Skin examination Flashcards

1
Q

Will erythema blanch or not?

A
  • it will blanch
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2
Q

Will purpura blanch?

A
  • no
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3
Q

Define confluent

A
  • no normal background skin
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4
Q

What are the causes of psoriasis?

A
  • genetic

- environmental (stress, drugs, infection)

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5
Q

What is the presentation of psoriasis?

A
  • symmetrical
  • well demeractated
  • scaly
  • erythema plaques
  • extensor surfaces
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6
Q

What nail changes would you see in a patient with psoriasis?

A
  • pitting
  • oncholysis
  • dystrophy
  • subungal hyperkeratosis
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7
Q

What is koebner phenomenon?

A
  • seen in psoriasis

- plaques form at sites of skin trauma

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8
Q

What is auspitz sign?

A
  • removal of a plaque leaves visible tiny bleeding points
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9
Q

What are the co-morbidites of psoriasis?

A
  • psoriatic arthritis
  • crohn’s
  • cancer
  • depression
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10
Q

What drug treatments could be given in psoriasis?

A
  • emolients
  • steroid ointments (hydrocortisone)
  • vitamin D
  • Coal tar
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11
Q

What is acne vulgaris?

A
  • chronic inflammatory disease of the pilosebacous unit
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12
Q

What is the presentation of acne vulgaris

A
  • pilosebecaous units
  • comedone
  • pustules and papules
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13
Q

Treatment for acne

A
  • topical benzoylperoxide
  • retinoid topical
  • systemic antibiotics (tetracycline)
  • systemic oral retinoids (isotretinoin)
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14
Q

Where does rosacea affect?

A
  • nose
  • chin
  • forehead
  • cheeks
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15
Q

What is a visible difference between acne and rosacea?

A
  • rosacea has no comedones
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16
Q

What is the presentation of rosacea?

A
  • recurrent facial flushing

- rhinophyma (large nose)

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17
Q

Management of rosacea

A
  • limit trigger
  • tetracycline
  • isotretinoin (severe)
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18
Q

What is the presentation of lichen planus?

A
  • shiny

- pink, flat, plaques

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19
Q

Wickhams striae is associated with what?

A
  • lichen planus
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20
Q

Nickolskys sign positive?

A
  • pempigus

- superficial

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21
Q

Nickolskys sign negative

A
  • pemphioid

- deeper

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22
Q

What investigations are done into bullous disorders?

A
  • Skin biopsy

- direct immunofluroensnce

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23
Q

Difference between pemphiogoid and pemphigus

A
  • pemphigus = superfical

- pemphigoid = deeper

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24
Q

Pemphigus if untreated has a high rate of mortality.

TRUE OR FALSE

A
  • TRUE
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25
Primary care first line treatment for acne vulgaris?
- Topical retinoid (adapalene) - Topical antibiotic (clindamcin 1%) - Azeaic acid 20%
26
Primary care 2nd line treatment for acne vulgaris?
- Oral antibiotic +/- topical retinoid | - COCP
27
Primary care 3rd line treatment for acne vulgaris?
- Refer to dermatology (isotretinoin - oral retinoid)
28
What is seen in the acute phase of eczema?
- papulovescular - erythematous lesions - oedema - ooze
29
What is seen in the chronic phase of eczema?
- thickening of skin - elevated plaques - increased scalling
30
How can you diagnose a contact dermatitis?
- batteries of allergies patch test
31
Eczema hepeticum appears as what?
- monomorphic punched out lesions
32
Treatment of eczema?
- emollients - avoid irritants - topical steriods - treat infection
33
What is the gene often involved in ezcema?
- flaggrin gene
34
What is the diagnostic criteria for eczema?
- itch - flexure rash - history of atopy - dry skin - onset before age of 2
35
Eczema appears like?
- illdefined erythema and scaling | - flexure distribution
36
What is a common side effect of eczema?
- infection
37
Define itch?
- poorly localised, non-adapting sensation that provokes the desire to scratch
38
What fibres are involved in itching?
- Unmyelinated C fibres
39
Where is an 'itch' processed?
- forebrain and hypothalamus
40
Define pruritis?
- itch
41
What are some mediators of itch
- histamine - PGE2 - ACh - 5HT3 - Unmyelinated C fibres - opiates
42
When a mast cell degranulates what are the preformed chemicals that are released?
- proteases - heparin - histamine
43
When a mast cell degranulates what are the newly-formed chemicals that are released?
- Prostaglandin D2 | - Leukotrines
44
What is a pruritoceptive itch
- Itch sensation due to something in the skin
45
What is a neuropathic itch?
- Itch sensation due to damage to CNS or PNS
46
What is a neurogenic itch?
- Itch sensation due to opiates released from CNS, but with no evidence of damage
47
What is a psychogenic itch?
- psychological causes
48
What are the management strategies of itch?
- Determine cause if appropriate - treat the cause - sedative anti-histamines - mehtol emollients - antidepressants
49
Urticaria drug reaction is what type of hypersensitivity?
- Type I
50
Pemphigoid and pemphigus drug reaction is what type of hypersensitivity?
- Type II
51
Purpura drug reaction is what type of hypersensitivity?
- Type III
52
Erythema drug reaction is what type of hypersensitivity?
- Type IV
53
What is the general presentation of a drug eruption?
- exanhematous - urticaria - papulosquamous - itch - photosensitivity
54
Exanthematous drug eruption appears like?
- widespread, symmetrical rash
55
Urticarial drug eruptions may be associated with what?
- angioedema | - anaphylaxis
56
Fixed drug eruptions are associated with what drugs?
- Tetracycline - Paracetamol - NSAIDS
57
What drugs may cause a phototoxic cutaneous drug reaction?
- doxyxlicline - thiazide - NSAIDs
58
What treatment can be given for actintic keratosis?
- imiquimod
59
Basal cell papilloma is another term for what condition?
- seborrheic keratosis
60
What treatment can be offered for seborrheic keratosis?
- benign so no treatment needed | - cryotherapy if troublesome
61
Describe the appearance of a blue naevus?
- dense - even pigmenation - blue black colour - benign
62
A raised brown symmetrical lesion on the skin, present for several years and unchanging?
- Compound naveus
63
What colour is a intradermal naevus?
- Raised | - Skin colour
64
What is the appearance of a junctional naevi?
- flat
65
What type of melanoma can metastasise?
- vertical melanoma
66
Explain the appearance of a dermatofibroma?
- raised - firm lesion - fibroblast proliferation - scar like white centre on dermoscopy
67
Actinic keratosis is _______ thickness dysplasia?
- partial thickness
68
Bowens disease is _______ thickness dysplasia?
- Full thickness
69
What would a haemanginoma appear like down the dermoscopy?
- deep red/purple lacunae | - blood as a global feature
70
Describe a macule
- change in skin colour - flat - less than 1cm
71
Describe a patch
- a macule >1cm
72
Describe a papule
- solid - raised - less than 1cm
73
Describe a plaque
- solid - raised - flat topped lesion - greater than 1 cm
74
Describe a nodule
- solid - raised - not flat topped - greater than 1 cm