Core Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

What should all cases of tine capitis be treated with?

A

Systemic (oral) antifungals such as Ariseofluvin or Terbinafine

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2
Q

What chemical in the body is highest at acrophase?

A

Cortisol

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3
Q

What drug must be monitored to keep it in the therapeutic range?

A

Phenytoin (used for epilepsy)

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4
Q

After a hip replacement, a patient comes in with an infection, it is likely caused by…

A

Staphylococcus epidermis

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5
Q

What is the reference range for biochemical tests?

A

-2SD to +2SD

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6
Q

Mrs AB presents with necrotising fasciitis secondary to a sore throat, it is likely cause by…

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

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7
Q

Otitis media can be caused by…

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

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8
Q

BC has sub acute bacterial endocarditis caused by alpha-haemolytic streptococci, name the bacteria

A

Viridians streptococci

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9
Q

Streptococcus bovis is also known as

A

Streptococcus gallolyticus

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10
Q

Tom’s acne is often flaring up, it is likely caused by what organism?

A

Propionibacterium

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11
Q

Fungal nail disease can be caused by…

A

T. rubrum or T.interdigitale

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12
Q

What bacteria is carried nasally in up to 50% of people?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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13
Q

Diphtheria, not commonly seen in the UK because of immunisation was caused by…

A

Corynebacterium species

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14
Q

Klebsiella pneumoniae is found as part of what flora?

A

Bowel

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15
Q

BC has haemolytic uraemic syndrome caused by…

A

E.coli toxic (0157) strains

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16
Q

CD has a skin infection with a green pigment caused by…

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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17
Q

Neisseria meningitidis classically presents as

A

purpuric non-blanching rash

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18
Q

Baby Z is born with conjunctivitis, her mother is likely to have an active infection of…

A

Neisseria gonorrhoea

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19
Q

Haemohilus influenzae type B is associated with

A

meningitis and epiglottitis

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20
Q

Acid Fast Bacilli can cause

A

TB

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21
Q

Name a coagulase negative staphylococci

A

Staphylococcus epidermis

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22
Q

AB is pregnant and reads that she should avoid cheeses, this is due to what bacteria?

A

Listeria monocytogenes

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23
Q

G-VE bacteria that can cause endocarditis in children

A

HACEK organisms

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24
Q

Commonest cause of STI

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

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25
Q

Cause of syphilis

A

Treponema pallidum

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26
Q

CD plays american football and has noticed itching and a red plaque with distinct edges, there are also lesions in other places. What is this called?

A

Tinea cruris (casued by T.rubrum)

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27
Q

What virus is highly infectious, even after 2 hours?

A

Measles

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28
Q

Patients with previous TB, sarcoid or lung surgery are more likely to have what when they have inhaled Aspergillus

A

Aspergilloma

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29
Q

DE has noticed that when he takes of his shoes, it looks like he has a moccasin made of dry, scaly skin, what is the likely infection?

A

Athletes foot/Tinea pedis (caused by T.rubrum)

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30
Q

Majorca’s granuloma is an invasion of follicle seen in

A

Tinea corporis

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31
Q

Classic cause of gas gangrene

A

Clostridium perfringens

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32
Q

Topical antifungals include

A

Terbinafine and Clotrimazole

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33
Q

Kerion celsi is associated with

A

Tina capitis

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34
Q

Pityriasis versicolor can be caused by

A

Malassezia, a genus of yeasts

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35
Q

What looks like ‘spaghetti and meatballs’ in diagnosis

A

Pityriasis versicolor

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36
Q

Oral and vaginal ‘thrush’ is caused by

A

Candida, a genus of yeasts

37
Q

Candida vulvovaginitis is identified by

A

culture and anti fungal sensitivity testing

38
Q

What should not be used in pregnant women as it can increase the risk of tetratologies?

A

Fluconazole

39
Q

Systemic candidosis is usually caused by

A

C. albicans

40
Q

Bulls eye signs are seen in

A

the liver due to abscess formation in hepatosplenic candidosis

41
Q

In asthma and CF, patients will see increased levels of which immunoglobulin?

A

IgE

42
Q

Halo or crescent signs on CT are associated with

A

invasive aspergillosis

43
Q

nvCJD is linked to

A

BSE associated with infected beef

44
Q

Aspergillosis can be treated with

A

Itraconazole/Voriconazole with Amphotercin B

45
Q

Lung migration of which parasite causes Loefflers Syndrome?

A

Ascariasis

46
Q

positive Aspergillus IgG is seen in those with

A

a chronic lung disease

48
Q

what virus targets CD4+ cells?

A

HIV

49
Q

AB presents to A&E with a painful, pus-filled abscess in her teeth. It is likely caused by…

A

Streptococcus milleri complex

50
Q

What should you treat Pityriasis versicolor with?

A

Clotrimazole (oral)
Fluconazole (oral)
Itraconazole (oral)

51
Q

Ascariasis can be treated with…

A

Albendazole

52
Q

what chronic disease can lead to bladder cancer and liver cirrhosis?

A

Bilharzia disease

53
Q

Katayama fever and summers itch are alert responses caused by

A

Schistosoma

54
Q

Schistosomiasis should be treated with

A

Praziquantel

55
Q

Humans are accidental hosts of what parasite that can lead to cysts in the liver

A

Echinococcus sp (cause of Hyatid disease)

56
Q

Hyatid disease should be treated with…

A

Albendazole

57
Q

What is the most likely cause of malaria in the UK?

A

plasmodium falciparum

58
Q

In non falciparum malaria, what should you treat with?

A

Chloroquine and primaquine

59
Q

In falciparum malaria, what should you treat with?

A

Quinine and doxycycline, co-artem and atoraquone

60
Q

In complex falciparum malaria, what should you treat with?

A

IV quinine and artesunate

61
Q

Cryptosporidosis is spread via the

A

faeco-oral route via contaminated water

62
Q

Mitazoxamide is used to treat patients with symptomatic …

A

cryptosporidiosis

63
Q

What type of hepatitis do 50% of IVDUs have evidence of?

A

Hep C

64
Q

slapped cheek syndrome is caused by…

A

Parvovirus B19

65
Q

Trichomoniasis is transmitted…

A

sexually

67
Q

Metronidazole should be used to treat

A

Trichomoniasis

68
Q

Giardia lamblia can be diagnosed by….

A

identifying cysts in faeces

69
Q

What viruses can establish latency and reactivate?

A

Herpes

70
Q

95% of cases of encephalitis are caused by…

A

HSV1

71
Q

what virus established latency in the dorsal root ganglion?

A

VZV

72
Q

What is also known as the ‘kissing disease’?

A

EBV

73
Q

What has a prevalence that is usually the same as age?

A

cytomegalovirus

73
Q

Influenza A can mutate regularly and has what surface proteins?

A

H&N

74
Q

What virus is common in children and causes bronchiolitis?

A

Respiratory syncytial virus

75
Q

What hepatitis virus is defective and can only survive with Hep B?

A

Hep D

76
Q

Which hepatitis is an ‘infection of childhood’ that is usually asymptomatic?

A

Hep A

77
Q

Genotype 3 of what hepatitis is associated with pork?

A

Hep E

79
Q

The risk of chronicity is inversely related to age at infection with which hepatitis?

A

Hep B

80
Q

what is a ssrNA virus associated with point-source out breaks?

A

Norovirus

81
Q

Parvovirus B19 can cause transient anaemia which can lead to what in pregnancy?

A

Hydrops fetalis

82
Q

What virus looks like a wheel on electron microscopy?

A

Rotavirus

83
Q

What viruses can cause meningitis but don’t cause GI symptoms?

A

Enteroviruses

84
Q

Pericarditis and Herpagina can be cause by

A

Coxsackie B and A respectively

86
Q

What virus causes can cause acute parotitis, orchitis and meningitis?

A

Mumps

87
Q

subacute sclerosing pan-encephalitis can be caused by what virus 7-10 years after the initial infection?

A

Measles

88
Q

Tinea corporis is also known as…

A

Ringworm

88
Q

Strawberry cervix is characteristic of what parasitic infection?

A

Trichomoniasis

88
Q

What virus can cause arthritis in 30% of adults after the primary infection?

A

Rubella

89
Q

congenital rubella causes the classic triad of…

A

bilateral cataracts, sensorineural deafness and microcephaly

89
Q

Prions cause what change in brain tissue on histology?

A

Spongiform change