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Dermatology > Skin examination > Flashcards

Skin examination Flashcards

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Dermatology Board Prep flashcards
1
Q

Will erythema blanch or not?

A
  • it will blanch
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2
Q

Will purpura blanch?

A
  • no
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3
Q

Define confluent

A
  • no normal background skin
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4
Q

What are the causes of psoriasis?

A
  • genetic

- environmental (stress, drugs, infection)

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5
Q

What is the presentation of psoriasis?

A
  • symmetrical
  • well demeractated
  • scaly
  • erythema plaques
  • extensor surfaces
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6
Q

What nail changes would you see in a patient with psoriasis?

A
  • pitting
  • oncholysis
  • dystrophy
  • subungal hyperkeratosis
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7
Q

What is koebner phenomenon?

A
  • seen in psoriasis

- plaques form at sites of skin trauma

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8
Q

What is auspitz sign?

A
  • removal of a plaque leaves visible tiny bleeding points
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9
Q

What are the co-morbidites of psoriasis?

A
  • psoriatic arthritis
  • crohn’s
  • cancer
  • depression
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10
Q

What drug treatments could be given in psoriasis?

A
  • emolients
  • steroid ointments (hydrocortisone)
  • vitamin D
  • Coal tar
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11
Q

What is acne vulgaris?

A
  • chronic inflammatory disease of the pilosebacous unit
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12
Q

What is the presentation of acne vulgaris

A
  • pilosebecaous units
  • comedone
  • pustules and papules
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13
Q

Treatment for acne

A
  • topical benzoylperoxide
  • retinoid topical
  • systemic antibiotics (tetracycline)
  • systemic oral retinoids (isotretinoin)
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14
Q

Where does rosacea affect?

A
  • nose
  • chin
  • forehead
  • cheeks
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15
Q

What is a visible difference between acne and rosacea?

A
  • rosacea has no comedones
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16
Q

What is the presentation of rosacea?

A
  • recurrent facial flushing

- rhinophyma (large nose)

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17
Q

Management of rosacea

A
  • limit trigger
  • tetracycline
  • isotretinoin (severe)
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18
Q

What is the presentation of lichen planus?

A
  • shiny

- pink, flat, plaques

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19
Q

Wickhams striae is associated with what?

A
  • lichen planus
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20
Q

Nickolskys sign positive?

A
  • pempigus

- superficial

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21
Q

Nickolskys sign negative

A
  • pemphioid

- deeper

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22
Q

What investigations are done into bullous disorders?

A
  • Skin biopsy

- direct immunofluroensnce

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23
Q

Difference between pemphiogoid and pemphigus

A
  • pemphigus = superfical

- pemphigoid = deeper

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24
Q

Pemphigus if untreated has a high rate of mortality.

TRUE OR FALSE

A
  • TRUE
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25
Q

Primary care first line treatment for acne vulgaris?

A
  • Topical retinoid (adapalene)
  • Topical antibiotic (clindamcin 1%)
  • Azeaic acid 20%
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26
Q

Primary care 2nd line treatment for acne vulgaris?

A
  • Oral antibiotic +/- topical retinoid

- COCP

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27
Q

Primary care 3rd line treatment for acne vulgaris?

A
  • Refer to dermatology (isotretinoin - oral retinoid)
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28
Q

What is seen in the acute phase of eczema?

A
  • papulovescular
  • erythematous lesions
  • oedema
  • ooze
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29
Q

What is seen in the chronic phase of eczema?

A
  • thickening of skin
  • elevated plaques
  • increased scalling
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30
Q

How can you diagnose a contact dermatitis?

A
  • batteries of allergies patch test
31
Q

Eczema hepeticum appears as what?

A
  • monomorphic punched out lesions
32
Q

Treatment of eczema?

A
  • emollients
  • avoid irritants
  • topical steriods
  • treat infection
33
Q

What is the gene often involved in ezcema?

A
  • flaggrin gene
34
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria for eczema?

A
  • itch
  • flexure rash
  • history of atopy
  • dry skin
  • onset before age of 2
35
Q

Eczema appears like?

A
  • illdefined erythema and scaling

- flexure distribution

36
Q

What is a common side effect of eczema?

A
  • infection
37
Q

Define itch?

A
  • poorly localised, non-adapting sensation that provokes the desire to scratch
38
Q

What fibres are involved in itching?

A
  • Unmyelinated C fibres
39
Q

Where is an ‘itch’ processed?

A
  • forebrain and hypothalamus
40
Q

Define pruritis?

A
  • itch
41
Q

What are some mediators of itch

A
  • histamine
  • PGE2
  • ACh
  • 5HT3
  • Unmyelinated C fibres
  • opiates
42
Q

When a mast cell degranulates what are the preformed chemicals that are released?

A
  • proteases
  • heparin
  • histamine
43
Q

When a mast cell degranulates what are the newly-formed chemicals that are released?

A
  • Prostaglandin D2

- Leukotrines

44
Q

What is a pruritoceptive itch

A
  • Itch sensation due to something in the skin
45
Q

What is a neuropathic itch?

A
  • Itch sensation due to damage to CNS or PNS
46
Q

What is a neurogenic itch?

A
  • Itch sensation due to opiates released from CNS, but with no evidence of damage
47
Q

What is a psychogenic itch?

A
  • psychological causes
48
Q

What are the management strategies of itch?

A
  • Determine cause if appropriate
  • treat the cause
  • sedative anti-histamines
  • mehtol emollients
  • antidepressants
49
Q

Urticaria drug reaction is what type of hypersensitivity?

A
  • Type I
50
Q

Pemphigoid and pemphigus drug reaction is what type of hypersensitivity?

A
  • Type II
51
Q

Purpura drug reaction is what type of hypersensitivity?

A
  • Type III
52
Q

Erythema drug reaction is what type of hypersensitivity?

A
  • Type IV
53
Q

What is the general presentation of a drug eruption?

A
  • exanhematous
  • urticaria
  • papulosquamous
  • itch
  • photosensitivity
54
Q

Exanthematous drug eruption appears like?

A
  • widespread, symmetrical rash
55
Q

Urticarial drug eruptions may be associated with what?

A
  • angioedema

- anaphylaxis

56
Q

Fixed drug eruptions are associated with what drugs?

A
  • Tetracycline
  • Paracetamol
  • NSAIDS
57
Q

What drugs may cause a phototoxic cutaneous drug reaction?

A
  • doxyxlicline
  • thiazide
  • NSAIDs
58
Q

What treatment can be given for actintic keratosis?

A
  • imiquimod
59
Q

Basal cell papilloma is another term for what condition?

A
  • seborrheic keratosis
60
Q

What treatment can be offered for seborrheic keratosis?

A
  • benign so no treatment needed

- cryotherapy if troublesome

61
Q

Describe the appearance of a blue naevus?

A
  • dense
  • even pigmenation
  • blue black colour
  • benign
62
Q

A raised brown symmetrical lesion on the skin, present for several years and unchanging?

A
  • Compound naveus
63
Q

What colour is a intradermal naevus?

A
  • Raised

- Skin colour

64
Q

What is the appearance of a junctional naevi?

A
  • flat
65
Q

What type of melanoma can metastasise?

A
  • vertical melanoma
66
Q

Explain the appearance of a dermatofibroma?

A
  • raised
  • firm lesion
  • fibroblast proliferation
  • scar like white centre on dermoscopy
67
Q

Actinic keratosis is _______ thickness dysplasia?

A
  • partial thickness
68
Q

Bowens disease is _______ thickness dysplasia?

A
  • Full thickness
69
Q

What would a haemanginoma appear like down the dermoscopy?

A
  • deep red/purple lacunae

- blood as a global feature

70
Q

Describe a macule

A
  • change in skin colour
  • flat
  • less than 1cm
71
Q

Describe a patch

A
  • a macule >1cm
72
Q

Describe a papule

A
  • solid
  • raised
  • less than 1cm
73
Q

Describe a plaque

A
  • solid
  • raised
  • flat topped lesion
  • greater than 1 cm
74
Q

Describe a nodule

A
  • solid
  • raised
  • not flat topped
  • greater than 1 cm

Dermatology (11 decks)

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