Skeletal System - Chapter 12 Flashcards

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1
Q

Which function of the skeleton do the rib cage, vertebral column, and skull represent?

Support the body

Protect soft body parts

Produce blood cells

Store minerals and fat

Permit flexible body movement

A

Protect soft body parts

*The rib cage protects internal organs. The skull protects the brain, and the vertebral column protects the spinal cord.

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2
Q

Which function of the skeletal system requires the leg bones to be extremely strong?

They support the entire body

They protect soft body parts

They produce blood cells

They store minerals and fat

They permit flexible body movement.

A

They support the entire body.

*The skeletal system supports the entire body. This requires the leg bones to be very strong in order to provide support.

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3
Q

Where, besides adipose tissue, is fat stored?

Matrix of bone

Yellow bone marrow

Red bone marrow

Periosteum

Articular cartilage

A

Yellow bone marrow

*Fat is stored in the yellow bone marrow.

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4
Q

Only certain bones in the fetus produce blood cells, but all the bones in the adult produce blood cells.

True

False

A

False

*Only certain bones in the adult produce blood cells, but all the bones in the fetus produce blood cells.

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5
Q

From the outside to the inside of a long bone, what is the first tissue encountered?

Compact bone

Spongy bone

Periosteum

Medullary cavity

Bone marrow

A

Periosteum

*The periosteum is a layer of fibrous connective tissue that completely covers a long bone except for the articular cartilage at the bone’s end.

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6
Q

What term is associated with spongy bone but not with compact bone?

Canaliculi

Osteocytes

Trabeculae

Bone marrow

Blood vessels

A

Trabeculae

*Both spongy and compact bones have osteocytes, canaliculi, bone marrow, and blood vessels but only spongy bone has trabeculae.

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7
Q

What is a canaliculus?

The large cavity inside a long bone

A stress plate in spongy bone

A fibrous connective covering of bone

A small channel in the matrix of bone

A type of bone-forming cell

A

A small channel in the matrix of bone.

*The tiny canals called canaliculi (sing., canaliculus) run through the matrix of bone.

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8
Q

The medullary cavity is within the diaphysis of a long bone.

True

False

A

True

*The diaphysis is the shaft of a long bone, and the medullary cavity is within it.

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9
Q

Bone cells are called _____________ while cartilage cells are called ______________.

Osteocytes, osteoblasts

Lacunae, osteocytes

Chondrocytes, lacunae

Osteoblasts, chondrocytes

Osteocytes, chondrocytes

A

Osteocytes, chondrocytes

*Cells in bone are called osteocytes while cells in cartilage are called chondrocytes.

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10
Q

What type of cartilage is found at the ends of the long bones?

Elastic cartilage

Fibrocartilage

Hyaline cartilage

Spongy

Compact

A

Hyaline cartilage

*Hyaline cartilage is found at the ends of long bones, the nose, at the ends of the ribs, and in the larynx and trachea. Elastic cartilage is found in the ear flaps and epiglottis. Fibrocartilage is found in the knee joint and intervertebral discs. Spongy and compact are bone types.

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11
Q

Jason broke his finger playing football, while Sean tore the cartilage in his knee playing basketball. Which one will heal faster and why?

Jason, bones have a blood supply and heal faster

Jason, fingers bear less weight than knees do

Sean, cartilage has a blood supply and can heal faster

Sean, knees can be immobilized easier than fingers

Jason, fingers require fewer nutrients to repair because they are small

A

Jason, bones have a blood supply and heal faster

*Cartilage is lacking a blood supply and that makes it slow to heal.

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12
Q

The epiglottis is a structure that needs to be strong but extremely flexible. What type of tissue makes up the epiglottis?

Elastic cartilage

Fibrocartilage

Hyaline cartilage

Bone

Muscle

A

Elastic cartilage

*The epiglottis is made of elastic cartilage.

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13
Q

Bones continue to grow throughout a lifetime.

True

False

A

True

*Bones are able to respond to stress by changing size, shape, and strength throughout our lifetime.

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14
Q

Bone recycling allows the body to regulate what?

The amount of sodium in the blood

The amount of calcium in the blood

the amount of sodium in the bone

The amount of vitamin C in the blood

A

The amount of calcium in the blood.

*Bone serves as a storage reservoir for calcium, and recycling allows the body to regulate the amount of calcium in the blood.

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15
Q

Exercise stimulates the activity of osteoclasts instead of osteoblasts.

True

False

A

False

*Exercise stimulates the activity of osteoblasts (bone forming) instead of osteoclasts (bone absorbing).

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16
Q

What two hormones are involved in regulating the blood calcium level?

Calcitonin and renin

Renin and aldosterone

Renin and PTH

Aldosterone and PTH

PTH and calcitonin

A

PTH and calcitonin

*PTH stimulates the osteoclasts while calcitonin has the opposite effect.

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17
Q

How are osteocytes and osteoblasts related?

Osteocytes become osteoblasts as the bone matures.

Osteoblasts become osteocytes as the bone matures.

Osteocytes and osteoblasts have the same function, but osteocytes work in the adult and osteoblasts work in the fetus.

Osteocytes and osteoblasts work opposite each other.

One builds up bone while the other absorbs it.

Osteocytes are mature bone cells while osteoblasts are a form of bone cancer.

A

Osteoblasts become osteocytes as the bone matures.

*When an osteoblast is surrounded by a calcified matrix, it becomes an osteocyte.

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18
Q

Which of the following statements is not true regarding the region of primary ossification of a bone?

Osteoblasts are derived from the newly formed periosteum.

Bone formation spreads from the center to the ends of the bone.

As the cartilage models calcify, the chondrocytes die off.

The region of primary ossification is where osteoclasts are laid down on the outside of the bone.

A band of cartilage remains between the primary ossification center and each secondary center.

A

The region of primary ossification is where osteoclasts are laid down on the outside of the bone.

*The region of primary ossification is where osteoblasts lay down spongy bone in the interior of the bone.

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19
Q

As long as the growth plate remains, the limbs will keep increasing in length.

True

False

A

True

*The limbs keep increasing in length as long as growth plates, bands of cartilage, are still present.

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20
Q

Which bones develop by intramembranous ossification?

The long bones of the leg

The long bones of the arms

The ribs

The fingers

The skull

A

Skull

*Flat bones, such as the bones of the skull, develop by intramembranous ossification.

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21
Q

Arrange the steps of bone repair in order. 1. Remodeling; 2. Bony callus; 3. Hematoma; 4. Fibrocartilaginous callus

1, 2, 3, 4

4, 3, 2, 1

1, 2, 4, 3

3, 4, 2, 1

2, 1, 4, 3

A

3, 4, 2, 1

*The order of bone repair is hematoma, fibrocartilagenous callus, followed by a bony callus, and remodeling.

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22
Q

How long does the bony callus in a bone repair last?

1-2 days

3-4 weeks

3-4 months

1-2 years

More than 10 years

A

3-4 months

*The bony callus lasts about three to four months.

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23
Q

How is bone repair different from bone development?

A hematoma indicates an injury has occurred.

Osteoblasts are not involved in bone repair but are in bone development.

Osteoclasts are involved in bone development but not in bone repair.

Only spongy bone is built in bone repair while both spongy and compact bone are built in bone development.

There is no cartilage involved in bone repair but there is in bone development.

A

A hematoma indicates an injury has occurred.

*In some ways, bone repair parallels the development of bone except that the first step, hematoma, indicates that an injury has occurred.

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24
Q

A simple break of the tibia is when the bone is broken clear through.

True

False

A

False

*A simple break means that the bone does not pierce the skin. A complete fracture occurs when the bone is broken clear through.

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25
Q

What criterion is used to categorize the skeleton into axial and appendicular?

Whether the bones are weight-bearing or not

Whether the bones lie on the midline or on a girdle

Whether the bones are flat or long

Whether the bones contain red bone marrow or yellow bone marrow

Whether the bones articulate with the pelvis or not

A

Whether the bones lie on the midline or on a girdle

*If the bones lie on the midline of the body, they are part of the axial skeleton. If they are part of the girdles or hang from them, they are appendicular.

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26
Q

Which of the following is not part of the axial skeleton?

Clavicle

Hyoid

Temporal

Rib

Vertebrae

A

Clavicle

*The clavicle is part of the appendicular skeleton.

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27
Q

Which bone in the body does not articulate with any other bone?

Scapula

Maxilla

Hyoid

Coccyx

Temporal

A

Hyoid

*The hyoid bone is the only bone that does not articulate with another bone.

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28
Q

Jill broke her cheekbone in an ice-skating accident. Which bone did she break?

Temporal

Mandible

Maxilla

Zygomatic bone

Frontal bone

A

Zygomatic bone

*The zygomatic bone forms the cheekbone.

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29
Q

How are the bones of the cranium named?

For their articulation with the vertebral column

For whether they are formed from cartilage or not

For their shape

For their size

For the lobes of the brain they protect

A

For the lobes of the brain they protect.

*The bones of the cranium (frontal, parietal, occipital, and temporal) have the same names as the lobes of the brain.

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30
Q

How many vertebrae are there?

5

15

18

24

33

A

33

*There are 33 vertebrae.

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31
Q

What is the name of the first cervical vertebra? Why?

Atlas; Greek mythology

Atlas; it allows the “yes” motion of the head

Axis; Roman mythology

Axis; it allows the “no” motion of the head

Sphenoid; Egyptian sphinx mythology

A

Atlas; Greek mythology

*The first cervical vertebra, called the atlas, holds up the head. Atlas, of Greek mythology, held up the world.

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32
Q

The thoracic vertebrae are associated with the ribs.

True

False

A

True

*There are twelve thoracic vertebrae named because they articulate with the ribs.

33
Q

The name of the “tailbone” is the

Lumbar

Sacrum

Coccyx

Sphenoid

Axis

A

Coccyx

*The tailbone is three to five fused vertebrae called the coccyx.

34
Q

What are the functions of the sinuses?

To drain fluid from the brain and allow the brain to expand

To give resonant sound to the voice and to allow the brain to expand

To lighten the skull and drain fluid from the brain

To lighten the skull and give a resonant sound to the voice

To allow the brain to expand and to lighten the skull

A

To lighten the skull and give a resonant sound to the voice.

*The sinuses reduce the weight of the skull and give a resonant sound to the voice.

35
Q

What are the intervertebral disks made of?

Bone

Skeletal muscle

Hyaline cartilage

Fibrocartilage

Elastic cartilage

A

Fibrocartilage

*Between the vertebrae are intervertebral disks composed of fibrocartilage that acts as padding.

36
Q

All 12 pairs of ribs connect directly to the thoracic vertebrae in the back and the sternum in front.

True

False

A

False

*While all 12 pairs of ribs connect directly to the thoracic vertebrae in the back, only 7 pairs connect to the sternum in the front.

37
Q

Due to the compression of her vertebral disks, Carla had several of her lumbar vertebrae fused together. How does this affect Carla?

She will have limited movement in that area.

She will not be affected at all.

She will need assistance in walking.

She will be unable to stand up.

She will be unable to lie flat on her back.

A

She will have limited movement in that area.

*The intervertebral disks allow the vertebrae to move as we bend forward, backward, and from side to side. If the vertebrae are fused together, this type of movement will be limited.

38
Q

Which of the following bones is not part of the pectoral girdle and attached limbs?

Clavicle

Sternum

Scapula

Ulna

Humerus

A

Sternum

* The sternum is part of the axial skeleton.

39
Q

Emma developed a rotator cuff injury. What part of her body is injured?

Neck

Upper back

Shoulder

Lower back

Lower arm

A

Shoulder

*The rotator cuff attaches the humerus to the scapula at the shoulder region.

40
Q

How many bones are present in the pelvic girdle?

One

Two

Three

Four

Five

A

Two

*The pelvic girdle consists of two large coxal bones.

41
Q

Which of the following is not part of the coxal bone?

Patella

Ilium

Ischium

Pubis

Acetabulum

A

Patella

*The patella is the knee cap.

42
Q

The head of the radius is located at the

Elbow

Wrist

Shoulder

Sternum

Knee

A

Elbow

*The head of the radius is located at the elbow.

43
Q

The humerus fits into what at the shoulder?

Acetabulum

Clavicle

Acromion process

Glenoid cavity

Olecranon process

A

Glenoid cavity

*The humerus articulates with the glenoid cavity of the scapula.

44
Q

It is impossible to tell whether skeletal remains are male or female.

True

False

A

False

*The male and female pelvis differs from each other and can be used to identify the sex of skeletal remains.

45
Q

When you hit your “funny bone”, what are you hitting?

Olecranon process

Deltoid tuberosity

Acromion process

Head of the ulna

Glenoid process

A

Olecranon process

*Your “funny bone” is the olecranon process of the ulna.

46
Q

Daniel has a very large deltoid tuberosity. This is probably because Daniel

Is a pianist.

Spends a lot of time playing video games.

Lifts heavy weights with his arms.

Plays basketball

Is a runner.

A

Lifts heavy weights with his arms.

* The deltoid tuberosity on the humerus is where the deltoid muscle attaches. It increases in size with heavy lifting.

47
Q

Which bone is the longest and strongest bone in the body?

Humerus

Pelvis

Tibia

Fibula

Femur

A

Femur

*The femur is the longest and strongest bone in the body.

48
Q

What holds the patella in place?

The lateral epicondyle

The quadriceps tendon

The medial condyle

The lateral malleolus

The greater trochanter

A

The quadriceps tendon

*The patella is held in place by the quadriceps tendon.

49
Q

There are phalanges in both the lower limbs and upper limbs.

True

False

A

True

*The bones of the fingers and the toes are called phalanges.

50
Q

Which of the following is not a type of joint?

Trochanter

Fibrous

Cartilaginous

Synovial

Suture

A

Trochanter

*A trochanter is not a type of joint, they are large bony projections located on the femur.

51
Q

Which of the following joints is a fibrous joint?

Sutures between cranial bones

Ribs and sternum

Intervertebral disks

Elbow

Knee

A

Sutures between cranial bones.

*Many fibrous joints, such as the sutures between the cranial bone are immovable.

52
Q

Which type of joints tend to be slightly movable?

Fibrous

Cartilaginous

Synovial

Sutures

None of these are slightly moveable

A

Cartilaginous

*Cartilaginous joints tend to be slightly movable.

53
Q

A ligament connects

Cartilage to bone.

Muscle to bone.

Bone to bone.

A cartilaginous joint.

Muscle to muscle.

A

Bone to bone.

*Ligaments connect bone to bone. Tendons connect muscle to bone. Cartilaginous joints are connected by hyaline or fibrocartilage. Muscles are connected to other muscles by aponeurosis.

54
Q

Which of the following is not associated with a synovial joint?

Bursae

Menisci

Ligaments

Fibrocartilage

Fibrous capsule

A

Fibrocartilage

*Fibrocartilage is another type of joint. It is not found in a synovial joint.

55
Q

A meniscus is made up of synovial fluid found within a joint.

True

False

A

False

*A meniscus is a C-shaped piece of hyaline cartilage.

56
Q

Which part of a synovial joint is a fluid-filled sac?

Symphysis

Suture

Synovial membrane

Menisci

Bursa

A

Bursa

*The bursae are fluid-filled sacs that ease friction in a joint.

57
Q

When you nod your head “yes”, what type of movement are you using?

Flextion and extension

Adduction and abduction

Rotation

Circumduction

Inversion

A

Flexion and extension

* Nodding “yes” is flexion and extension.

58
Q

When you kick your foot out in front of you, what type of movement are you using?

Adduction and abduction

Flection and extension

Rotation

Eversion

Inversion

A

Flexion and extension

*Kicking your foot out in front of you involves flexion and extension.

59
Q

When Phillip was little, he walked on the outside edge of his feet. This is what type of movement?

Rotation

Eversion

Inversion

Circumduction

Adduction and abduction

A

Inversion

* Walking on the outside of your foot so that the sole of the foot turns inward is called inversion.

60
Q

A synovial joint allows for flexion and extension, adduction and abduction, and inversion and eversion, but not rotation and circumduction.

True

False

A

False

*A synovial joint allows for all of these types of movement.

61
Q

Which bone is part of the pectoral girdle?

Clavicle

Radius

Ulna

Carpals

Manubrium

A

The clavicle

* The clavicle is part of the pectoral girdle. The radius, ulna, and carpals are part of the hand. The manubrium is part of the sternum.

62
Q

What term is used to describe bone cells?

Osteocytes

Chondrocytes

Trabeculae

Periosteum

Epiphysis

A

Osteocytes

*Osteocytes refer to bone cells. Chondrocytes refer to cartilage cells. Trabeculae refer to the thin plates found in the spongy bone. Periosteum refers to the fibrous connective tissue that covers a bone. Epiphysis refers to the expanded end of a long bone.

63
Q

Which bone is a part of the pelvic girdle?

Coxal bones

Clavicle

Femur

Scapula

Talus

A

Coxal bones

*The coxal bones are part of the pelvic girdle. The clavicle and scapula are part of the pectoral girdle. The femur is the bone in the thigh. The talus is a bone in the ankle.

64
Q

Which joint has the greatest range of motion?

Synovial

Sutures

Fibrous

Cartilaginous

All of these are equal movable.

A

Synovial

*Synovial joints have the greatest range of motion. Sutures and fibrous joints are immovable. Cartilaginous joints are slightly movable.

65
Q

Which joint action allows for the body part to move towards the midline?

Adduction

Abduction

Flexion

Pronation

Eversion

A

Adduction

*Adduction is the movement of a body part to the midline of the body. Abduction is the movement of a body part away from the midline. Flexion is the increase in the joint angle. Pronation is when the hand faces downward. Eversion is when the sole of the foot turns outward.

66
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding the region of primary ossification of a bone?

As the cartilage models calcify, the chondrocytes die off.

A band of cartilage remains between the primary ossification center and each secondary center.

Osteoblasts are derived from the newly formed periosteum.

All of the answer choices are true regarding the region of primary ossification of bone.

Bone formation spreads from the center to the ends of the bone.

A

All of the answer choices are true regarding the region of primary ossification of bone.

*The region of primary ossification is where osteoblasts lay down spongy bone in the interior of the bone.

67
Q

Daniel has a very large deltoid tuberosity. This is probably because Daniel

Lifts heavy weights with his arms.

Is a pianist.

Plays basketball.

Spends a lot of time playing video games.

Is a runner.

A

Lifts heavy weights.

*The deltoid tuberosity on the humerus is where the deltoid muscle attaches. It increases in size with heavy lifting.

68
Q

From the outside to the inside of a long bone, what is the first tissue encountered?

Periosteum

Compact bone

Medullary cavity

Spongy bone

Bone marrow

A

Periosteum

*The periosteum is a layer of fibrous connective tissue that completely covers a long bone except for the articular cartilage at the bone’s end.

69
Q

What holds the patella in place?

The medial condyle

The lateral epicondyle

The greater trochanter

The lateral malleolus

The quadriceps tendon

A

The quadriceps tendon.

* the patella is held in place by the quadriceps tendon.

70
Q

Which of the following is part of the coxal bone?

Pubis

Ilium

Ischium

Acetabulum

All of the answer choices are parts of the coxal bone.

A

All of the answer choices are parts of the coxal bone.

*All of the answer choices are parts of the coxal bone.

71
Q

Which of the following is a type of joint?

Tibia

Synapse

Ulna

Trochanter

Fibrous

A

Fibrous

*A trochanter is not a type of joint. It is a large bony projection located on the femur.

72
Q

Which of the following is associated with a synovial joint?

Ligaments

Bursae

Fibrous capsule

Menisci

All of the answer choices are features of synovial joints.

A

All of the answer choices are features of synovial joints.

*All of the answers are features of synovial joints.

73
Q

Most bones start in a growing fetus as a soft, flexible [_____________]

Cartilage

Osteoblasts

Osteoclasts

Stem

Model

Cells

Bioreactor

A

Cartilage

74
Q

Bone building cells are called [______________]

Cartilage

Osteoblasts

Osteoclasts

Stem

Model

Cells

Bioreactor

A

Osteoblasts

75
Q

Bone recyclers are called [__________]

Cartilage

Osteoblasts

Osteoclasts

Stem

Model

Cells

Bioreactors

A

Osteoclasts

76
Q

Step 1 of growing a bone in a lab: Doctors extract [____________] cells from a patients fat tissue

Cartilage

Osteoblasts

Osteoclasts

Stem

Model

Cells

Bioreactor

A

Stem

77
Q

Step 2: A [_________] of the exact shape of the missing bone is made with 3D printers or cow bones

Cartilage

Osteoblasts

Osteoclasts

Stem

Model

Cell

Bioreactor

A

Model

78
Q

Step 3: The patient’s stem [____________] are added

Cartilage

Osteoblasts

Osteoclasts

Stem

Model

Cells

Bioreactor

A

Cells

79
Q

Step 4: Everything is placed in a [______________] and within 3 weeks it is ready for implantation

Cartilage

Osteoblasts

Osteoclasts

Stem

Model

Cells

Bioreactor

A

Bioreactor