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STEP 1 > High Yield Topics-Reproductive > Flashcards

High Yield Topics-Reproductive Flashcards

1
Q

an example of dysplasia and is a precursor to cervical cancer

A

CIN (Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia)

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2
Q

Gonadotropin Release Hormone (GnRH) is released at a steady rate but begins to be released in a pulses starting

A

puberty

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3
Q

LH work on what cell, what enzyme works there, and what product hormone is produced?

A
  • theca cell
  • desmolase
  • androstenedione
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4
Q

FSH work on what cell, what enzyme works there, what hormone comes in, and what hormone leaves in that enzyme?

A
  • granulosa cell
  • aromatase
  • androstenedione
  • 17/B estradiol (estrogen)
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5
Q

Uterine cycle is divided into what three phases?

A
  1. Proliferative
  2. Secretory
  3. Menstrual
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6
Q

Ovarian cycle is divided into what two phases?

A
  1. Follicular Phase

2. Luteal Phase

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7
Q

The predominant hormone during follicular phase

A

estrogen

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8
Q

What does estrogen stimulate in the endometrium

A

proliferation

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9
Q

Ovulation occurs following a high level of estrogen causing ____ surge

A

LH

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10
Q

What is the remnant after primary oocyte is released on ovulation day (day 14)?

A

corpus luteum

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11
Q

What does granulosa cells in corpus luteum begin to secrete during luteal phase? what is it’s function?

A
  • Inhibin

- inhibits FSH release from anterior pituitary

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12
Q

What does estrogen stimulate in the endometrium

A

proliferation

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13
Q

What phase of uterine cycle is most characterized by coiled/spiral uterine glands (secrete glycogen-rich mucus) and tortuous spiral arteries that extend from the deeper layers to the uterine lumen?

A

Secretory Phase

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14
Q

Corpus luteum is replaced by ______ if no implantation occurs, which doesn’t make any hormones

A

Corpus albicans

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15
Q

The predominant hormone during luteal phase

A

progesterone

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16
Q

Progesterone during luteal phase is mainly produced by

A

corpus luteum

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17
Q

What does progesterone do to gonadotropins?

A

decrease LH and FSH levels

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18
Q

What does progesterone do to body temp?

A

increase

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19
Q

What does progesterone do in the endometrium?

A

stimulate glandular secretions and spiral artery development to make implantation more possible

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20
Q

How does progesterone inhibit sperm entry to uterus

A

production of a thick cervical mucus

  • progesterone favors implantation > conception
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21
Q

Withdrawal of what hormone causes endometrial cells to undergo apoptosis, resulting in collpasing of spiral arteries (menstrual bleeding)?

A

Progesterone

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22
Q

A disorder characterized by elevated LH levels –> excess androgen production by theca cells –> follicles are prevented from developing –> decreased progesterone production & excess androgen gets converted to estrone (adipose tissue) –> estrone inhibits GnRH release –> prevents ovulation

A

PCOS

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23
Q

What is hypothesized to increase LH:FSH ratio in PCOS leading to excess androgen synthesis?

A

Hyperinsulinemia and/or insulin resistance

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24
Q

Peripheral adipose tissue converts androstenedione to what form of estrogen?

A

Estrone

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25
Q

A disorder with clinical features that include obesity, acanthosis nigricans, menstrual irregularities, acne, hirsutism, and enlarged BILATERAL cystic ovaries

A

PCOS

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26
Q

PCOS patients are at risk for what uterine condition due to chronic estrogen (estrone) stimulation with low level of progesterone secretion?

A

Endometrial Hyperplasia or Endometrial carcinoma

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27
Q

First line of therapy for PCOS; why?

A

Weight Loss & diet to decrease peripheral estrone formation (more body fat means more estrone formation)

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28
Q

Second line of therapy for PCOS; prevents endometrial hyperplasia caused by unopposed estrogen

A

OCPs (has progesterone)

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29
Q

An estrogen receptor modulator that DECREASES negative feedback inhibition on the hypothalamus by circulating estrogen (estrone made by adipose tissue), thereby increasing gonadotropin production; tx for infertility in PCOS patients

A

Clomiphene

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30
Q

What CONFIRMS menopause diagnosis?

A

↑↑ FSH with low estrogen

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31
Q

Menopause is diagnosed after ___ months of amenorrhea

A

12

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32
Q

Average age of menopause

A

51

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33
Q

The source of estrogen after menopause

A

peripheral conversion of androgens

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34
Q

What is a concern of early menopause

A

Premature ovarian failure (POF)

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35
Q

Decreased estrogen, inc FSH, LH, signs of menopause after puberty but before 40

A

Premature ovarian failure (POF)

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36
Q

A disease characterized by a lack of secondary sex characteristics due to ↓ GnRH, FSH, LH, testosterone; can occur in both males and females; presents with anosmia (unable to detect smell) and infertility

A

Kallmann Syndrome

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37
Q

What causes ↓ synthesis of GnRH in the hypothalamus in Kallmann Syndrome?

A

Defective migration of neurons

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38
Q

What causes anosmia in Kallmann Syndrome?

A

Failure of olfactory bulb development

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39
Q

Androgens are converted into estrogens in what places/organs?

A
  1. Ovaries
  2. Testes
  3. Peripheral (adipose) tissues
  4. Placenta
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40
Q

Inability to synthesize estrogens from androgens leading to ↑ serum androgens during pregnancy, resulting in “ambiguous” external genitalia in female infants and maternal virilization (masculinization)

A

Aromatase deficiency

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41
Q

A disorder characterized with no upper vagina or short vagina; patients are 46,XX females w/ NORMAL ovaries, fully developed 2° sexual characteristics, and 1° amenorrhea (due to a lack of uterine development)

A

Müllerian aplasia/agenesis

aka. Mayer-Rokitansky-Küster-Hauser syndrome

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42
Q

In females, _________ fuse to form the fallopian tubes, uterus, cervix, and upper vagina; disruptions of this process can lead to a variety of Müllerian tract anomalies

A

paramesonephric ducts

aka. Müllerian ducts

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43
Q

Incomplete fusion of paramesonephric ducts (Müllerian ducts) can lead to what Mullerian tract anomalie characterized by an indentation in the center of the fundus?

A

Bicornuate uterus

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44
Q

What is responsible for the regression of the paramesonephric (Mullerian) ducts and suppresses female internal reproductive organ development?

A

Mullerian Inhibiting Factor (MIF)

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45
Q

The ______ gene on the Y chromosome codes for the testis determining factor (TDF), which stimulates tests development

A

SRY

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46
Q

Cells that produce Mullerian Inhibiting Factor

A

Sertoli cells

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47
Q

What stimulates the development of mesonephric ducts (Wolffian ducts) into INTERNAL male reproductive organs?

A

testosterone

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48
Q

What stimulates the development of the EXTERNAL male genitalia?

A

DHT

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49
Q

What cells produce testosterone necessary for the development of Wolffian ducts?

A

Leydig Cells

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50
Q

A disorder caused by a defect in androgen RECEPTOR, resulting in normal-appearing female (46,XY DSD); presents w/ female external genitalia and rudimentary (not connected to uterus/cervix) vagina but without axillary/pubic hair; uterus and fallopian tubes are absent due to persistence of anti-Müllerian hormone from testes (normal, functioning)

A

Androgen insensitivity syndrome

  • 46, XY but appears like a normal female!!
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51
Q

Testosterone and estrogen levels in androgen insensitivity syndrome

  • increased or decreased?
A

both are increased

  • testosterone is produced normally by the testes, but there are no testosterone receptors
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52
Q

Inability to convert testosterone to DHT; AR inheritance; presents with ambiguous genitalia (due to low DHT) until puberty (when ↑ testosterone causes ↑ growth of external genitalia)

A

5α-reductase deficiency

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53
Q

Testosterone/estrogen levels are (increased/decreased/normal) in 5α-reductase deficiency

A

NORMAL

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54
Q

Internal genitalia is (normal/abnormal) in 5α-reductase deficiency

A

NORMAL

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55
Q

LH level is (increased/decreased/normal) in 5α-reductase deficiency

A

NORMAL

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56
Q

Developmental Milestones for 2 months

*STUDY AID: 2 = February (Valentine’s Day)

A
  • Lift head up
  • Social smile
  • STUDY AID: “Lift you head up” for a kiss and “social smile”
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57
Q

Developmental Milestones for 4 months

*STUDY AID: 4 = April (April Fool’s)

A
  • Rolling over
  • Laughter
  • STUDY AID: “Rolling over” in “laughter”
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58
Q

Developmental Milestones for 6 months

*STUDY AID: 6 = June (Summer Picnic)

A
  • Sitting Up
  • Stranger Anxiety
  • STUDY AID: “sitting up” at a picnic and “stranger anxiety” at mom’s weird work friends
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59
Q

Developmental Milestones for 12 months

*STUDY AID: 12 = December (Christmas)

A
  • Walking
  • Separation Anxiety
  • STUDY AID: “walking” over to Santa Claus, but getting “separation anxiety”
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60
Q

Cubes stacked can be estimated for each age using what formula?

A

Age (in yr) x 3

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61
Q

What age uses about 50-200 words?

A

age 2 yr

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62
Q

What age uses about 300+ words and understands 1000 words?

A

age 3 yr

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63
Q

What age uses complete sentences and prepositions?

A

age 4 yr

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64
Q

What age can tell detailed stories (legends)?

A

age 4 yr

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65
Q

What age cooperatively play and has imaginary friends?

A

age 4 yr

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66
Q

What age can start to roll?

A

4 months

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67
Q

What age can start to stand?

A

10 months

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68
Q

What age can start climbing stairs?

A

18 months

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69
Q

The presence of endometrial glands and stroma “outside” the uterus; present with dysmenorrhea, pelvic pain, back pain, bleeding, dyspareunia (painful sex), diarrhea/constipation, and/or infertility

A

Endometriosis

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70
Q

Endometriosis most commonly occurs in the

A

ovary (often bilateral)

  • also common in fallopian tube, peritoneum
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71
Q

Endometriosis in ovary appears as ______ while endometriosis in peritoneum appears as _______

A
  • “chocolate cysts” (blood-filled)

- “powder-burn” reddish black lesions

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72
Q

Endometrial tissue can end up outside the uterus via what two ways?

A
  1. Retroverted uterus –> retrograde flow of endometrial tissue
  2. Transportation via lymphatic system
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73
Q

The size of uterus is (increased/normal/decreased) in endometriosis

A

NORMAL

  • uterus is not affected
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74
Q

There is an increased risk of _____ at the site of endometriosis

A

Carcinoma

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75
Q

Benign smooth muscle tumor that is estrogen sensitive, resulting in pelvic pressure, heavier menses, asymmetrically enlarged nodular uterus, and/or constipation; most common tumor in females

A

Leiomyoma (fibroid)

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76
Q

Heavy bleeding caused by uterine fibroid may lead to what type of anemia?

A

Iron deficiency

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77
Q

Peak age occurrence of uterine fibroid

A

20-40 (child bearing age)

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78
Q

Histological finding seen in leiomyoma

A

Whorled pattern of smooth muscle bundles with well demarcated borders

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79
Q

Adenomyosis is the “extension” of endometrial tissue (glandular) into uterine “myometrium” due to hyperplasia of the endometrium basal layer; presents with dysmenorrhea, abnormal uterine bleeding, and UNIFORMLY enlarged uterus

A

Adenomyosis

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80
Q

Appearance of biopsy of uterus with adenomyosis

A

Uniformly enlarged uterus w/ normal-appearing endometrial tissue

81
Q

Adhesions (due to scarring) or fibrosis of the endometrium; presents with infertility, recurrent pregnancy loss, abnormal uterine bleeding, and pelvic pain

A

Asherman Syndrome

82
Q

The most common cause of Asherman Syndrome

A

dilation and curettage of the intrauterine cavity

  • iatrogenic
83
Q

D & C (dilation and curettage) of the intrauterine cavity can cause secondary amenorrhea by

A

accidentally removing the stratum basalis (regenerative layer)

84
Q

A mass that develops around the uterus (ovaries, fallopian tube, etc.)

A

Adnexal Mass

85
Q

Presents with STREAK ovaries (ovarian dysgenesis), amenorrhea, and infertility; have short stature, webbed neck, shield chest (widely spaced nipples), and low posterior hairline

A

Turner Syndrome

86
Q

The most common cardiac comorbidity of Turner syndrome; associated with aortic stenosis (not due to aging)

A

Bicuspid Aortic Valve (AV)

87
Q

The second most common cardiac comorbidity of Turner syndrome; associated with femora < brachial pulse

A

Coarctation of Aorta

88
Q

Turner Syndrome can have what different types of karyotype?

A
  • 45, XO (complete monosomy)

- 45, X/46, XX (mosaicism)

89
Q

Complete monosomy or 45, XO karyotype in Turner syndrome is caused by

A

meiotic nondisjunction

90
Q

Mosaic karyotype or 45, X/46, XX in Turner syndrome is caused by

A

loss of sex chromosome in some but not all cells

91
Q

Turner syndrome in neonate present with

A
  • lymphedema

- cystic hygromas (swollen neck with a huge sac)

92
Q

Also presents with lymphedema, horseshoe kidney, high-arched palate, shortened 4th metacarpals, and cystic hygromas

A

Turner syndrome

93
Q

What is the best way for Turner Syndrome to get pregnant?

A

IVF

94
Q

The most common type of ovarian malignancy linked to the frequency of trauma and repair at the ovarian surface

A

Epithelial ovarian cancer

  • arises from the surface epithelium cells of the ovary
95
Q

Epithelial tumors are typically _____ (lined by _____ epithelium natively found in fallopian tubes

OR

_______ (lined by ______ epithelium natively found in cervix

A

Serous; mucinous

96
Q

What ovarian cancer has the histological finding of anaplasia of epithelial cells (poor cellular differentiation) with invasion into the stroma, along with papillary formations with cellular atypia?

A

Epithelial ovarian cancer

97
Q

What can be used as a serum marker to monitor response to therapy/relapse of EPITHELIAL ovarian cancer?

A

CA-125 (not for screening)

98
Q

OCPs, multiparity, and breastfeeding (↑ risk/↓ risk) for ovarian cancer

A

↓ risk

99
Q

Advanced age, BRCA 1/2 mutations, nulliparity, endometriosis, early menarche/late menopause, and infertility (↑ risk/↓ risk) for ovarian cancer

A

↑ risk

100
Q

A gastric tumor that has metastasized to the ovary and can present with unintentional weight loss, epigastric pain, and adnexal masses

A

Krukenberg tumor

101
Q

What ovarian tumor has large amounts of mucin-filled cells with peripherally displaced nuclei, resulting in a signet (flat) ring appearance?

A

metastatic tumor (Krukenberg tumor)

102
Q

What ligament of the ovary contains the ovarian artery, vein, lymphatics, and nerves?

A

suspensory ligament

aka. infundibulopelvic ligament

103
Q

What artery is the major blood supply to the ovary and must be ligated during an oophorectomy to prevent heavy bleeding?

A

Ovarian artery

104
Q

A sex-cord stromal tumor of the ovary that secrete ESTROGEN and INHIBIN B and can cause endometrial hyperplasia; grossly, the tumor appears yellow due to the lipid content in theca cells

A

Granulosa cell tumor

105
Q

What sex-cord stromal tumor of the ovary histologically shows Call-Exner bodies (resemble primordial follicles)?

A

Granulosa cell tumor

106
Q

A sex-cord stromal tumor of the ovary that secrete TESTOSTERONE and is usually large; presents with signs of virilization (masculinization)

A

Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor

107
Q

What sex-cord stromal tumor of the ovary histologically shows tubular structures lined by round Sertoli cells and surrounded by a fibrous stroma?

A

Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor

108
Q

The most common germ cell tumor of the ovary; divided into mature and immature types

A

Teratoma

109
Q

Ovarian teratomas occur most frequently in females age 10-30.

A

10-30 (young females)

110
Q

(Mature/Immature) teratoma commonly contains hair, teeth, skin, or thyroid tissue and involves all 3 germ layers; benign

A

Mature Cystic Teratoma

111
Q

(Mature/Immature) teratoma commonly contains fetal tissue (neuroectoderm); Malignant and aggressive

A

Immature Teratoma

112
Q

Most common cause of scrotal enlargement in males due to dilated pampiniform plexus veins caused by increased venous pressure; presents with “bag of worms” like sensation

A

Varicocele

113
Q

Varicocele can cause infertility due to (increased/decreased) temperature caused by dilated pampiniform plexus veins

A

Increased

114
Q

Varicocele occurs most often on the (right/left) side due to increased resistance to venous drainage from (R/L) gonadal vein into (R/L) renal vein

A

LEFT

115
Q

Varicocele gets bigger by _____ maneuver

A

valsalva

116
Q

Varicocele (does/does not) transilluminate

A

does not

117
Q

Congenital hydrocele (scrotal swelling due to fluid accumulation) in infants is caused by an incomplete obliteration of the

A

processus vaginalis

118
Q

Results when serous fluid accumulates within the tunica vaginalis; presents as a painless scrotal swelling in infant males

A

Congenital hydrocele

119
Q

Congenital hydrocele in infants is caused by an incomplete obliteration of the

A

processus vaginalis

120
Q

Hydrocele (does/does not) transilluminate

A

does

121
Q

Unilateral, lower abdominal pain associated with ovulation; can mimic appendicitis

A

mittelschmerz

  • means middle pain (midway pain)
122
Q

What presents with lower quadrant pain, amenorrhea, vaginal bleeding, and positive B-hCG?

A

Ectopic pregnancy

123
Q

What presents with a sudden-onset, severe, unilateral lower quadrant pain + nausea/vomiting and unilateral adnexal mass?

A

Ovarian Torsion

124
Q

What presents with a sudden-onset, severe, unilateral lower quadrant pain immediately after sexual activity?

A

Ruptured Ovarian Cyst

125
Q

What presents with fever/chills, vaginal discharge, and lower quadrant pain + cervical “motion” tenderness?

A

Pelvic Inflammatory Disease

126
Q

Twisting of the infundibulopelvic ligament, often due to the weight of a large adnexal mass; occlusion of the blood and nerve supply to the ovary results in severe, acute pelvic pain and ovarian ischemia

A

Ovarian Torsion

127
Q

PID is most frequently caused by

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis

128
Q

PID ↑ the risk of ____ by causing scarring of the fallopian tubes (salpingitis)

A

Ectopic pregnancy

129
Q

Tx for PID must always be what two drugs?

A

Ceftriaxone (cephalosporin to cover both organisms) + doxycycline or azithromycin

130
Q

Causes cutaneous and genital warts as well as benign and malignant cervical intraepithelial neoplasia

A

Human Papillomavirus (HPV)

131
Q

A hallmark sign of HPV (both high & low risk types) infection; pyknotic, superficial squamous cells with a dense, irregularly staining cytoplasm and perinuclear halo-like clearing

A

Koilocytes

132
Q

Atypical squamous cells and is classified as low grade “squamous” intraepithelial lesions or high-grade “squamous” intraepithelial lesions

A

Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia (CIN)

  • Cervical dysplasia that can potentially become cervical cancer/carcinoma
133
Q

CIN is considered _____ if extending <1/3 of the epithelium

A

Low grade

134
Q

CIN is considered _____ if extending beyond >1/3 of the epithelium

A

High grade

135
Q

What signifies invasive CIN?

A

Beyond basement membrane invasion

136
Q

The strongest risk factor for development of cervical dysplasia and invasive cervical carcinoma

A

HPV 16, 18, 31, 33

  • early onset of sexual activity or multiple partners introduce them!
137
Q

Coinfection with _____ allows HPV infection to persist and enhances expression of HPV oncogenes, increasing the risk for cervical dysplasia/cancer

A

HIV

138
Q

Human papillomavirus (HPV) oncogenicity relies on the viral proteins ___ and ____, which inhibit cell cycle regulatory proteins (tumor suppressors) p53 and Rb. This allows cells infected with HPV to undergo unchecked cellular proliferation and evasion of apoptosis

A

E6; E7

139
Q

What kind of contraceptive is extremely important for preventing STIs, including HPV?

A

Barrier Contraceptives (ex. condom)

140
Q

Pts infected with carcinogenic strains of HPV (16, 18, 31, 33) are at risk for what cancer?

A

SCC of the cervix

141
Q

Competitive inhibitors of estrogen binding to ERs. They can have “agonist” or “antagonist” effects depending on the specific tissue.

A

Selective ER modulators

  • Tamoxifen
  • Raloxifene
142
Q

What inhibits lactation during pregnancy despite increased prolactin secretion as pregnancy progresses?

A

Progesterone (secreted first by corpus luteum and later by the placenta)

143
Q

A selective ER modulator that has an estrogenic effect on the uterus and can cause endometrial hyperplasia and cancer; it works as an antagonist in breast tissue

A

Tamoxifen

144
Q

Typically presents as an irregularly shaped, adherent breast mass, most commonly in the upper outer quadrant

A

Invasive breast carcinoma

145
Q

Malignant infiltration of ________ of the breast can cause skin retractions/skin dimpling

A

suspensory ligaments

146
Q

A type of breast cancer characterized by ducts distended by pleomorphic cells with prominent central necrosis that DO NOT penetrate the basement membrane

A

Ductal carcinoma in situ

147
Q

What is the “precursor” to invasive ductal carcinoma?

A

Ductal carcinoma in situ

148
Q

Characterized histologically by a cellular or myxoid stroma that encircles and sometimes compresses epithelium lined glandular and cystic spaces; the most common BENIGN tumor of the breast

A

Fibroadenomas

149
Q

A proliferation of papillary cells in a cyst wall or duct that may contain focal atypia. It is the most common cause of bloody nipple discharge and typically presents without breast masses or skin changes

A

Intraductal papilloma

150
Q

A treatment for infertility that acts like FSH and triggers the formation of a dominant ovarian follicle

A

Menotropin (human menopausal gonadotropin)

151
Q

______ infusion of GnRH induces FSH and LH release

A

Pulsatile

152
Q

______ infusion of GnRH suppresses FSH and LH release and subsequently suppresses gonadal fxn

A

Nonpulsatile (constant)

153
Q

All hormone-containing contraceptives prevent pregnancy through the actions of _______

A

progestins

154
Q

The main mechanism of contraceptives with progestins is inhibiting ______ by decreasing FSH and LH synthesis in the anterior pituitary

A

ovulation

155
Q

A protein that binds to and transports androgens and estrogen to tissues

A

Sex Hormone-Binding Globulin (SHBG)

156
Q

The effect of hyperinsulinemia on Sex Hormone-Binding Globulin (SHBG) concentration

A

Decrease

  • hyperinsulinemia inhibits the production of SHBG in the liver
157
Q

Patient with a ruptured ovarian cyst will most likely accumulate fluid in what location?

A

Rectouterine pouch (space b/w rectum and uterus)

158
Q

Rectouterine pouch is aka.

A

Pouch of Douglas

159
Q

Spindle-shaped cells most likely correspond to what type of cell?

A

fibroblasts

160
Q

What female pelvic ligament carries ovarian artery, vein, nerves, and lymphatics?

A

suspensory ligament

161
Q

Suspensory ligament is aka.

A

Infundibulopelvic (IP) ligament

162
Q

What ligament is affected during ovarian TORSION?

A

suspensory (Infundibulopelvic) ligament

163
Q

Buccal mucosal cells with a single dark body attached to the nuclear membrane; absent in Turner syndrome with karyotype 45, XO

A

Barr body

164
Q

Mosaicism seen in Turner Syndrome with karyotype 45, XO/46, XX is caused by what mutation?

A

Postzygotic Mitotic Nondisjunction

165
Q

The failure of sister chromatids to separate during mitosis of an embryonic cell, which leads to monosomy in some but not all daughter cells

A

Postzygotic Mitotic Nondisjunction

166
Q

What is almost always associated with vaginal bleeding AFTER menopause due to excessive cell growth and proliferation of endometrial glands?

A

Endometrial Carcinoma

  • Not bleeding from endometrial shedding due to hormonal cycle!
167
Q

The triad of ascites, pleural effusion, and an ovarian fibroma indicates

A

Meigs syndrome

168
Q

Eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions found in Leydig cells

A

Reinke crystals

169
Q

Patients with Turner syndrome are at increased risk for what MSK complication due to estrogen deficiency caused by ovarian dysgenesis?

A

Osteoporosis

170
Q

Forms when a Graafian follicle fails to ovulate and continues to grow instead; benign and presents as a single fluid-filled; regresses spontaneously

A

Follicular cyst

171
Q

Presents with a gray-white vaginal discharge with “fishy” odor

A

Bacterial Vaginosis

172
Q

Bacterial Vaginosis is caused by an overgrowth of what anaerobic gram-variable rod?

A

Gardnerella vaginalis

173
Q

Squamous epithelial cells covered with bacterial organisms that are seen on wet mount microscopy or cytology of Bacterial Vaginosis

A

Clue cells

174
Q

Preferred Tx options for bacterial vaginosis (2)

A

Metronidazole

Clindamycin

175
Q

Pelvic floor strengthening exercises (ex. Kegel) target what muscle to improve urinary incontinence by supporting around the urethra and bladder?

A

Levator Ani

176
Q

A common symptom during pregnancy, which occurs due to ↑ intra abdominal pressure and ↓ urethral tone caused by pregnancy hormones

A

Stress urinary incontinence

177
Q

Lymph from the (scrotum/testes) drains to the superficial inguinal lymph nodes

A

Scrotum

178
Q

A PAINLESS, solid scrotal mass should be considered _________ until proven otherwise!

A

testicular cancer

179
Q

Testicular tumors (do/do not) transilluminate

A

DO NOT

180
Q

(nonseminoma/seminoma) germ cell testicular tumors are composed of partially differentiated germ cells (made up of more than one type of cell), which often retain the ability to secrete hCG and alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)

A

Nonseminoma

181
Q

Presents with tall stature, gynecomastia, small and firm testes, and intellectual disability; AZOOSPERMIA

A

Klinefelter Syndrome (47, XXY)

182
Q

The most common mechanism/mutation causing Klinefelter Syndrome (47, XXY)

A

Nondisjunction during meiosis

183
Q

Testosterone, estrogen, and gonadotropin (FSH, LH) levels in patients with Klinefelter syndrome (47, XXY)

  • answer as either high or low
A

Testosterone: Low
Estrogen: high (gynecomastia)
FSH: high
LH: high

184
Q

Benign prostatic hyperplasia can be medically treated with what 2 types of drugs?

A
  1. a-adrenergic blockers

2. 5-a reductase inhibitors

185
Q

A drug that block the conversion of testosterone to DHT in prostate; ↓ prostate volume in pts with BPH and relieve the fixed component of bladder outlet

A

5-a reductase inhibitors

  • finasteride
  • dutasteride
186
Q

A nonsteroid anti-androgen that acts as a competitive inhibitor of testosterone receptors. It is used in combination w/ long-acting GnRH agonists for the Tx of prostate cancer

A

Flutamide

187
Q

The most common site of prostate cancer metastases due to hematogenous seeding

A

Lumbosacral spine

188
Q

Prostate cancer spreads to the lumbosacral spine via the _______ which communicates with vertebral venous plexus

A

prostatic venous plexus

189
Q

An x-linked disorder that presents with a long, narrow face, a large jaw and ears, and prominent forehead, and LARGE testes; have developmental delay and intellectual disability findings that overlap w/ anxiety disorders, autism, and ADHD

A

Fragile X Syndrome (FXS)

  • STUDY AID: looks like an elf!
190
Q

Fragile X Syndrome (FXS) is caused by an unstable expansion of Trinucleotide repeats of _____ on _____ gene

A

CGG; FMR1

191
Q

The major complication of prostatectomy or injury to the prostatic plexus

A

Erectile Dysfunction (ED)

192
Q

Lymph from the (scrotum/testes) drains into the para-aortic nodes

A

testes

193
Q

Caused by an infection with low-risk HPV strains 6 and 11; presents as vulvar and vaginal warts

A

Condylomata Acuminata

aka. anogenital warts

194
Q

The most common location of CIN and cervical cancer; the transitional area between the ectocervix and endocervix

A

Squamocolumnar junction

  • Ectocervix (non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium)
  • Endocervix (simple columnar epithelium with tubular glands)
195
Q

Besides cervical SCC, HPV infection is risk factor for what other cervical cancer?

A

Cervical Adenocarcinoma

196
Q

Skin-colored, scaly, cauliflower-like papules on the elbows, knees, fingers, and/or palms of children/adolescents

A

Verruca Vulgaris

aka. Common Warts

197
Q

Verruca vulgaris is caused by what virus?

A

HPV (strains 1,2,4)

198
Q

HPV is

  1. (enveloped/noneveloped)
  2. (ssRNA/dsDNA)
  3. (circular/linear genome)
  4. (helical/icosahedral capsid)
A
  1. Nonenveloped
  2. dsDNA
  3. circular genome
  4. icosahedral shaped capsid

STEP 1 (19 decks)

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