Simplified Final Flashcards
What are the 5 layers of the epidermis from deep to superficial?
Stratum Basale Stratum Spinosum Stratum Granulosum Stratum Lucidum Stratum Corneum (BSGLC)
What type of epithelium is the skin?
Stratified Squamous Epithelium
is found in only thick (hairless) skin
Stratum Lucidum
Where are keratinocytes made?
Stratum Basale
The layer from which all cells are regenerated in the skin
Stratum Basale
Sheded flakes of skin are referred to as
Squames
What are the four cells found in the epidermis?
Keratinocytes
Melanocytes
Langerhans Cells
Merkel Discs
Cells which carry pigment granules that give the skin its color
Langerhans Cells
Langerhans cells are a type of _____ cell
dendritic
A type of nervous system cell that detects light touch
Merkel Disc
Help to waterproof the skin
Keratin
What vitamin is synthesized in the skin
Vitamin D
is a dense connective layer beneath the epidermis
Dermis
The dermis is made up of what few type of cells?
Collagen and elastic fibers
about 1/5 of the thickness of the dermis
Papillary region
Palms, fingertips, and soles of the feet, the underlying structure of the dermis causes the skin to have fingerprints.
Papillary region
about 4/5 of the thickness of the dermis
Reticular region
Nerves and blood vessels runs through this layer. Hair roots and glands are present here
Reticular region
Stretch marks are referred to as
Striae
A bone stem cell and is the precursor to all other cell types
Osteogenic cell
Dividing cells. Laying down the components of bone. Bone building cells. Forms bone
Osteoblasts
Bone cells. Maintain bone integrity.
Osteocytes
Constantly tunnel through bone. Dissolving the bone matrix as they go. Bone chewing. Breaks down bone.
Osteoclasts
Inorganic (mineralized) component of bone is primarily
Hydroxyapatite (calcium, hydroxyl, and phosphate)
Organic (protein) component of bone is primarily
Collagen type 1
When there is too much bone minerals, it becomes brittle and fractures easily
Osteogenesis Imperfecta
If a bone has too much collagen, bones are soft and pliable, as in
Rickets (children)
Osteomalacia (adults)
What does PTH do with bone cells?
Stimulates osteoclasts
Inhibits osteoblasts
What does Calcitonin (CT) do with bone cells?
Stimulates osteoblasts
Inhibits osteclasts
If you have a low blood calcium, what happens to osteoblasts and osteoclasts?
Stimulation of osteoclasts
Inhibition of osteoblasts
If you have a high blood calcium, what happens to osteoblasts and osteoclasts?
Stimulation of osteoblasts
Inhibition of osteoclasts
If blood calcium is too low, what hormone kicks in?
PTH
If blood calcium is too high, what hormone kicks in?
Calcitonin
What does PTH do to blood calcium?
Raises it
What does Calcitonin do to blood calcium?
Lowers it
What does Calcitriol do?
Detects low blood calcium in the kidneys and increases absorption in the GI tract
Part of the nasal sinuses. Back of the eye.
Ethmoid Bone
A horshoe shaped “floating bone” in the neck
Hyoid Bone
Small bone that forms the bridge of the nose.
Nasal Bone
Forming the roof of the mouth
Palatine Bone
Complex shape in the center of the skull, butterfly shaped bone
Sphenoid
A bone between the ethmoid, maxilla and palatine bone
Vomer
The largest part of a vertebra is the
Body
A joint between two adjacent bodies is filled with a disk of fibrocartilage
Intervertebral Disc
Extend laterally on the vertebrae
Transverse processes
Connects the transverse process to the vertebral body
Pedicle
Is a projection which protrudes posteriorly on a vertebrae
Spinous process
Joins a transverse process to the spinous process
Laminae
The first cervical vertebrae is called the
Atlas
The second cervical vertebrae is called the
Axis
Nod or bump located on C2.
Dens
What is unique about a cervical vertebrae?
Bifid
C7 is referred to as
Vertebra prominens
Made up of 5 fused vertebrae
Sacrum
Made up of 3-4 fused vertebrae
Coccyx
What are ribs 1-7 referred to as?
True ribs. This is because they directly connect c the sternum.
Ribs 8-10 are referred to as?
False ribs. This is because they use rib 7 to articulate c the sternum.
Ribs 11-12 are referred to as
Floating ribs.
What two bones form the pectoral girdle?
Clavicle
Scapula
Three bones that make up the pelvis.
Ilium
Ischium
Pubis
Two halves of the pelvis join where?
Pubic Symphysis
Socket for the head of the femur is called
Acetabulum
Largest bone in the body
Femur
Kneecap
Patella
Ankle Bones
Tarsals
Big toe is referred to as
Halux
Knuckle on bone
Condyle
On top of a condyle
Epicondyle
Window
Foramen
Ditch
Fossa
Projection
Process
Like process, but pointed.
Spine
Pulley
Trochlea
Little potato
Tubercle
Potato-like bump
Tuberosity
Point of contact between the nervous system and the muscular system
Neuromuscular Junction
Motor neurons release what neurotransmitters?
ACh
Last neuron in the motor neuron is called
Alpha motor neuron
Breaks apart ACh molecule at its ester linkage
Acetylcholinesterase
Help action potential penetrate deep into the muscle fibers
Transverse tubules (T tubules)
Two sarcoplasmic reticulum and a T tubule make up a
Triad
The sarcoplasmic reticulum releases what?
Calcium Ions
Calcium binds to what in muscle cells?
Troponin
Troponin does what once calcium is present?
Moves tropomyosin for action and myosin to attach
Sensory nerves are also called
Afferent nerves
Motor nerves are also called
Efferent nerves
Energy is converted to the nervous system through the process called
Transduction
Comprises those which are not under conscious control. a.k.a. don’t involve the cerebral cortex
Autonomic Nervous System (ANS)
Begins in the cerebral cortex and passes through the spinal cord. For skeletal and voluntary muscle.
Somatic Nervous System
Nerve cells are called.
Neurons
Glial cells are called
Glia
What are the four types of glial cells?
Astrocytes (astroglia)
Oligodendrocytes (Oligodendroglia)
Microglia
Ependymal cells
All atoms want to move from high to low concentration
Concentration forces
Positive ions want to move where there are excess negative charges and vice versa
Electrical forces
Concentration (diffusional) forces pushes K+…
Out of the cell
Electrical forces push K+…
Into the cell
Concentration (diffusional) forces push Na+…
Into the cell
Electrical forces push Na+…
Into the cell
Depolarization occurs when
Sodium channels open
Repolarization occurs when
Potassium channels open
Open up all voltage gated sodium channels. The tipping point is called..
Treshold
During the time that sodium channels are inactivated and potassium channels are open, nothing can change the state of these cells.
Refractory Period
When firing an action potential is impossible, we call this
Absolute refractory period
When its difficult to fire an action potential, because all of the channels have reset we call this
Relative refractory period
What are the sequence of events at the synapse?
- Action potential arrives
- Ca++ enters terminal
- Ca++ interacts with synaptic vesicles
- Neurotransmitter released from vesicles
- Receptor protein undergoes a change
- Ion flow results in a Post synaptic potential
When a cell becomes more negative
Inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP)
When a cell becomes more positive
Excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP)
Where a chemical signal acts on receptors on the same cell that release the chemical signal. Cells signal themselves.
Autocrine signaling
Where a chemical signal travels a short distance to neighboring cells in the same organ. Cells signaling neighbors
Paracrine signaling
Where a hormone is release to act on receptors on a distant organ. Cells signaling distant targets.
Endocrine signaling
Have channels that open and close in response to outside chemical signals
Ionotropic Receptors
Proteins that change the internal biochemistry of the cell in response to outside chemical signals
Metabotropic receptors
Tapering portion at the end of the spinal cord
Filum terminale
Part of spinal cord that processes sensory information
Posterior (dorsal) horn
Part of spinal cord that contains cell bodies of neurons
Anterior (ventral) horn
Three layers that cover brain
Meninges
Name the meninges from superficial to deep
Dura mater
Arachnoid mater
Pia mater
Large hole at bottom of skull
Foramen Magnum
Spinal cord ends in a bundle of nerves called
Cauda Equina (horses tail)
White matter predominates at what spinal level?
Cervical
Gray matter predominate at what spinal level?
Sacral
Contains cell bodies of sensory neurons
Dorsal root ganglion
Fight of flight system
Sympathetic Nervous System
Describe sympathetic ganglionic fibers
Short preganglionic
Long postganglionic
Where are sympathetic ganglia located on the spinal cord?
Thoracic and lumbar regions
What neurotransmitter is released on the postganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system
Norepinephrine
Rest and digest system
Parasympathetic Nervous System
Describe parasympathetic ganglionic fibers
Long preganglionic
Short postganglionic
Effectors for the ANS
Smooth muscle
Cardiac muscle
Glands
Effectors for somatic NS
Skeletal muscle
Neurotransmitter for ANS (Sympathetic)
Norepinephrine receptors
Neurotransmitter for ANS (Parasympathetic)
Muscarinic acetylcholine receptors
Neurotransmitter for somatic NS
Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors
Shaped like the letter C located beneath white matter of cerebral cortex
Lateral ventricle
Slit-like opening between the two eggs of the thalamus
Third ventricle
Between the brainstem and cerebellum
Fourth ventricle
Connects the third and fourth ventricle
Cerebral Aqueduct
KNOW CRANIAL NERVES.
- Know mnemonic
- Know whether they are sensory or motor
- Be able to label them on a diagram.
:)
Refer to the neuron that makes the final contact between the nervous system and effector organ
Lower motor neuron
All other neurons in the brain and spinal cord that influence movement but do not make direct contact with a skeletal muscle fiber
Upper motor neuron
Parts of the nervous system that receive information from the external and internal environment
Sensory system
Process through which the environmental energy is transformed into nervous system energy
Transduction
Receive their stimuli from the external environment. Light particle/waves. 5 senses.
Exteroreceptors
Receive their energy from the internal environment. Oxygen levels, glucose, and CO2 levels (pH)
Interoreceptors
Receptors that integrate information about the state of stretch of skin, muscles, and tendons with information about gravity positions.
Proprioceptors
Detect movement such as pressure of clothing on skin.
Mechanoreceptors
Detect temperatures between 44F and 122F
Thermoreceptors
Detect harmful or damaging stimuli. Damaged cells. Free nerve endings in skin.
Nociceptors.
Detect photons (particles/waves of light energy)
Photoreceptors
Detect chemicals in the internal or external environment. Taste and smell.
Chemoreceptors
In the Hypothalamus. Detect levels of sodium in the blood and respond by secreting chemicals that regulate water retention or loss.
Osmoreceptors
An area of skin that is innervated by a single spinal nerve root
Dermatomes
Where are olfactory receptors found?
Superior surface of the nasal sinus
Small molecules carried by air that are dissolved in the mucus layer that covers the olfactory epithelium
Odorants
Covers most of the tongues surface. Non-taste structures that give the tongue rough texture.
Filiform Papillae
Papillae that look like little mushrooms.
Fungiform Papillae
Leaf-shaped papillae found along the lateral surface of the posterior tongue.
Foliate Papillae
Form a V-shaped row along the posterior tongue.
Vallate (circumvallate) papillae
Head tilt, which is called linear acceleration.
Static equilibrium
Head rotation or head movement. Called angular acceleration.
Dynamic equilibrium
Connection between nervous and endocrine system
Hypothalamus
Anterior lobe of pituitary is called the
Adenohypophysis
Posterior lobe of the pituitary is called the
Neurohypophysis
Insufficient production or secretion of ADH is what type of Diabetes Insipidus?
Neurogenic (hypothalamus)
Diminished renal response to the ADH that is produced is what type of diabetes inspidus?
Nephrogenic (kidneys)
What does PTH do to blood calcium, magnesium and calcitriol levels?
Increases them
What does PTH do to blood phosphate levels?
Decreases them
Usually caused by benign tumors of the cells in the medulla
Pheochromocytoma
What does glucagon do to blood sugar?
Raises it
What does insulin do to blood sugar?
Lowers it
Two main components of blood
Formed Elements
Plasma
What are the formed elements of blood?
RBC’s
WBC’s
Platelets
Why are RBC’s a biconcave disc?
High surface-to-volume ratio
Reverse-deformity
O2 carrying molecule of the red blood cell
Hemoglobin
Part of hematopoiesis. Specifically relating to the production of red blood cells.
Erythropoiesis
Immature red blood cell.
Reticulocyte
O2 deficiency in the blood
Hypoxemia
Decrease in normal number of red blood cells
Anemia
Term for white blood cell
Leukocyte
What are the granular leukocytes?
Neutrophils
Eosinophils
Basophils
What are the agranular leukocytes?
Monocytes
Lymphocytes
Overall process by which bleeding is stopped
Hemostasis
What are the three mechanisms of hemostasis?
- Vascular Spasm
- Platelet Plug Formation
- Coagulation (clotting)
What is innate immunity?
Non-adaptive. Born with it. Barriers (skin, fever, etc)
What is adaptive immunity?
Adaptive. Specific. Acquired or learned with it. (T, B lymphocytes, etc)
What are the signs and symptoms of inflammation?
Redness Pain Heat Swelling Possible loss of function
A substance that is recognized as foreign reacts with product of the immune system is a/an
Antigen
Where are T lymphocytes produced?
Thymus
Where are B lymphocytes produced?
Bone Marrow
T-Helper cells are also referred to as
CD4 cells
T-Cytotoxic cells are also referred to as
CD8 cells
Activated to become plasma cells and produce antibodies. B lymphocytes.
Antibody-mediated Immunity
Activated directly against abnormal cells, such as cancer cells or even tissue
Cell mediated Immunity
IgG are what type of antibodies?
Long term
lgM are what type of antibodies?
First-response
lgA are what type of antibodies?
Secretions
IgE are what type of antibodies?
over abundance, allergies
The sequence of events and outcomes of the immune response with an initial exposure to an antigen
Primary immune response
Relates to second of subsequent exposures
Secondary response
Receives deoxygenated blood from body
Right atrium
Receives oxygenated blood from lungs
Left atrium
Pumps to lungs
Right ventricle
Pumps to body
Left Ventricle
Valves between atrium and ventricle
AV valves (atrioventricular)
Valve between right atrium and right ventricle
Tricuspid AV valve
Valve between left atrium and left ventricle
Bicuspid AV valve (Mitral)
When the tricuspid is open what other valve is open?
Bicuspid
When the aortic semilunar valve is open what other valve is open?
Pulmonary semilunar (open/close in pairs)
What opens for the autorhythmicity cells to become closer to threshold?
Na+ Channels open
Open making the membrane potential more and more positive
Ca+ channels
Second half of action potential when the membrane potential becomes more negative (repolarization)
K+ channels
atrial depolarization
P wave
atrial “kick” fits ventricles
P-Q interval
Ventricles depolarize.
Atria repolarize.
QRS complex
Blood flows out, ventricles empty
S-T segment
Ventricular repolarization
T wave
Number of cardiac cycles per minute
heart rate
Ventricles fill to about 120ml
End-diastolic volume (EDV)
The amount remaining in ventricles after contraction
End-systolic volume (ESV)
Volume decreased by amount pumped out.
Stroke volume
Stroke volume equals
EDV-ESV
Stroke volume output divided by end-diastolic volume
ejection fracture
Quantity of blood pumped into aorta each minute
Cardiac output
CO =
SV x HR
The mass movement of air into and out of the lungs
Pulmonary ventilation
Movement of air into the lungs
Inspiration
Movement of air out of the lungs
Expiration
States as pressure goes up volume goes down and vice versa
Boyle’s law
Volume of air inspired or expired during normal quiet breathing
Tidal Volume (Tv) ~500 ml
All of the air that you can breathe in from the top of tidal volume
Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV)
All of the air that you can breathe out from the bottom of tidal volume during a forced exhalation
Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV)
Air still present in lung tissue after thoracic cavity has been opened
Residual Volume (RV)
The sum of tidal volume and IRV
Inspiratory capacity
The sum of residual volume and ERV
Functional residual capacity
Sum of IRV, TV, and ERV
Vital capacity
Sum of vital capacity and residual volume
Total lung capacity
Is the exchange of gases between the pulmonary capillaries and the alveoli which contain atmospheric air
External respiration
Is the exchange of gases between the tissue and the systemic capillaries
Internal respiration
Excessive ventilation
Hyperventilation
Decreased ventilation
Hypoventilation
Quick, shallow breaths
Panting
Normal respiration
Eupnea
Increased respiration rate
Hyperpnea
Temporary halt in respiration
Apnea
Inside of a tube is called
Lumen
What are the three parts of the small intestine?
Duodenum
Jejunum
Ileum
Small lymph vessel that carries lipids from the absorptive epithelium
Lacteal
What do goblet cells secrete?
Mucus
What do enteroendocrine cells secrete?
Secretin
Cholecystokinin
GIP
What do paneth cells secrete?
Lysozyme and they are capable of phagocytosis
Conjugated bilirubin in the feces is
Stercobilin
Conjugated bilirubin in urine is
Urobilinogen
Alpha cells secrete
Glucagon
Beta cells secrete
Insulin
Delta cells secrete
Somatostatin
F cells secrete
Pancreatic Polypeptide
Epsilon cells secrete
Ghrelin
Primary buffer system of the blood
Sodium Bicarbonate
A starch digesting enzyme
Amylase
Enzymes that break proteins into amino acids
Trypsin
Chymotrypsin
Etc…
A fat digesting enzyme
Pancreatic Lipase
Enzymes that break down nucleic acids
Ribonuclease
Deoxyribonuclease
Name the four structure of a nephron
Renal corpuscle
Renal tubules
Collecting duct
Papillary duct
What is the renal corpuscle comprised of?
Glomerulus
Glomerular Capsule
What are the renal tubes comprised of?
Proximal and distal convoluted tubules
Loop of Henle
Reabsorption between renal cells
Paracellular reabsorption
Reabsorption through the renal tubule cells
Transcellular reabsorption
Majority of solute and water reabsorption occurs where
Proximal convoluted tubule
Cells of the proximal convoluted tubules are
Cuboidal c microvilli
Water follows concentration gradient throughout most of the nephron. 90% of water reabsorption
Obligatory reabsorption
Regulated by ADH in the renal tubules and collecting ducts. 10% of water reabsorption
Facultative reabsorption
What is secreted in tubular secretion?
H+
K+
NH4+ (ammonium)
Creatinine
What percent of fluid is intracellular
2/3
What percent of fluid is extracellular
1/3
What is extracellular fluid comprised of?
Interstitial fluid
Plasma
Molecules that have the ability to bind H+, thus reducing pH of the solution. Do not get rid of H+
Buffers
Hyperventilation ________ the pH
Increases (alkaline)
Hypoventilation ________ the pH
Decreases (acidic)
Accumulation of excess CO2
Respiratory acidosis
Exhalation of too much CO2
Respiratory alkalosis
Decrease in plasm HCO3-, diarrhea, renal disfunction all cause
Metabolic acidosis
Non-respiratory acid loss, excessive HCO3-, vomiting and antacids all cause
Metabolic alkalosis
