Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Advanced Anatomy & Physiology > Module 15: Blood, Lymphatic, & Immunity > Flashcards

Module 15: Blood, Lymphatic, & Immunity Flashcards

1
Q

pH of blood

A

7.35-7.45

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Color of blood

A

Variable shades of red (depends on O2 content)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Volume of blood

A

4-6 Liters (depends on gender and body mass)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

True/False: platelets aren’t cells

A

True - they are fragments of cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Collective purpose of plasma proteins

A

Contribute to the osmotic balance of blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Where are the majority of plasma proteins produced

A

Liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Viscosity of blood

A

Thicker than water due to the amount of dilutes and suspended formed elements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Temperature of Blood

A

38 degrees Celsius (100.4 F) (body temp. Is 37 degrees Celsius)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The development of the formed elements of the blood

A

Hematopoiesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

All blood cells begin as _______.

A

Pluripotent stem cells in the red bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A chemical signal from one cell that initiates the stimulus from another

A

Cytokinesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Proerythroblast ➡️ __________ ➡️ __________

A

Proerythroblast ➡️ Reticulocyte ➡️ Res Blood Cell (erythrocyte)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Megakaryoblast ➡️ __________ ➡️ __________

A

Megakaryoblast ➡️ Megakaryocyte ➡️ Platelet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Eosinophilic Myeloblast ➡️ __________

A

Eosinophilic Myeloblast ➡️ Eosinophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Basophilic Myeloblast ➡️ __________

A

Basophilic Myeloblast ➡️ Basophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Myeoblast ➡️ __________

A

Myeloblast ➡️ Neutrophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Monoblast ➡️ __________ ➡️ _________

A

Monoblast ➡️ Monocyte ➡️ Macrophage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

T Lymphoblast ➡️ __________

A

T Lymphoblast ➡️ T Lymphocyte (T cell)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

B Lymphoblast ➡️ __________ ➡️ __________

A

B Lymphoblast ➡️ B Lymphocyte ➡️ Plasma Cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

NK Lymphoblast ➡️ __________

A

NK Lymphoblast ➡️ natural Killer (NK) cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Name the 3 granular leukocytes

A

the phils

Eosinophil, Basophil, & Neutrophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Name the 4 a granular leukocyte

A

the cytes

Monocytes, T Lymphocytes, B Lymphocytes, & NK cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What cytokine increases number of early RBC’s in the bone marrow

A

Erythropoietin (EPO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What cytokine increases the formation of platelets

A

Thrombopoietin (TPO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What cytokine increases the production and differentiation of WBC’s

A

Colony-stimulating factors (CSF’s) and interleukins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the shape of RBC’s

A

Biconcave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Random fact - RBC’s biconcave shape gives them a high surface-to-volume ratio, allowing them to carry a great amount of oxygen in relation to their size

A

🙂

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Do WBC’s or RBC’s have reversible deformity

A

RBC’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Do mature RBC’s have a nucleus

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How long do RBC’s live

A

120 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

True/False: RBC’s lack mitochondria, therefore use lots of their oxygen!!

A

FALSE! - they lack mitochondria, therefore they DON’T use any of the oxygen they carry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The oxygen-carrying molecule of RBC’s

A

Hemoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Who removes RBC’s from circulation if they become damaged

A

WBC’s, spleen, & liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Presence of too many RBC’s

A

Polycythemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Excess number of RBC’s, increased blood viscosity, increase in all formed elements

A

Primary polycythemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Increase in RBC’s due to another condition (smoking, sleep apnea, other cause of hypoxemia, dehydration)

A

Secondary polycythemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

A decrease in the normal number of RBC’s

A

Anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Anemia classifications based on RBC size

A

Macrocytic, normocytic, microcytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Anemia cassifications based on RBC hemoglobin content

A

Hypochromic & normochromic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Study of the cause, set of causes, or manner of causation of a disease or condition.

A

Etiology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Low Hgb, Hct, and RBCs due to bleeding = ____

A

Hemorrhagic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Low Hgb, Hct, and RBCs due to red cell lysis = ____

A

Hemolytic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Low Hgb, Hct, and RBCs due to lack of cell production in the bone marrow = ____

A

Aplastic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Low Hgb, Hct, and RBCs due to lack of vitamin B12 absorption in the G.I. tract = ____

A

Pernicious anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Size, amt., & cause of Hemorrhagic anemia

A

Normocytic, normochromic, & bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Size, amt., & cause of Iron deficiency anemia

A

Microcytic, hypo chronic, & lack of iron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Size, amt., & cause of Pernicious anemia

A

Microcytic, normochromic, & vitamin B12 deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Size, amt., & cause of Hemolytic anemia

A

Normocytic, normochromic, destruction of RBC’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Size, amt., & cause of Aplastic anemia

A

Normocytic, normochromic, & bone marrow failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the three functions of blood?

A

transportation
regulation
protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Blood regulates what 3 things?

A

pH
osmolarity
temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Blood serves what 2 protective functions

A

prevents blood loss

immunological

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What does blood transport?

A

02,C02, hormones, and nutrients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Blood is what type of tissue?

A

connective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what are the formed elements of blood?

A

RBC’s
WBC’s
Platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

why are they called the formed elements?

A

platelets aren’t cells, they are fragments of cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what % of blood consists of formed elements?

A

45%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what is the % of plasma in the blood

A

55%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what % of plasma is water?

A

92%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what % of plasma are solutes?

A

8%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what % of solutes are plasma proteins?

A

7 of the 8%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

what is the remaining 1%?

A

miscellaneous solutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what happens when a tube of blood is spun in a centrifuge?

A

denser elements sink to the bottom of the tube, it leaves less dense plasma on top

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

percentage of whole blood that is formed elements

A

hematocrit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

collective function of plasma proteins

A

contribute to osmotic balance of the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

where are the plasma proteins produced?

A

hepatocytes of liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

3 plasma proteins found in blood:

A

Albumins (54%)
Globulins (38%)
Fibrinogen (7%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

gamma globulins are also known as

A

immunoglobins or antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

what functions do gamma globulins serve?

A

flags so the immune system knows what needs to be destroyed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

when are gamma globulins produced?

A

in response to organic molecules that the body recognizes as foreign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

An increase in the number of WBC’s

WBC count > 10.0 x 10^3 WBC/mm^3
- pneumonia, appendicitis, abscess, leukemia, etc

A

Leukocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

WBC count

A

Leukopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

hemoglobin is what?

A

the oxygen-carrying molecule of the red blood cell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

how many hgb molecules per RBC?

A

280 million

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What does a hemoglobin molecule consist of?

A

four heme molecules:
- iron
- each heme carries one oxygen molecule
four globin chains (polypeptides)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is heme?

A

a ringed molecule with one iron atom at the center

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Where does hemoglobin have a high affinity for oxygen?

A

the lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Where does hemoglobin have a low affinity for oxygen?

A

the tissue level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

total amount of hemoglobin in the blood

A

ranges from 14-16 g/dl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

what makes up globin

A

four polypeptide chains
two alpha chains
two beta chains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

one red blood cell can carry how many oxygen molecules?

A

1.1 billion (because the 280 million hgb molecules can all pick up 4 oxygens on the four hemes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

erythropoiesis

A

formation and maturation of red blood cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

average number of RBC’s in an individual

A

4.00-6.00 x 10^6 RBCs/mm^3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

if the number of red cells lost exceeds the number made this is called

A

hypoxemia (too little oxygen in the blood)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

what is erythropoietin (EPO)

A

a hormone to increase the rate of erythropoiesis (production of RBCs) within the bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

where is EPO secreted from?

A

kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

what happens to a RBC as it matures?

A
  • becomes smaller
  • increases its hemoglobin content
  • loses its nucleus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

what results from the RBC losing its nucleus?

A

gains its biconcave shape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

reticulocyte

A

almost mature RBC that still has some mitochondria, ribosomes, and endoplasmic reticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

what percentage of circulating RBC’s are reticulocytes?

A

0.5-1.5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

How long does it take for a reticulocyte to mature after being released into the bloodstream?

A

1-2 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

hematocrit:

A

relative amount of red cells in the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

average hematocrit

A

45% (little higher in men, little lower in women)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

leukocytes are another name for what

A

white blood cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

how are WBCs different from RBCs

A
  • contain nuclei
  • larger
  • don’t contain hemoglobin
  • there are different types with unique functions
  • fewer in number
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

normal white blood cell count:

A

5.0-10.0 x 10^3 WBCs/mm^3 (5,000-10,000)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

two groups of WBCs

A

granulocytes and agranulocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

granulocytes

A
  • neutrophils
  • eosinophils
  • basophils
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

agranulocytes

A 
monocytes: (macrophages in tissues)
lymphocytes:
-t lymphocytes
-b lymphocytes
-natural killer cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

granules of an eosinophil stain what color?

A

red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

granules of a basophil stain what color?

A

dark purple/blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

granules of a neutrophil stain what color?

A

somewhere in the middle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

the agranulocytes contain some cytoplasmic granules but they are much less prominent so they don’t stain as well as their granulocytic counterparts

A

FREEBEE lol @ max

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

How do physicians use the percentage of WBCs in diagnosis of specific diseases?

A
  • increased granulocytes in bacterial infections

- increased lymphocytes in viral infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

what is the test called used to determine the number of each type of white cell in the blood?

A

differential analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

what % of total WBCs in the bloodstream do neutrophils acquire?

A

60-70%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

what % of total WBCs in the bloodstream do lymphocytes acquire?

A

20-25%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What % of total WBCs in the bloodstream do monocytes acquire?

A

3-8%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

what % of total WBCs in the bloodstream do eosinophils acquire?

A

2-4%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

what % of total WBCs in the bloodstream do basophils acquire?

A

0.5-1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What are the functions of neutrophils

A
  • powerful phagocyte

- increased in bacterial infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

what are the functions of lymphocytes

A

-increased in viral infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

what are the functions of monocytes

A
  • differentiate into macrophages (phagocyte)

- present in chronic inflammation

114
Q

what are the functions of eosinophils

A
  • allergic reactions

- parasitic infections

115
Q

what are the functions of basophils

A
  • function poorly understood

- chronic inflammation

116
Q
  • Cytoplasmic frangments of large megakaryocytes
  • assist with clot formation (platelet plug)
  • 150-400 x 10^3/mm^3
  • very short life span (5-9) days
A

Thrombocytes (Platelets)

117
Q

A complex series of enzymatic reactions that occur in a stepwise or cascading fashion (the domino effect)

A

Coagulation

118
Q

What are the two separate pathways of clotting activation

A

Extrinsic
•fast
•activated by tissue damage(tissue thromboplastin/TF)
•released from damaged tissue into the blood vessels

Intrinsic
•activated by endothelium cell trauma or vascular collagen being exposed by injury

119
Q

Stages of Coagulation

A

1) formation of the enzyme prothrombinase
2) prothrombinase converts prothrombin to thrombin
3) thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin
4) fronting forms the clot and strengthens the platelet plug

*Ca++ plays a role throughout almost every step

120
Q

Cofactors in the synthesis of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X

A

Vitamin K

121
Q

Required as a cofactors for almost every step of the coagulation process

A

Calcium

122
Q

The liquid portion of unclotted blood

A

Plasma

123
Q

The liquid portion of clotted blood

A

Serum

124
Q

Stationary blood clot

A

Thrombus

125
Q

A circulating particle, often a clot, that may obstruct a blood vessel

A

Embolus

126
Q

A stationary clot that dislodged from its primary site and traveled to another location

A

Thromboembolus

127
Q

True/False: anticoagulants are blood thinners

A

FALSE! FALSE! FALSE! They are NOT!!!!!!!!

128
Q

What’s the use of Heparin

A

Administered intravenously to a stroke or heart attack victim, also used in surgery and dialysis

129
Q

What’s the use of Coumadin (warfarin)

A

Oral medication used to inhibit clotting in high-risk patients

130
Q

That use of EDTA?

A

Present in blood-draw tubes used for blood counts

131
Q

The use of Sodium Citrate?

A

Present in blood collection bags for blood donations

132
Q

Use of Aspirin?

A

Inhibits platelet aggregation

133
Q

What is being explained?
• NOT blood thinners
• interfere with the coagulation process
-Heparin inactivates thrombin and factor C
-Warfarin interferes with the synthesis of a number of clotting proteins
-blood-donor bags contain sodium citrate

A

Anticoagulants

134
Q

Chemicals used in medicine that breakdown clots that have already formed. TPA.

A

Thrombolytics

135
Q

Universal donor blood type

A

O

136
Q

Universal recipient blood typed

A

AB

137
Q

True/False: it is common for someone to receive a whole-blood transfusion

A

False! Typically just red blood cells are transfused

138
Q

What happens if a patient received the wrong blood type

A

Their antibodies to the donor RBC antigens will cause the incorrect RBC’s be destroyed by the immune system.

can also cause fever, shock, acute renal failure, and death

139
Q

What is the lymphatic system

A

System consisting of lymphatic vessels through which a clear fluid (lymph) passes

140
Q

Functions of lymphatic system

A
  • draining interstitial fluid
  • transporting dietary lipids absorbed by the GI Tracy to the blood
  • facilitating immune responses
141
Q

Where are lymphatic capillaries located

A

Throughout the body in the interstitial spaces

142
Q

Carry lymphatic fluid one way, from tissue, back into the blood stream

A

Lymphatic vessels

143
Q
  • present at intervals along the lymphatic vessels

* provide opportunity for the lymphatic fluid to come in contact with the immune system

A

Lymph nodes

144
Q

2 mechanisms that assist with the flow of lymphatic fluid and why?

A

Skeletal muscle contraction: “milks” the lymphatic vessels and encourages lymph movement

Respiratory movements: encourage lymph flow by ⬆️ and ⬇️ thoracic and abdominal pressures

145
Q

What do lymphatic valves do

A

Restrict back-flow of lymph, forcing it to circulate in one direction

146
Q

Flow of lymphatic fluid in lymph nodes

A

Afferent vessels in, efferent out

147
Q

Flow of fluids

A

1) plasma in the blood vessels
2) interstitial fluid
3) lymphatic capillaries
4) lymphatic vessels
5) lymphatic ducts
7) back into the blood stream

148
Q

Lymphatic fluid is moved by….

A
  • pressure in the interstitial space
  • the milking action of skeletal nuclear contraction
  • back flow valves
  • changes in thoracic and abdominal pressures
149
Q

Flow of Lymphatic fluid

A

1) interstitial fluid
2) lymphatic capillaries
3) lymphatic vessels
4) lymphatic nodes
5) R & L (thoracic) lymphatic ducts
6) venous system

150
Q

Bean-shaped lymphatic organs and are anywhere from 1 to 25 mm in length. There are approximately 600 in the body, and they occur at intervals along the lymphatic vessels

A

Lymph nodes

151
Q

4 important groups of lymph nodes

A

Submandibular
Cervical
Axillary
Inguinal

152
Q

(Just for fun - not stated in the objective) State the flow of lymph nodes

A

1) lymph flows into a mode through adders the lymphatic vessels
2) then flows through the cortex, when it comes into contact with large populations of B lymphocytes, dendritic cells, and macrophages
3) then flows through the nose into the medulla where it is exposed to more B lymphocytes, plasma cells, and more macrophages
4) then the lymph exits the lymph node through efferent vessels

153
Q

What 8 things make up the first line of defense in innate immunity

A
  • skin
  • mucous membranes
  • lacrimation
  • salivation
  • flow of urine
  • vaginal secretions
  • defecation
  • vomiting
154
Q

What 6 things make up the second line of defense in innate immunity

A
  • endogenous antimicrobials
  • complement system
  • iron-bonding proteins
  • interferon
  • phagocytes (wandering & fixed macrophages)
  • natural killer (NK)
155
Q

Where are Kupffer cells located

A

Liver

156
Q

Where are alveolar macrophages located

A

Lung

157
Q

Where are microbial cells located

A

CNS

158
Q

2 groups of phagocytes in the second line of defense

A

Neutrophils & macrophages

159
Q

Phagocytosis is a _______________ process

A

Non-specific

  • chemotaxes
  • adherence
  • ingestion
  • digestion
  • killing
160
Q

Abnormally high body temp. Due to resetting of the hypothalamic thermostat

A

Fever

161
Q

Fever is a _________ response

A

Non-specific

162
Q

How is a fever good?

A
  • speeds up body reactions
  • ⬆️ the effects of endogenous antimicrobials
  • sequesters nutrients from microbes
163
Q

Three stages of inflammation

A

1) vasodilation & ⬆️ vascular permeability
2) emigration of phagocytes from the blood to the tissue
3) tissue repair

164
Q

A substance that is recognized as foreign and races with product of the immune system

A

Antigen

165
Q

What does an adaptive response to an antigen do

A

Demonstrates specificity and memory

166
Q

Which of the 4 main characteristics that determine the antigenic its if a substance is the most important?

A

Recognition as foreign

167
Q

A molecule that fits all the criteria, except of size

A

Hapten

168
Q

What site can race with the immune system

A

Antigenic determinants or epitopes

169
Q

A substance is antigenic if it is….

A
  • foreign
  • organic
  • structurally complex
  • large enough
170
Q

In ____________________, T-cytotoxic cells are activated directly against abnormal cells, such as cancer cells or even transplants

A

Cell-mediated immunity

171
Q

In ______________________ B lymphocytes are activated to become plasma cells, which produce and secrete specific antibodies

A

Antibody/mediated immunity

172
Q

Required for cell-mediated and antibody-mediated immunity & initially detect the antigen to present it to the rest of the immune system

A

antigen processing and presentation

173
Q

General steps for antigen processing and presentation

A
  • phagocytosis by antigen-presenting cells
  • digestion of antigen within vessels
  • synthesis of MHC class molecules
  • fusion of antigen fragment with MHC class molecule
  • insertion of antigen-MHC class complex in the plasma membrane
174
Q

Antigen presentation

A
  • once an antigen is processed, it is ready to meet the middle-man, the T helper cells
  • colonial selection: binding as well as cytokine stimulation results in the activation and proliferation of the T helper cell
175
Q

When an inactive t helper cell will bind with its T cell receptor to the presented antigen on the APC.

A

T Helper Cell Activation

176
Q
  • inactive at cytotoxic cells bind to abnormal cells presenting viral proteins or cancer proteins on MHC class 1 molecule
  • T helper cells act as a co-stimulator
  • the T cytotoxic cells will also undergo clinal selection
A

T Cytotoxic Activation

177
Q
  • B cells can be activated by direct recognition of antigen through B cell receptors or through T helper cell activation
  • B cells undergo clinal selection
A

B Cell Activation

178
Q

In B Cell Activation what will the B cell clones become

A

B memory cells or plasma cells

179
Q

Steps of exogenous antigens

A

(IDSVFBI)

  • ingestion of the antigen
  • digestion of the antigen into fragments
  • synthesis of MHC class 2 molecules
  • vesicular packaging of class 2 vesicles
  • fusion of fragments and class 2 vesicles
  • binding of fragments to class 2 molecules
  • insertion of the antigen-MHC class 2 complexes in the plasma membrane for recognition
180
Q

Steps for endogenous antigens

A

(DSBVI)

  • digestion of the antigen into fragments
  • synthesis of MHC class 1 molecules
  • binding of fragments to class 1 molecules
  • vesicular packaging of class 1 molecules
  • insertion of the antigen-MHC class 1 complexes in the plasma membrane for recognition
181
Q

What are immunoglobulins (Ig)

A

Antibodies

182
Q

2 main regions of an antibody

A

Constant & Variabls

183
Q

What antibody region consists of the distal segments of the heavy and light chains and forms the antigen-binding site

A

Variable region

184
Q

What antibody region differs slightly for the different classes of antibodies, but it is constant enough to be recognized by other immune system components by other immune system components like macrophages and complements

A

Constant region

185
Q

The basic ________ structure consists of 4 polypeptides chains, 2 long (heavy chains) & 2 short (light chains

A

Antibody

186
Q

What kind of bonds link the chains together in a Y-shaped arrangement in an antibody

A

Disulfide

187
Q

_______ are produced in response to antigen through antibody-mediated immunity

A

Antibodies

188
Q

Antibody functions

A
  • Neutralizing antigen
  • Immobilizing bacteria
  • Agglutinating and precipitating antigen
  • Activating complements
  • Enhancing phagocytosis
189
Q

Result of Neutralizing antigen

A

Neutralizes toxins and bonds to viruses to restrict their binding to host cells

190
Q

Result of immobilizing bacteria

A

Restricts the spread of motile bacteria by binding to cilia or flagella

191
Q

Result of Agglutinating and precipitating antigen

A

Multiple antigen binding sits can result in one antibody binding to 2 or more antigen—>causes agglutination, binding may cause soluble antigen to become insoluble

192
Q

Result of activating complement

A

Antigen/antibody complexes intimidate the classical complement pathway

193
Q

Result of enhance phagocytosis

A

Opsomize (flag) for phagocytosis

194
Q

4 ways to acquire adaptive immunity

A

Natural immunity
Artificial immunity
Active immunity
Passive immunity

195
Q

Active immunity

A

Long-term

196
Q

Passive immunity

A

Short-term

• acquired cells die or antibodies are eventually lost

197
Q

Result of Naturally-acquired active immunity

A

Immune products acquired following exposure to antigen

Ex. hep A stimulates production of anti-hep A antibodies

198
Q

Result of naturally-acquired passive immunity

A

Transfer of antibody from non-medical source; IgB through the placenta, IgA through breast milk

(Ex. a baby receives antibodies from its mother through the placenta and breast milk)

199
Q

Result of artificially-acquired active immunity

A

Immune products acquired through vaccination; antigens given that are immunogenic but not pathogenic

(Ex. a person receives an injection of a weakened pathogen that stimulates the body to form an antibody)

200
Q

Result of artificially-active passive immunity

A

Prepared injection of antibody

201
Q

The sequence of events and outcomes of the immune response with an initial exposure to an antigen

  • 1st exposure
  • 5-7 day delay
  • production of IgM followed by IgB
A

Primary immune response

202
Q

Relates to second or subsequent exposures

  • very little delay due to memory T helper and B cells
  • production of IgM followed by a long-lasting population of IgG
A

Secondary immune response

203
Q

The indicator for an antibody-mediated response (making lemonade)

A

Antibody titer

204
Q

2 main differences between the primary and secondary immune responses

A

Time & Antibody Titer

205
Q

What do plasma cells produce

A

IgM antibodies, followed by a population of IgG

206
Q

Goal of the primary response

A

Provide an initial antibody-mediated response and produce a population of memory cells

207
Q

the overall process by which bleeding i stopped

A

hemostasis

208
Q

what are the three mechanisms involved with hemostasis

A
  • vascular spasm
  • platelet plug formation
  • coagulation (clotting)
209
Q

which of the formed elements are responsible for blood clotting

A

thrombocytes (platelets)

210
Q

what happens during vascular spasm

A
  • smooth muscle contraction reduces blood loss

- activated by chemicals from platelets, damage to the smooth muscle, and pain receptor reflexes

211
Q

what happens during platelet plug formation

A
  • platelets release procoagulant chemicals and become sticky

- forms a loose plug

212
Q

coagulation

A

taking that which is liquid (plasma) and make it a solid (clot) or at least a semi-solid

213
Q

clumping of platelets is called

A

platelet aggregation

214
Q

referred to as the un-clotting system

A

fibrinolytic system

215
Q

fibrolysis refers to

A

clot dissolution

216
Q

what is plasmin

A

a potent proteolytic enzyme

217
Q

how does fibrinolysis occur

A

plasmin digests fibrin and interferes with new clot formation by inactivating fibrinogen, prothrombin, and other clotting factors.

218
Q

true/false blood type is determined by genetics

A

true

219
Q

two MAJOR blood groups (many others exist)

A

ABO and RH systems

220
Q

how is blood type tested

A

by determining presence or absence of specific markers

221
Q

specific markers that can react with products of the immune system

A

antigens

222
Q

4 possible blood types

A

A, B, AB, O

223
Q

a person develops antibodies in their plasma for the a and b antigens on their red cells

A

FREEBEE

224
Q

if red cells have an A antigen then

A

anti-B antibodies will be present in the plasma

225
Q

if red cells have a B antigen then

A

anti-A antibodies will be present in the plasma

226
Q

if red cells have antigens A and B then

A

no antibodies will be present in the plasma

227
Q

if no A or B antigens are present on the red cells then

A

anti-A and anti-B antibodies will be present in the plasma

228
Q

are antigens and antibodies present at birth?

A

antigens are

antibodies are not

229
Q

when are the antibodies in plasma formed?

A

shortly after birth (within 6 months)

230
Q

what would happen if an individual with blood type B was given a transfusion of blood type A?

A

the anti-A antibodies will flag the red cells for destruction by the immune system

231
Q

the RH blood type is determined simply by

A

the presence or absence of the Rh antigen on the red cells

232
Q

what will happen if an Rh- person is exposed to Rh+ blood

A

they will develop anti-Rh antibody because the antigen is foreign to them

233
Q

Hemolytic disease of the Newborn (HDN) is caused by

A

blood incompatibility between expectant mother and fetus

234
Q

hemolytic means

A

red blood cells are being destroyed

235
Q

normally mother and baby’s blood don’t come into contact with each other but its common during birth

A

FREEBEE

236
Q

the problem with HDN occurs when

A
  • dad is Rh+
  • mother is Rh-
  • baby is Rh+ due to genes inherited by the father
237
Q

plasma is filtered by the capillary walls to form

A

interstitial fluid

238
Q

plasma:

A
  • liquid component of blood
  • filtered through the capillary walls to form interstitial fluid
  • large proteins don’t pass through the capillaries
239
Q

interstitial fluid:

A
  • clear fluid
  • less protein than plasma
  • most is reabsorbed back into the blood
240
Q

lymphatic fluid:

A
  • unaltered interstitial fluid in the lymphatic vessels

- absorbed dietary lipids

241
Q

primary lymphatic organs:

A
  • locations where stem cells divide to produce immune cells

- bone marrow and thymus

242
Q

secondary lymphatic organs:

A
  • locations of cell maturation and immune responses

- lymph nodes, spleen, lymphoid tissue

243
Q

immunocompetent means

A

they can facilitate an immune response

244
Q

true/false as you get older the thymus enlarges

A

FALSE. It gets much much smaller but will continue to release some mature T cells

245
Q

innate immunity is also called

A

non-specific immunity

246
Q

innate immunity:

A
  • non-specific
  • non-adaptive
  • barriers (such as skin and mucous membranes, fever, phagocytosis, inflammation, endogenous microbial)
247
Q

adaptive immunity is also called

A

specific immunity

248
Q

adaptive immunity:

A
  • specific
  • adaptive
  • barriers (such as t and b lymphocytes, plasma cells, antibodies, enzymes)
249
Q

inflammation is what type of response

A

non-specific, non-adaptive, innate response

250
Q

local signs of inflammation

A
  • pain
  • redness
  • heat
  • swelling
  • possible loss of function
251
Q

three stages of inflammation

A
  • vasodilation and increased permeability
  • emigration of phagocytes from the blood into the interstitial space
  • tissue repair
252
Q

the main players in adaptive immunity are

A

lymphocytes

253
Q

types of t lymphocytes:

A
  • T helper (CD4+) cells
  • T cytotoxic (CD8+) cells
  • T regulator cells
  • Memory T helper cytotoxic and Memory T helper cells
254
Q

Middle man or main “helper” of the immune response. These are also called CD4+ T cells.

A

T helper cells

255
Q

These T cells destroy abnormal cells. Virally-infected cells and cancerous cells are their main targets. These are also called CD8+ T cells.

A

T cytotoxic cells

256
Q

Keep the immune system from getting out of control. Decrease the reactivity of the other types of T cells. Essential for maintaining self-tolerance.

A

T regulator cells (suppressor cells)

257
Q

Produced with an initial exposure to a n antigen to provide memory of the event and a rapid response if re exposed to the antigen. (memory cells don’t participate first time around)

A

Memory T cytotoxic cells and Memory T helper cells

258
Q

major histocompatibility complex

A

is a group of genes that codes for a group of transmembrane proteins on the surface of cells

259
Q

major histocompatibility complex (MHC) is also called

A

human leukocyte antigens (HLA)

260
Q

two major types of MHC molecules

A

class I and class II

261
Q

MHC class I

A

molecules are present on all body cells (except RBCs)

262
Q

MHC class II

A

molecules are demonstrated on the surface of antigen-presenting cells (APCs)

263
Q

cytokines:

A

chemical signals from one cell that influences another.

264
Q

interleukins

A

cytokines BETWEEN (inter) white blood cells

265
Q

interferons:

A

anti-viral properties and stimulators of the immune system

266
Q

tumor-necrosis factor (TNF)

A

produced by macrophages to encourage inflammation

267
Q

erythropoietin

A

cytokine from the kidneys that increases the number and activity of cell precursors in the bone marrow

268
Q

5 classes of antibodies:

A
  • lgG
  • lgM
  • lgA
  • lgE
  • lgD
269
Q

lgG:

A
  • monomer, two antigen-binding sites, 80% of total antibody
  • only class to cross placenta
  • provide long-term immunity
  • secondary immune response
270
Q

lgM

A
  • pentamer, ten antigen-binding sites
  • short-lived response
  • great activator of complement
  • first to be secreted by plasma cells
  • primary immune response
271
Q

lgA

A
  • dimer, four antigen-binding sites

- most numerous in body secretions

272
Q

lgE

A
  • monomer, less than 0.1% of total antibody in the blood

- involved in allergic reactions

273
Q

lgD

A
  • monomer

- act as antigen receptors on B lymphocytes

274
Q

complement system

A

system of proteins that “complement” the immune system

275
Q

main proteins in the complement system

A

C1-C9

276
Q

complement system is activated by

A

step wise or cascading fashion

277
Q

functions of the complement system

A
  • encourages vasodilation and inflammation
  • antigen opsonization
  • destroys antigen
278
Q

self recognition:

A

ability to recognize ones own cellular markers

279
Q

self tolerance:

A

immune system must leave self antigens alone

280
Q

autoimmune disease results when

A

failure of self recognition of self tolerance (immune system would perceive that various auto antigens were foreign and should be destroyed)

Advanced Anatomy & Physiology (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions