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STEP 1 > SIM 2 > Flashcards

SIM 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is metoclopramide used for? What is its MOA and contraindications?

A

Uses: gastroparesis and vomiting
MOA: D2 receptor antagonist
Contraindications: Parkinson’s disease

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2
Q

CMV retinitis occurs in

A

CMV infected HIV patients whose CD4 count is <50.

Treatment is Ganciclovir or Valganciclovir which are guanosine analogs and terminate chain elongation by inhibiting viral DNA polymerase.

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3
Q

Antibodies of Graves disease

A

anti-thyrotropin antibodies (bind TSH receptors and stimulate thyroid hormone release)

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4
Q

Proptosis and pre-tibial myxedema (skin thickening) are associated with

A

Graves disease due to accumulation of glycosaminoglycans (hyaluronic acid)

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5
Q

Clinical presentation/symptoms of pinealoma

hint: all eye-related

A
  • upward gaze palsy (upward nystagmus)
  • absence of pupillary light reflex
  • convergence inability
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6
Q

Lymphatic malformation that can present as a soft, compressible mass that transilluminate and usually found on the left neck

A

Cystic Hygroma (aka. Lymphangioma)

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7
Q

Cystic Hygroma (aka. lymphangioma) is associated with what chromosomal aneuploidy?

A

Turner syndrome

Trisomy 13, 18, and 21

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8
Q

MOA of fluoroquinolone (-floxacin)

A

Inhibit topoisomerases that prevent supercoiling

  • DNA gyrase (Topoisomerase II)
  • Topoisomerase IV
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9
Q

Allergic contact dermatitis caused by toxicodendron species (poison ivy/oak) present as

A

erythematous rash with spots and streaks in exposed skin area during recent outdoor activity

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10
Q

How do you distinguish anemia (low Hb) caused by splenic sequestration crisis vs. aplastic crisis in sickle cell patient?

A
  • splenic sequestration crisis: reticulocytosis (normal bone marrow)
  • Aplastic crisis (Parvovirus B19): low reticulocyte (bone marrow is not functional)
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11
Q

Lactose intolerance that occur later in adulthood results from decreased

A

gene expression with age

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12
Q

Radiation exposure increases risk for kind of cancer?

A

Papillary thyroid carcinoma (arises from follicular cell)

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13
Q

Putamen and globus pallidus are collectively known as ____ and they form _____

A

lentiform nucleus; basal ganglia (movement)

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14
Q

internal capsule separate

A

caudate nucleus & thalamus from lentiform nucleus

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15
Q

a brain part that triggers conscious cravings (drugs)

A

Insula

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16
Q

Involuntary movements of mouth and tongue (lip puckering, smacking, and facial grimacing) due to long-term blockade of D2 receptors causing upregulation and supersensitivity of D2 receptors

A

Tardive Dyskinesia

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17
Q

What are the steps and enzymes in catecholamine synthesis?

A
  1. phenylalanine to tyrosine
    - by phenylalanine hydroxylase
  2. tyrosine to DOPA
    - by tyrosine hydroxylase
  3. DOPA to dopamine
    - by AAAD (aromatic amino acid decarboxylase)
  4. dopamine to NE
    - by dopamine B-hydroxylase
  5. NE to Epinepherine
    - by PMNT
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18
Q

What enzyme converts tyrosine to melanin?

A

Tyrosinase

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19
Q

Orthostatic hypotension, ptosis, exercise intolerance, nasal congestion, and ejaculatory difficulties are impaired ______ activity caused by dopamine beta-hydroxylase deficiency

A

sympathetic adrenergic

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20
Q

What is expected CVP, Cardiac output, and SVR for a saddle PE?

  • Answer as increase or decrease
A

CVP: increase
Cardiac output: decrease
SVR: increase

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21
Q

Reduced FEV1 (Forced expiratory volume in 1 second) is characteristic of

A

COPD

22
Q

What lung measurements are increased in COPD?

A
  • Residual volume (RV)
  • Total Lung Capacity (TLC)
  • Functional Residual Capacity (FRC = RV + ERV)
23
Q

(oral vs. inactivated polio vaccine)

Killed vaccine so don’t have the ability to revert to active form

A

inactivated polio vaccine

24
Q

(oral vs. inactivated polio vaccine)

attenuated live virus that can revert to virulent form and can cause vaccine-associated paralytic poliomyelitis

A

oral polio vaccine

25
Q

What is the benefit of oral polio vaccines over inactivated vaccines?

A

OPV promotes IgA immunity in oropharynx and GI tract –> induce contact immunity

26
Q

A set of symptoms (face and neck swelling, distended veins in upper trunk, tinnitus, dyspnea/cough, and HA) due to SVC obstruction is caused by ______ and is called _____

A

compression by tumor (ex. Pancoast); SVC syndrome

27
Q

Nerve that travels spiral groove of humerus and controls all extensor muscles (elbow, wrist, and fingers) of upper limb below shoulder; it also provides sensory innervation to the posterior arm, forearm, and dorsal lateral hand

A

radial nerve

28
Q

The only muscle that is spared during radial nerve damage

A

triceps brachii

29
Q

Women who are heterozygous for an x-linked disorder can be more susceptible to displaying manifestations of disease

A

Skewed X inactivation

30
Q

Describe Adenovirus characteristics

A
  • No envelope (naked)
  • ds DNA virus
  • Cause URIs
31
Q

How is poxvirus different from all other dsDNA viruses?

A

Replicate entirely in the cytoplasm of host cell instead of in the nucleus

32
Q

RNA-dependent DNA polymerase is aka

A

reverse transcriptase

33
Q

Viral infection that causes painful pharyngeal muscle spasms and dysphagia causing fear of water drinking (hydrophobia)

A

Rabies virus

  • spread through animal bite
34
Q

Histologic findings of rabies

A

eosionophillic neuronal cytoplasmic inclusions (Negri bodies)

35
Q

Filtration Fraction Equation

A

FF = GFR/RPF

  • RPF is renal plasma flow
36
Q

Orthostatic hypotension (syncope and lightheadedness) that presents with drop in BP without compensatory increase in HR suggests

A

sympathetic failure of baroreceptor reflex

37
Q

A skin disorder characterized by hyperkeratosis and epidermal hyperplasia

A

psoriasis

38
Q

Describe pathophysiology of psoriasis

A
  1. Skin barrier disruption
  2. Activation of dendritic cells
  3. Differentiation of CD4 helper T cells
  4. Production of inflammatory cytokines
  5. Keratinocyte proliferation
39
Q

Aminoglycosides MOA

A

bind 16S rRNA within 30s subunit of bacterial ribosome

40
Q

First-line weight loss medication that inhibits intestinal lipase to reduce dietary fat absorption; has GI side effects (flatulence, diarrhea)

A

Orlistat

*brand name: Alli

41
Q

Nephrotic syndrome is when proteinuria is

A

> 3.5 g/day

42
Q

A nephropathy caused by immune-complex deposition in the subepithelial portion of glomerular capillary walls

A

Membranous nephropathy

43
Q

Microscopy findings of membranous nephropathy

A

diffuse thickening of glomerular basement membrane

44
Q

Silver stain findings of membranous nephropathy

A

immune-complex deposits that form spikes

45
Q

Describe venous drainage of rectum ABOVE dentate line

A

superior rectal vein –> inferior mesenteric vein –> portal venous system

46
Q

Describe venous drainage of rectum BELOW dentate line

A

inferior rectal vein –> internal iliac vein –> Caval system (IVC)

47
Q

patients with xerosis (dry skin) have defects in permeability barrier of what skin layer?

A

stratum corneum

48
Q

Enzymes of Glycolysis

  1. Insulin activates _____
  2. Glucagon activates _____
A
  1. Phosphofructokinase-2

2. Fructose-2,6-bisphosphatase

49
Q

Hydrophobic/nonpolar amino acids

A

GLAM VIP PT

  • Glycine
  • Leucine
  • Alanine
  • Methionine
  • Valine
  • Isoleucine
  • Phenylalanine
  • Proline
  • Tryptophan
50
Q

A unique dural sinus that receives venous blood from both face veins and cerebral veins; Spread of infection of face via this sinus can cause gaze palsy and necrotic destruction of nasal turbinates

A

Cavernous Sinuses (lies on sella turcica behind optic chiasm)

51
Q

A viral infection that causes fever and parotitis (swelling of parotid glands); childhood vaccination prevents this infection in developed countries

A

Mumps virus

52
Q

A parasite infection that presents with abdominal pain and diarrhea; stool exam will show trophozoites with phagocytosed red blood cells

A

Entamoeba histolytica

STEP 1 (19 decks)

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