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CP > Respiratory Pathology > Flashcards

Respiratory Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 types of primary lung cancer?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma
Small cell carcinoma
Adenocarcinoma
Large cell undifferentiated carcinoma

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2
Q

What are features of small cell carcinomas?

A

Less cytoplasm, fine nuclear chromatin and less prominent nucleoli

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3
Q

What are the features of non-small cell carcinomas?

A

More cytoplasm, clumped and prominent nuclei

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4
Q

What type of lung carcinoma shows keratinisation?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

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5
Q

What type of lung carcinoma shows gland formation and/or mucin production?

A

Adenocarcinoma

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6
Q

What type of patients are primary lung lymphomas normally seen in?

A

HIV/AIDs patients

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7
Q

Synovial sarcomas are a type of

A

Malignant mesenchymal tumour

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8
Q

Carcinoid tumours are

A

low grade malignant tumours

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9
Q

What type of tumour is most common in the lungs?

A

Secondary

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10
Q

Where do secondary lung mets come from?

A

Breast, GIT, Kidney

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11
Q

Which genetic mutations are associated with lung tumours?

A

EGFR, KRAS, ALK

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12
Q

What is asbestos associated with?

A

Mesotheliomas and lung fibrosis

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13
Q

Clinical features of a lung tumour may include

A 
haemoptysis
breathlessness 
chest pain
dysphagia
weight loss
clubbing
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14
Q

Horner’s syndrome can occur due to what

A

a pancoast tumour in the apex

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15
Q

What is lymphangitis carcinomatosa?

A

Where the lymphatics within the lung are involved by the tumour

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16
Q

Who is asthma most common in?

A

Young adults and children

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17
Q

What can trigger asthma?

A

NSAIDs, exercise, cold air, irritants

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18
Q

How is asthma managed?

A

O2
Bronchodilators (salbutamol, ipratropium bromide)
Steroids

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19
Q

What is COPD?

A

A clinical grouping of emphysema and bronchitis

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20
Q

What is the difference between emphysema and bronchitis?

A

Emphysema- exchange surface is lost

Bronchitis- bronchioles are narrowed and lumen is narrower

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21
Q

What type of pattern is shown in chronic bronchitis?

A

Centrilobular emphysema

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22
Q

What causes centrilobular emphysema?

A

Coal dust and smoking

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23
Q

What causes panlobular emphysema?

A

commonly an alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency

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24
Q

What causes panseptal emphysema?

A

upper lobe subpleural bullae

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25
Q

SOB on exertion, dysponea, right heart sign/symptoms are clinical features of

A

Emphysema

26
Q

What can result from a chronic necrotising infection?

A

Bronchiectasis

27
Q

What are the clinical features of bronchiectasis?

A

cough
fever
pneumonia
foul smelling sputum

28
Q

Type 1 pneumocytes die in

A

acute interstitial lung disease

29
Q

ARDS can be caused by

A

shock, trauma, smoke, O2

30
Q

A ‘honeycomb lung’ is common at the end stage of

A

chronic interstitial lung disease

31
Q

Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis usually shows

A

‘cobblestoning’ of the pleural surface

32
Q

Sarcoidosis causes

A

non-caseating perilymphatic granulomas and then fivrosis

33
Q

Pneumoconioses are lung diseases caused by

A

inhalation of mineral dusts in the workplace

i.e. coal workers pneumoconiosis
silicosis

34
Q

Pigeon fanciers lung and farmers’ lung causes what type of reaction?

A

Type III Hypersensitivity reaction

35
Q

CF is caused by a genetic abnormality of

A

CTFR channel coded for on chromosome 7

36
Q

Meconium ileus, liver cirrhosis, impaired fat absorption and vitamin deficiencies are common in

A

CF

37
Q

What causes symmetrically inflamed tonsils and posterior cervical lymphadenopathy?

A

EBV

38
Q

What causes no inflammation of tonsils but a severe sore throat?

A

Epiglottitis

39
Q

What is the Centor criteria?

A

Indication of a sore throat being due to a bacterial infection

40
Q

What are features of the centor criteria?

A

Tonsillar exudate
Fever >38
Abscence of cough
Tender cervical lymphadenopathy

41
Q

Pharyngitis is commonly caused by … whilst epiglottitis is commonly caused by…

A

viruses

bacteria

42
Q

Epiglottitis is managed with

A

IV antibiotics (3rd gen cephalosporins)

43
Q

Otitis externa must present for … to be chronic

A

> 3 weeks

44
Q

What are causes of acute OE?

A

S.aureus and pseudomonas aeruginosa

45
Q

Malignant OE should be managed with

A

6 weeks IV ceftazidime then PO ciprofloxacin

46
Q

Otitis media is commonly caused by

A

S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae and Morazella catarhhalis

47
Q

Bacteria that typically cause pneumonia are

A 
Streptococcus pneumoniae
H. influenzae
Moraxella Catarrhalis
S. aureus
Klebsiella pneumoniae
48
Q

Clinical features of pneumonia include

A 
rapid onset
fever 
productive cough 
dull on percussion 
reduced air entry
49
Q

Pneumonia caused by mycoplama pneumoniae

A

is common is young children

can cause Guillain-Barre and peripheral neuropathy

50
Q

Pneumonia caused legionella pneumophilia

A

colonises water piping systems
shows deranged LFTs
causes N&V

51
Q

Exposure to birds that leads to pneumonia is caused by?

A

Chlamydophilia psittaci

52
Q

What are the features of CURB65?

A

Confusion
Urea >7 mmol/L
Respiratory rate >30
Blood pressure <90/60

53
Q

A score of 2 or above in CURB65 means

A

the patient should be treated at hospital

54
Q

Ventilator acquired pneumonia is caused by

A

Pseudomonas spp

55
Q

The normal mesothelium secretes what?

A

Hyaluronic acid rich fluid to lubricate the pleural cavity

56
Q

Parietal pleural fibrous plaques are associated with

A

low level asbestos dust exposure

People with this aren’t eligible for Industrial Injuries Disablement Benefit

57
Q

empyema and pyothorax is usually

A

secondary to pneumonia

58
Q

What has low protein and low lactate dehydrogenase?

A

Transudates

can be caused by LV failure

59
Q

Exudates have

A

high protein and high lactate dehydrogenase

due to inflammation and neoplasm

60
Q

Do malignant mesotheliomas metastasise widely?

A

No

61
Q

How can an advanced malignant mesothelioma be identified using via immunostaining?

A

Cytokeratin S

Calretinin

CP (12 decks)

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