paraoesophagheal hiatus hernias are risk factors for what

A

reflux oesophagitis

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6
Q

Long standing gastro-oesophageal reflux causes

A

Barrett’s oesophagus

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7
Q

What happens to the cells in Barrett’s oesophagus?

A

squamous mucosa is replaced by columnar mucosa

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8
Q

What is the disease progression from barrett’s oesophagus?

A

dysplasia and then adenocarcinoma

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9
Q

How many types of oesophageal carcinoma are there?

A

2

squamous cell carcinoma and adenocarcinoma

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10
Q

What malignancy can appear macroscopically as polypoidal, structuring or ulcerated?

A

Squamous carcinoma

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11
Q

What are the 4 anatomical regions of the stomach?

A

cardia
fundus
body
antrum

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12
Q

What are the 3 histological regions of the stomach?

A

cardia
body
antrum

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13
Q

What is the initial response to a H.pylori infection?

A

Acute gastritis

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14
Q

Chronic gastritis can be caused by

A

autoimune factors
H.pylori
chemical injury

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15
Q

H.pylori infections are more common in what part of the stomach?

A

antrum

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16
Q

H.pylori is a

A

G-VE spiral bacteria

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17
Q

The first part of the duodenum, junction of astral and body mucosa and GOJ are common sites for what?

A

peptic ulcer disease

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18
Q

Hour glass deformities, caused by stricturing, are complications of

A

peptic ulcers

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19
Q

carcinoma of the GOJ is associated with

A

GO reflux

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20
Q

carcinoma of the gastric body is associated with

A

H.pylori and diet

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21
Q

What cancer is associated with CDH1/E-cadherin mutation?

A

Hereditary diffuse type gastric cancer

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22
Q

What disease is also known as gluten sensitive enteropathy?

A

Coeliac disease

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23
Q

In coeliac disease, a reaction to gliadin causes

A

epithelial cells to express IL-15

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24
Q

How can coeliac disease present?

A

Silently, latently, symptomatically and atypically

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25
Q

TTG is the most sensitive test for

A

Coeliac disease

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26
Q

Diverticulosis most commonly occurs in the

A

sigmoid colon

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27
Q

smoking increases the chance of UC and CD by

A

0.5 and 2 respectively

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28
Q

pseudopolyps can be seen in

A

UC

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29
Q

cobblestoning’ is commonly seen in

A

Crohn’s Disease

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30
Q

Crohn’s is most commonly found in the

A

ileocolic region

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31
Q

Most cases of ischaemic colitis affect which part of the colon?

A

the left colon

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32
Q

What can be neoplastic, hamartomatous, inflammatory or reactive?

A

colorectal polyps

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33
Q

large right sided hyperplastic polyps can give rise to

A

micro satellite unstable carcinoma

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34
Q

What is associated with increased risk of colorectal and gastric cancer?

A

Juvenile polyposis

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35
Q

Peutz-Jeghers syndrome has what inheritance pattern?

A

Autosomal dominant

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36
Q

A mutation in STKII gene on chromosome 19 causes

A

Peutz-Jeghers syndrome

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37
Q

what is the 2nd commonest cancer

A

colorectal cancer

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38
Q

FAP and Lynch syndrome have what inheritance pattern?

A

Autosomal dominant

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39
Q

What is due to a mutation on the APC tumour suppressor gene?

A

FAP

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40
Q

What is due to mutations in DNA mismatch repair genes?

A

Lynch syndrome

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41
Q

How can CRC be staged?

A

Dukes and TNM

42
Q

What GI infection is common in older individuals wearing dentures?

A

Angular chelitis

43
Q

White plaques on the tongue, commonly seen in HIV patients is known as

A

hairy leucoplakia

44
Q

Quinsys are usually caused by what organism?

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

45
Q

rapidly spreading cellulitis without lymphadenopathy in deep neck spaces is known as

A

Ludwig’s angina

46
Q

Which infections can be life-threatening because they have the potential to involve the carotid sheath?

A

parapharyngeal space infections

47
Q

Inflammation of mucous membranes following chemotherapy is known as

A

mucositis

48
Q

Effort rupture of the oesophagus is known as

A

Boorhaave syndrome

49
Q

What is the treatment for a H.pylori infection?

A

triple antibiotic therapy and a PPI for 1-2 weeks

50
Q

What classically presents as charcots triad?

A

cholangitis

51
Q

A positive murphy’s sign is seen in

A

acute cholecystitis

52
Q

What is caused by Trophenyma Whipplei

A

Whipple’s disease

53
Q

Where is the most common GI site infected by mycobacterium tuberculosis?

A

ileocaecal region

54
Q

pain in the shoulder on the affected side, persistent hiccup and intercostal tenderness are features of what?

A

suphrenic abscess

55
Q

what does SSI-S, SSI-D and SSI-O stand for?

A

(surgical site infection)
S- surgical
D- deep
O- organ space

56
Q

The majority of patients that have advanced cirrhosis with ascites can also get…

A

spontaneous bacterial peritonitis

57
Q

Infantile gastroenteritis is caused by

A

Enteropathogenic E.coli

58
Q

the passage of 3 or more loose stools in 24 hours/ the passage of 1 or more bloody stools is known as

A

diarrhoea

59
Q

In diarrhoea, it is important to avoid antidiarrhoeals such as

A

codeine and loperamide

60
Q

Gullan-Barre syndrome is a complication of an infection by

A

campylobacter jejuni

61
Q

Outbreaks of what usually occurs in communal catering?

A

salmonella

62
Q

What causes dysentery?

A

shigella dysenteriae and enteroinvasive e.coli

63
Q

Reactive arthritis can be caused by

A

yersinia

64
Q

‘rice water’ diarrhoea is caused by

A

vibrio cholerae

65
Q

A lab test that comes back positive for GDH and cytotoxin means that

A

C.diff infection is probable and treatment is required

66
Q

C.diff infections are treated with

A

oral/NG vancomycin

67
Q

Rotarix is a vaccine that was introduced for treating

A

infection by rotavirus

68
Q

other causes of viral gastroenteritis include

A

norovirus, adenovirus, sapovirus and astrovirus

69
Q

Gastroenteritis cause by Giardia lambia should be treated with

A

metronidazole

tinidazole

70
Q

Cysts of what parasite are highly resistant to water disinfectants?

A

cryptosporidium

71
Q

Enzymes secreted by the pancreas are

A 
trypsin
lipase
phospholipase
elastase
amylase
72
Q

Aetiology of acute pancreatitis can be described as

A

GARI

Gallstones
Alcohol
Rare causes
Idiopathic

73
Q

SPINK1 gene and PRSS1 mutations can cause

A

hereditary pancreatitis

74
Q

Grey turner’s sign is a sign of

A

severe pancreatitis

there is haemorrhage into subcut flank tissue

75
Q

Cullen’s sign is a sign of

A

severe pancreatitis

there is haemorrhage into the periumbilicus

76
Q

Aetiology of chronic pancreatitis can be described as

A

TIGARO

77
Q

what is the most common type of pancreatic cancer?

A

pancreatic adenocarcinoma

78
Q

Pancreatic intraepithelial neoplasia (PaIN) elicits

A

a desmoplastic response

79
Q

What signs can be seen in pancreatic carcinoma?

A

Courvoisier’s sign and Trousseau’s syndrome

80
Q

Pancreatic neuroendocrine tumours are derived from

A

islet cells

81
Q

What is the most common NET?

A

insulinoma

82
Q

von Meyenberg complex can be caused by

A

bile duct adenomas

83
Q

focal nodular hyperplasia is common in

A

young females

20-40

84
Q

primary heaptocellular carcinomas secrete what that can be detected and measured in the blood?

A

AFP

alpha-fetoprotein

85
Q

Cholangiocarcinoma and angiosarcoma are

A

primary malignant liver tumours

86
Q

Risk factors for gallstones are

A

female
middle-aged
overweight

87
Q

ALT is more specific than AST in checking for

A

liver damage

88
Q

increased ALT, PT and ammonia can be seen in

A

paracetamol OD

89
Q

paracetamol OD should be treated with

A

N-AC and Vit K

90
Q

Unconjugated bilirubin can be measured in

A

pre-hepatic and hepatic jaundice

91
Q

conjugated bilirubin can be measured in

A

post-hepatic jaundice

92
Q

dark urine and pale stools can be seen in someone with

A

post-hepatic jaundice

93
Q

in haemochromatosis, you should always measure

A

ferritin

94
Q

in Wilson’s disease, you should measure

A

copper

95
Q

the pancreas opens to the duodenum via

A

the spinchter of Oddi

96
Q

Gilbert’s syndrome is an enzyme deficiency that can cause

A

pre-hepatic jaundice

97
Q

the patient will be itchy if they have

A

obstructive jaundice

98
Q

What stains iron blue in haemochromatosis?

A

Perl’s

99
Q

Keyser-Fleischer rings can be seen in

A

Wilson’s disease

100
Q

Gynaecomastia, spider naevi and caput medusa are signs of

A

hepatic failure

101
Q

Creon is a pancreatic enzyme replacement that people with what disease need?

A

CF

CP (12 decks)

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