Simplified Final Flashcards
1
Q
What are the 5 layers of the epidermis from deep to superficial?
A
Stratum Basale Stratum Spinosum Stratum Granulosum Stratum Lucidum Stratum Corneum (BSGLC)
2
Q
What type of epithelium is the skin?
A
Stratified Squamous Epithelium
3
Q
is found in only thick (hairless) skin
A
Stratum Lucidum
4
Q
Where are keratinocytes made?
A
Stratum Basale
5
Q
The layer from which all cells are regenerated in the skin
A
Stratum Basale
6
Q
Sheded flakes of skin are referred to as
A
Squames
7
Q
What are the four cells found in the epidermis?
A
Keratinocytes
Melanocytes
Langerhans Cells
Merkel Discs
8
Q
Cells which carry pigment granules that give the skin its color
A
Langerhans Cells
9
Q
Langerhans cells are a type of _____ cell
A
dendritic
10
Q
A type of nervous system cell that detects light touch
A
Merkel Disc
11
Q
Help to waterproof the skin
A
Keratin
12
Q
What vitamin is synthesized in the skin
A
Vitamin D
13
Q
is a dense connective layer beneath the epidermis
A
Dermis
14
Q
The dermis is made up of what few type of cells?
A
Collagen and elastic fibers
15
Q
about 1/5 of the thickness of the dermis
A
Papillary region
16
Q
Palms, fingertips, and soles of the feet, the underlying structure of the dermis causes the skin to have fingerprints.
A
Papillary region
17
Q
about 4/5 of the thickness of the dermis
A
Reticular region
18
Q
Nerves and blood vessels runs through this layer. Hair roots and glands are present here
A
Reticular region
19
Q
Stretch marks are referred to as
A
Striae
20
Q
A bone stem cell and is the precursor to all other cell types
A
Osteogenic cell
21
Q
Dividing cells. Laying down the components of bone. Bone building cells. Forms bone
A
Osteoblasts
22
Q
Bone cells. Maintain bone integrity.
A
Osteocytes
23
Q
Constantly tunnel through bone. Dissolving the bone matrix as they go. Bone chewing. Breaks down bone.
A
Osteoclasts
24
Q
Inorganic (mineralized) component of bone is primarily
A
Hydroxyapatite (calcium, hydroxyl, and phosphate)
25
Organic (protein) component of bone is primarily
Collagen type 1
26
When there is too much bone minerals, it becomes brittle and fractures easily
Osteogenesis Imperfecta
27
If a bone has too much collagen, bones are soft and pliable, as in
Rickets (children)
| Osteomalacia (adults)
28
What does PTH do with bone cells?
Stimulates osteoclasts
| Inhibits osteoblasts
29
What does Calcitonin (CT) do with bone cells?
Stimulates osteoblasts
| Inhibits osteclasts
30
If you have a low blood calcium, what happens to osteoblasts and osteoclasts?
Stimulation of osteoclasts
| Inhibition of osteoblasts
31
If you have a high blood calcium, what happens to osteoblasts and osteoclasts?
Stimulation of osteoblasts
| Inhibition of osteoclasts
32
If blood calcium is too low, what hormone kicks in?
PTH
33
If blood calcium is too high, what hormone kicks in?
Calcitonin
34
What does PTH do to blood calcium?
Raises it
35
What does Calcitonin do to blood calcium?
Lowers it
36
What does Calcitriol do?
Detects low blood calcium in the kidneys and increases absorption in the GI tract
37
Part of the nasal sinuses. Back of the eye.
Ethmoid Bone
38
A horshoe shaped "floating bone" in the neck
Hyoid Bone
39
Small bone that forms the bridge of the nose.
Nasal Bone
40
Forming the roof of the mouth
Palatine Bone
41
Complex shape in the center of the skull, butterfly shaped bone
Sphenoid
42
A bone between the ethmoid, maxilla and palatine bone
Vomer
43
The largest part of a vertebra is the
Body
44
A joint between two adjacent bodies is filled with a disk of fibrocartilage
Intervertebral Disc
45
Extend laterally on the vertebrae
Transverse processes
46
Connects the transverse process to the vertebral body
Pedicle
47
Is a projection which protrudes posteriorly on a vertebrae
Spinous process
48
Joins a transverse process to the spinous process
Laminae
49
The first cervical vertebrae is called the
Atlas
50
The second cervical vertebrae is called the
Axis
51
Nod or bump located on C2.
Dens
52
What is unique about a cervical vertebrae?
Bifid
53
C7 is referred to as
Vertebra prominens
54
Made up of 5 fused vertebrae
Sacrum
55
Made up of 3-4 fused vertebrae
Coccyx
56
What are ribs 1-7 referred to as?
True ribs. This is because they directly connect c the sternum.
57
Ribs 8-10 are referred to as?
False ribs. This is because they use rib 7 to articulate c the sternum.
58
Ribs 11-12 are referred to as
Floating ribs.
59
What two bones form the pectoral girdle?
Clavicle
| Scapula
60
Three bones that make up the pelvis.
Ilium
Ischium
Pubis
61
Two halves of the pelvis join where?
Pubic Symphysis
62
Socket for the head of the femur is called
Acetabulum
63
Largest bone in the body
Femur
64
Kneecap
Patella
65
Ankle Bones
Tarsals
66
Big toe is referred to as
Halux
67
Knuckle on bone
Condyle
68
On top of a condyle
Epicondyle
69
Window
Foramen
70
Ditch
Fossa
71
Projection
Process
72
Like process, but pointed.
Spine
73
Pulley
Trochlea
74
Little potato
Tubercle
75
Potato-like bump
Tuberosity
76
Point of contact between the nervous system and the muscular system
Neuromuscular Junction
77
Motor neurons release what neurotransmitters?
ACh
78
Last neuron in the motor neuron is called
Alpha motor neuron
79
Breaks apart ACh molecule at its ester linkage
Acetylcholinesterase
80
Help action potential penetrate deep into the muscle fibers
Transverse tubules (T tubules)
81
Two sarcoplasmic reticulum and a T tubule make up a
Triad
82
The sarcoplasmic reticulum releases what?
Calcium Ions
83
Calcium binds to what in muscle cells?
Troponin
84
Troponin does what once calcium is present?
Moves tropomyosin for action and myosin to attach
85
Sensory nerves are also called
Afferent nerves
86
Motor nerves are also called
Efferent nerves
87
Energy is converted to the nervous system through the process called
Transduction
88
Comprises those which are not under conscious control. a.k.a. don't involve the cerebral cortex
Autonomic Nervous System (ANS)
89
Begins in the cerebral cortex and passes through the spinal cord. For skeletal and voluntary muscle.
Somatic Nervous System
90
Nerve cells are called.
Neurons
91
Glial cells are called
Glia
92
What are the four types of glial cells?
Astrocytes (astroglia)
Oligodendrocytes (Oligodendroglia)
Microglia
Ependymal cells
93
All atoms want to move from high to low concentration
Concentration forces
94
Positive ions want to move where there are excess negative charges and vice versa
Electrical forces
95
Concentration (diffusional) forces pushes K+...
Out of the cell
96
Electrical forces push K+...
Into the cell
97
Concentration (diffusional) forces push Na+...
Into the cell
98
Electrical forces push Na+...
Into the cell
99
Depolarization occurs when
Sodium channels open
100
Repolarization occurs when
Potassium channels open
101
Open up all voltage gated sodium channels. The tipping point is called..
Treshold
102
During the time that sodium channels are inactivated and potassium channels are open, nothing can change the state of these cells.
Refractory Period
103
When firing an action potential is impossible, we call this
Absolute refractory period
104
When its difficult to fire an action potential, because all of the channels have reset we call this
Relative refractory period
105
What are the sequence of events at the synapse?
1. Action potential arrives
2. Ca++ enters terminal
3. Ca++ interacts with synaptic vesicles
4. Neurotransmitter released from vesicles
5. Receptor protein undergoes a change
6. Ion flow results in a Post synaptic potential
106
When a cell becomes more negative
Inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP)
107
When a cell becomes more positive
Excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP)
108
Where a chemical signal acts on receptors on the same cell that release the chemical signal. Cells signal themselves.
Autocrine signaling
109
Where a chemical signal travels a short distance to neighboring cells in the same organ. Cells signaling neighbors
Paracrine signaling
110
Where a hormone is release to act on receptors on a distant organ. Cells signaling distant targets.
Endocrine signaling
111
Have channels that open and close in response to outside chemical signals
Ionotropic Receptors
112
Proteins that change the internal biochemistry of the cell in response to outside chemical signals
Metabotropic receptors
113
Tapering portion at the end of the spinal cord
Filum terminale
114
Part of spinal cord that processes sensory information
Posterior (dorsal) horn
115
Part of spinal cord that contains cell bodies of neurons
Anterior (ventral) horn
116
Three layers that cover brain
Meninges
117
Name the meninges from superficial to deep
Dura mater
Arachnoid mater
Pia mater
118
Large hole at bottom of skull
Foramen Magnum
119
Spinal cord ends in a bundle of nerves called
Cauda Equina (horses tail)
120
White matter predominates at what spinal level?
Cervical
121
Gray matter predominate at what spinal level?
Sacral
122
Contains cell bodies of sensory neurons
Dorsal root ganglion
123
Fight of flight system
Sympathetic Nervous System
124
Describe sympathetic ganglionic fibers
Short preganglionic
| Long postganglionic
125
Where are sympathetic ganglia located on the spinal cord?
Thoracic and lumbar regions
126
What neurotransmitter is released on the postganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system
Norepinephrine
127
Rest and digest system
Parasympathetic Nervous System
128
Describe parasympathetic ganglionic fibers
Long preganglionic
| Short postganglionic
129
Effectors for the ANS
Smooth muscle
Cardiac muscle
Glands
130
Effectors for somatic NS
Skeletal muscle
131
Neurotransmitter for ANS (Sympathetic)
Norepinephrine receptors
132
Neurotransmitter for ANS (Parasympathetic)
Muscarinic acetylcholine receptors
133
Neurotransmitter for somatic NS
Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors
134
Shaped like the letter C located beneath white matter of cerebral cortex
Lateral ventricle
135
Slit-like opening between the two eggs of the thalamus
Third ventricle
136
Between the brainstem and cerebellum
Fourth ventricle
137
Connects the third and fourth ventricle
Cerebral Aqueduct
138
KNOW CRANIAL NERVES.
- Know mnemonic
- Know whether they are sensory or motor
- Be able to label them on a diagram.
:)
139
Refer to the neuron that makes the final contact between the nervous system and effector organ
Lower motor neuron
140
All other neurons in the brain and spinal cord that influence movement but do not make direct contact with a skeletal muscle fiber
Upper motor neuron
141
Parts of the nervous system that receive information from the external and internal environment
Sensory system
142
Process through which the environmental energy is transformed into nervous system energy
Transduction
143
Receive their stimuli from the external environment. Light particle/waves. 5 senses.
Exteroreceptors
144
Receive their energy from the internal environment. Oxygen levels, glucose, and CO2 levels (pH)
Interoreceptors
145
Receptors that integrate information about the state of stretch of skin, muscles, and tendons with information about gravity positions.
Proprioceptors
146
Detect movement such as pressure of clothing on skin.
Mechanoreceptors
147
Detect temperatures between 44F and 122F
Thermoreceptors
148
Detect harmful or damaging stimuli. Damaged cells. Free nerve endings in skin.
Nociceptors.
149
Detect photons (particles/waves of light energy)
Photoreceptors
150
Detect chemicals in the internal or external environment. Taste and smell.
Chemoreceptors
151
In the Hypothalamus. Detect levels of sodium in the blood and respond by secreting chemicals that regulate water retention or loss.
Osmoreceptors
152
An area of skin that is innervated by a single spinal nerve root
Dermatomes
153
Where are olfactory receptors found?
Superior surface of the nasal sinus
154
Small molecules carried by air that are dissolved in the mucus layer that covers the olfactory epithelium
Odorants
155
Covers most of the tongues surface. Non-taste structures that give the tongue rough texture.
Filiform Papillae
156
Papillae that look like little mushrooms.
Fungiform Papillae
157
Leaf-shaped papillae found along the lateral surface of the posterior tongue.
Foliate Papillae
158
Form a V-shaped row along the posterior tongue.
Vallate (circumvallate) papillae
159
Head tilt, which is called linear acceleration.
Static equilibrium
160
Head rotation or head movement. Called angular acceleration.
Dynamic equilibrium
161
Connection between nervous and endocrine system
Hypothalamus
162
Anterior lobe of pituitary is called the
Adenohypophysis
163
Posterior lobe of the pituitary is called the
Neurohypophysis
164
Insufficient production or secretion of ADH is what type of Diabetes Insipidus?
Neurogenic (hypothalamus)
165
Diminished renal response to the ADH that is produced is what type of diabetes inspidus?
Nephrogenic (kidneys)
166
What does PTH do to blood calcium, magnesium and calcitriol levels?
Increases them
167
What does PTH do to blood phosphate levels?
Decreases them
168
Usually caused by benign tumors of the cells in the medulla
Pheochromocytoma
169
What does glucagon do to blood sugar?
Raises it
170
What does insulin do to blood sugar?
Lowers it
171
Two main components of blood
Formed Elements
| Plasma
172
What are the formed elements of blood?
RBC's
WBC's
Platelets
173
Why are RBC's a biconcave disc?
High surface-to-volume ratio
| Reverse-deformity
174
O2 carrying molecule of the red blood cell
Hemoglobin
175
Part of hematopoiesis. Specifically relating to the production of red blood cells.
Erythropoiesis
176
Immature red blood cell.
Reticulocyte
177
O2 deficiency in the blood
Hypoxemia
178
Decrease in normal number of red blood cells
Anemia
179
Term for white blood cell
Leukocyte
180
What are the granular leukocytes?
Neutrophils
Eosinophils
Basophils
181
What are the agranular leukocytes?
Monocytes
| Lymphocytes
182
Overall process by which bleeding is stopped
Hemostasis
183
What are the three mechanisms of hemostasis?
1. Vascular Spasm
2. Platelet Plug Formation
3. Coagulation (clotting)
184
What is innate immunity?
Non-adaptive. Born with it. Barriers (skin, fever, etc)
185
What is adaptive immunity?
Adaptive. Specific. Acquired or learned with it. (T, B lymphocytes, etc)
186
What are the signs and symptoms of inflammation?
```
Redness
Pain
Heat
Swelling
Possible loss of function
```
187
A substance that is recognized as foreign reacts with product of the immune system is a/an
Antigen
188
Where are T lymphocytes produced?
Thymus
189
Where are B lymphocytes produced?
Bone Marrow
190
T-Helper cells are also referred to as
CD4 cells
191
T-Cytotoxic cells are also referred to as
CD8 cells
192
Activated to become plasma cells and produce antibodies. B lymphocytes.
Antibody-mediated Immunity
193
Activated directly against abnormal cells, such as cancer cells or even tissue
Cell mediated Immunity
194
IgG are what type of antibodies?
Long term
195
lgM are what type of antibodies?
First-response
196
lgA are what type of antibodies?
Secretions
197
IgE are what type of antibodies?
over abundance, allergies
198
The sequence of events and outcomes of the immune response with an initial exposure to an antigen
Primary immune response
199
Relates to second of subsequent exposures
Secondary response
200
Receives deoxygenated blood from body
Right atrium
201
Receives oxygenated blood from lungs
Left atrium
202
Pumps to lungs
Right ventricle
203
Pumps to body
Left Ventricle
204
Valves between atrium and ventricle
AV valves (atrioventricular)
205
Valve between right atrium and right ventricle
Tricuspid AV valve
206
Valve between left atrium and left ventricle
Bicuspid AV valve (Mitral)
207
When the tricuspid is open what other valve is open?
Bicuspid
208
When the aortic semilunar valve is open what other valve is open?
Pulmonary semilunar (open/close in pairs)
209
What opens for the autorhythmicity cells to become closer to threshold?
Na+ Channels open
210
Open making the membrane potential more and more positive
Ca+ channels
211
Second half of action potential when the membrane potential becomes more negative (repolarization)
K+ channels
212
atrial depolarization
P wave
213
atrial "kick" fits ventricles
P-Q interval
214
Ventricles depolarize.
| Atria repolarize.
QRS complex
215
Blood flows out, ventricles empty
S-T segment
216
Ventricular repolarization
T wave
217
Number of cardiac cycles per minute
heart rate
218
Ventricles fill to about 120ml
End-diastolic volume (EDV)
219
The amount remaining in ventricles after contraction
End-systolic volume (ESV)
220
Volume decreased by amount pumped out.
Stroke volume
221
Stroke volume equals
EDV-ESV
222
Stroke volume output divided by end-diastolic volume
ejection fracture
223
Quantity of blood pumped into aorta each minute
Cardiac output
224
CO =
SV x HR
225
The mass movement of air into and out of the lungs
Pulmonary ventilation
226
Movement of air into the lungs
Inspiration
227
Movement of air out of the lungs
Expiration
228
States as pressure goes up volume goes down and vice versa
Boyle's law
229
Volume of air inspired or expired during normal quiet breathing
Tidal Volume (Tv) ~500 ml
230
All of the air that you can breathe in from the top of tidal volume
Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV)
231
All of the air that you can breathe out from the bottom of tidal volume during a forced exhalation
Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV)
232
Air still present in lung tissue after thoracic cavity has been opened
Residual Volume (RV)
233
The sum of tidal volume and IRV
Inspiratory capacity
234
The sum of residual volume and ERV
Functional residual capacity
235
Sum of IRV, TV, and ERV
Vital capacity
236
Sum of vital capacity and residual volume
Total lung capacity
237
Is the exchange of gases between the pulmonary capillaries and the alveoli which contain atmospheric air
External respiration
238
Is the exchange of gases between the tissue and the systemic capillaries
Internal respiration
239
Excessive ventilation
Hyperventilation
240
Decreased ventilation
Hypoventilation
241
Quick, shallow breaths
Panting
242
Normal respiration
Eupnea
243
Increased respiration rate
Hyperpnea
244
Temporary halt in respiration
Apnea
245
Inside of a tube is called
Lumen
246
What are the three parts of the small intestine?
Duodenum
Jejunum
Ileum
247
Small lymph vessel that carries lipids from the absorptive epithelium
Lacteal
248
What do goblet cells secrete?
Mucus
249
What do enteroendocrine cells secrete?
Secretin
Cholecystokinin
GIP
250
What do paneth cells secrete?
Lysozyme and they are capable of phagocytosis
251
Conjugated bilirubin in the feces is
Stercobilin
252
Conjugated bilirubin in urine is
Urobilinogen
253
Alpha cells secrete
Glucagon
254
Beta cells secrete
Insulin
255
Delta cells secrete
Somatostatin
256
F cells secrete
Pancreatic Polypeptide
257
Epsilon cells secrete
Ghrelin
258
Primary buffer system of the blood
Sodium Bicarbonate
259
A starch digesting enzyme
Amylase
260
Enzymes that break proteins into amino acids
Trypsin
Chymotrypsin
Etc...
261
A fat digesting enzyme
Pancreatic Lipase
262
Enzymes that break down nucleic acids
Ribonuclease
| Deoxyribonuclease
263
Name the four structure of a nephron
Renal corpuscle
Renal tubules
Collecting duct
Papillary duct
264
What is the renal corpuscle comprised of?
Glomerulus
| Glomerular Capsule
265
What are the renal tubes comprised of?
Proximal and distal convoluted tubules
| Loop of Henle
266
Reabsorption between renal cells
Paracellular reabsorption
267
Reabsorption through the renal tubule cells
Transcellular reabsorption
268
Majority of solute and water reabsorption occurs where
Proximal convoluted tubule
269
Cells of the proximal convoluted tubules are
Cuboidal c microvilli
270
Water follows concentration gradient throughout most of the nephron. 90% of water reabsorption
Obligatory reabsorption
271
Regulated by ADH in the renal tubules and collecting ducts. 10% of water reabsorption
Facultative reabsorption
272
What is secreted in tubular secretion?
H+
K+
NH4+ (ammonium)
Creatinine
273
What percent of fluid is intracellular
2/3
274
What percent of fluid is extracellular
1/3
275
What is extracellular fluid comprised of?
Interstitial fluid
| Plasma
276
Molecules that have the ability to bind H+, thus reducing pH of the solution. Do not get rid of H+
Buffers
277
Hyperventilation ________ the pH
Increases (alkaline)
278
Hypoventilation ________ the pH
Decreases (acidic)
279
Accumulation of excess CO2
Respiratory acidosis
280
Exhalation of too much CO2
Respiratory alkalosis
281
Decrease in plasm HCO3-, diarrhea, renal disfunction all cause
Metabolic acidosis
282
Non-respiratory acid loss, excessive HCO3-, vomiting and antacids all cause
Metabolic alkalosis
