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STEP 1 > NBME-29 > Flashcards

NBME-29 Flashcards

1
Q

What unique physical finding will be found in lung consolidation (pneumonia, pulmonary edema)

A

Increased tactile fremitus (vibration against the hand) over the consolidated area of the lung.

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2
Q

Edema specific to parts of the body that that are influenced by gravity, such as your legs, feet, or arms

A

Dependent edema

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3
Q

Intestinal absorption of calcium (and also phosphate) is regulated (increased) by

A

Vitamin D (active form)

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4
Q

How does active vitamin D increase GI absorption of calcium and phosphate?

A

via calcium-binding protein “Calbindin”

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5
Q

Describe Vitamin D activation

A
  1. 7-Dehydrocholesterol –> Cholecalciferol
    - converted by UV light in the skin
  2. Two steps of hydroxylation
    - first in the liver by 25-hydroxylase
    - second in the kidney by 1a-hydroxylase
  3. Formation of 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (active Vitamin D)
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6
Q

Bile acids are synthesized mainly from

A

cholesterol

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7
Q

The body’s “primary” source of cholesterol excretion although 90% of it are reabsorbed through the intestine and recycled by the liver

A

bile acids

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8
Q

Bile acid resins is used to treat hypercholesterolemia through what MOA?

A

Bile acid resins prevents the reabsorption of bile acids from the intestinal lumen –> decreased intrahepatic cholesterol –> upregulation of hepatic LDL receptors (to restore intrahepatic cholesterol concentration) –> decreased serum level of LDL

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9
Q

Demyelinating polyneuropathy caused by autoimmune antibodies against peripheral nerve myelin

A

Guillan-Barre syndrome

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10
Q

Guillan-Barre syndrome is often preceded by an infection caused by

A

Camp. jejuni

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11
Q

Guillan-Barre syndrome presents with what symptoms/signs?

A

acute symmetrical muscle weakness, hyporeflexia or absent of deep tendon reflexes (LMN dysfunction), autonomic dysfunction (BP fluctuations, cardiac irregularities), and sensory deficits (pain, vibration, etc.)

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12
Q

A condition often following a viral illness and presents with thrombocytopenia, and petechiae/purpura and easy bruising due to autoimmune antibodies attack against Gpllb/IIIa on platelets

A

Immune Thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)

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13
Q

Thrombocytopenia in ITP is caused by

A

peripheral destruction of platelets by macrophages in spleen (phagocytose the platelet-antibody complex)

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14
Q

BM Biopsy of ITP shows

A
  • Increased # of Megakaryocytes
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15
Q

bleeding time bleeding time (BT), PT, and PTT of ITP

A

BT: prolonged
PT: normal
PTT: normal

  • platelet itself is normal so PT and PTT is normal
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16
Q

Tx for ITP

A

Usually self-limited; steroids/immunosuppressants for chronic ITP

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17
Q

What medication can exacerbate asthma, respiratory symptoms (bronchospasm), and nasal polyps?

A

Aspirin (NSAIDs)

  • The diagnosis: Asprin (or NSAIDs)-exacerbated respiratory disease (AERD)
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18
Q

Describe Arachidonic acid pathways (AA to P, P, T eicosanoids)

A
  1. Phospholipids (membrane) –> Arachidonic Acid
    - by Phospholipase A2
  2. AA –> Cyclic endoperoxides
    - by COX 1 & 2
  3. Cyclic endoperoxides –> P, P, T
    - Prostacyclin (PGI) by prostacyclin synthetase
    - Prostaglandin (PGE) by prostaglandin synthetase
    - Thromboxane (TXA) by thromboxane synthetase
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19
Q

Describe Arachidonic acid pathways (AA to L eicosanoid)

A
  1. Phospholipids (membrane) –> Arachidonic Acid
    - by Phospholipase A2
  2. AA –> 5-HPETE
    - by 5-Lipoxygenase
  3. 5-HPETE –> Leukotrienes
    - by leukotrienes synthase
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20
Q

What NSAIDs nonselectively and irreversibly inhibits COX 1 and COX 2?

A

aspirin

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21
Q

Leukotrienes can increase bronchial tone and cause

A

bronchospasm

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22
Q

Medications that cause muscular paralysis (diaphragm paralysis) via competitive antagonism at the POSTsynaptic acetylcholine receptor sites in the neuromuscular junction

A

Nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker (-curarine, -curonium, -curim)

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23
Q

Muscular paralysis can be treated with _____, as in myasthenia gravis

A

acetylcholinesterase

  • Neostigmine
  • Pyridostigmine
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24
Q

Because of its unopposed estrogen stimulation of the endometrium, Tamoxifen or SERMs increases the risk for what cancer?

A

Endometrial Hyperplasia/cancer

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25
Q

Tamoxifen use can cause hypercoagulability state and increase the risk for

A

DVT, PE

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26
Q

Tamoxifen use can cause hypercoagulability state and increase the risk for

A

DVT, PE

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27
Q

Excess serum monosodium urate can precipitate in tissues as

A

tophi (hard lumps we typically know gout as)

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28
Q

Acute Tx for gout

A
  • NSAIDs
  • Steroids
  • Colchicine
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29
Q

What acute gout tx works as and anti-inflammatory (impairs neutrophil chemotaxis and degranulation)?

A

Colchicine

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30
Q

Chronic Tx for gout

A
  • Probenecid

- Allopurinol

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31
Q

What chronic gout tx competitively inhibits xanthine oxidase?

A

Allopurinol

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32
Q

What chronic gout tx inhibits reabsorption of uric acid in PCT but increases risk of uric acid calculi?

A

Probenecid

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33
Q

a psychiatric impulse control disorder that presents with repetitive hair pulling resulting in noticeable hair loss and several unsuccessful attempts to stop hair pulling; focal hair loss with broken hairs of different lengths

A

Trichotillomania

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34
Q

a disorder of diffuse, nonscarring hair loss that results from inciting factors such as medical illness, childbirth, nutritional deficiencies, or emotional stress

A

Telogen effluvium

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35
Q

a chronic, immune-mediated disorder of hair loss that can present with diffuse or focal hair loss. Areas may have smooth or irregular borders. Hairs are typically narrower proximally than distally and are prone to breaking.

A

Alopecia areata

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36
Q

The region of the immunoglobulin (Ig) molecule and is exchanged during isotype (class) switching from IgM to another Ig class; identical in all IgM molecules but shared (similar) in all IgG molecules

A

Constant region

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37
Q

The region of the immunoglobulin (Ig) molecule that is unique region for antigen binding; this region in each individual Ig is specific to an antigen

A

Variable region (aka. antigen binding region)

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38
Q

The region of the immunoglobulin that is intact during class switching

A

Variable region (aka. antigen binding region)

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39
Q

A movement disorder in which your muscles contract involuntarily, causing repetitive or twisting movements

A

Dystonia

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40
Q

A component of cartilage and is a highly polar molecule with many negative charges; strong affinity with water due to it’s polarity

A

Chondroitin sulfate

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41
Q

What molecule component of cartilage is heavily hydrated, which increases the overall volume of the complex, in contrast to its closer-packed form when it is a dehydrated solid?

A

Chondroitin sulfate

42
Q

The ability of what ion to be removed from the cytoplasm is critical to cessation of muscle contraction and preparation to be depolarized again (diatole)?

A

Ca2+

43
Q

What pump/channel helps re-establish the low basal calcium concentration in the cytoplasm during myocardial diastole?

A

Na+–Ca2+ exchanger –> brings Na+ into the cell in exchange for Ca2+ leaving the cell

44
Q

What is the benefit of continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) in patients with sleep apnea?

A
  1. Decreases the frequency of apneic episodes

2. Decreases blood pressure

45
Q

Untreated HTN in patients with sleep apnea is associated with

A

adverse cardiovascular outcomes (stroke)

46
Q

What treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus binds to peroxisome proliferator-activated receptors (PPARs), which act as transcription factors to regulate metabolism and promote insulin sensitivity?

A

Pioglitazone

  • HINT: Sketchypharm!
47
Q

a scale that is used to measure the consciousness of a person; low score = decreased conciousness

A

Glasgow Coma Score

48
Q

The predominant cell types found at the site of PPD exposure and in the lungs of patients with pulmonary tuberculosis.

A

Macrophages and CD4 T Cells (Th1)

49
Q

Describe how PPD skin testing works in patients previously exposed to Mycobacterium tuberculosis (MTB)

A
  1. Mycobacterial antigen (tuberculin) is placed directly under the skin
  2. Prior exposure to MTB results in the formation of memory Th1 cells against typical mycobacterial antigens
  3. Tuberculin is processed by dendritic cells and presented to Th1 cells.
  4. Recognition by these Th1 cells leads to release of interferon-γ, which attracts macrophages to the site of injection
50
Q

What hypersensitivity type is PPD skin test?

A

type 4 (delayed)

51
Q

The most common subtype of melanoma in individuals with darker skin; occurs on the distal extremities (ie, acral sites)

A

Acral lentiginous melanoma

52
Q

Distal aspects of the head (ears, nose) and the extremities (hands, fingers, feet, toes)

A

acral site

53
Q

(T/F)

Acral lentiginous melanoma is associated with UV radiation

A

False

  • that is why it’s most common in darker skinned patients
54
Q

SLE, serum sickness reaction, polyarteritis nodosa, and poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis are all examples of type hypersensitivity

A

III (3)

55
Q

An aerobic, gram-positive rod that is catalase-positive, β-hemolytic, and shows characteristic tumbling motility under light microscopy.

A

Listeria monocytogenes

56
Q

Common sources of Listeria monocytogenes

A

Unpasteurized dairy or deli meats

57
Q

Tx for Common sources of

A

Penicillin

58
Q

Ectopic ACTH is produced by what neuroendocrine neoplasm?

A

Small cell carcinoma of the lung

59
Q

How do you distinguish b/w Cushing disease (ACTH-secreting pituitary adenoma) vs. ectopic tumor production of ACTH?

A

Cushing disease responds (therefore ACTH decreases) to HIGH-dose dexamethasone

60
Q

provides blood flow to the right ventricle, right atrium, SA node, and AV node, and in a right-dominant circulation

A

RCA

61
Q

provides a majority of the blood supply to the inferior heart through the

A

posterior descending artery (PDA)

  • branch of RCA in 85% of patients
62
Q

Sores that are caused by prolonged pressure on a single point such as the buttocks, heels, occipital scalp, or elbows; common in patients with limited mobility;

A

Decubitus ulcers (aka. pressure sores)

63
Q

The primary method of prevention of decubitus ulcers

A

Frequent turning or use of an offloading mattress

64
Q

Type of short stature that is associated with short stature in both parents, a normal gain of height velocity, and a bone age that corresponds with chronological age

A

Familial short stature

65
Q

Type of short stature that is independent of parental stature, has a decreased growth velocity, and a bone age younger than the patient’s chronological age

A

constitutional growth delay

*delayed puberty compared to their peers of similar age

66
Q

Type of short stature associated with eventual reach of a normal adult height, with more rapid increases in height gain velocity after they reach puberty

A

constitutional growth delay

67
Q

Cortisol and glucocorticoids increase production of ____ to inhibit phospholipase A2, therefore decreasing the production of inflammatory eicosanoids (prostaglandins and leukotrienes)

A

annexin (A1)

68
Q

annexin (A1) is aka.

A

lipocortin

69
Q

In cases of perforated viscus (perforated diverticulitis), pathogenic bacteria are able to enter the normally sterile peritoneal cavity causing deposition of what material to trap/inhibit and spread of infection?

A

Fibrin

70
Q

The most common pediatric brain tumor and are usually pilocytic astrocytomas (benign) that occurs infratentorial (in the cerebellum or brain stem)

A

Gliomas

71
Q

Type of malnutrition that presents with weight loss, muscle wasting, hypoalbuminemia, and signs of vitamin deficiencies

A

Protein-calorie malnutrition

72
Q

Lateral (external) rotation of the thigh is controlled by what muscle?

A

Piriformis

73
Q

Inhibin is released by what cells?

A

granulosa cells of the ovary and Sertoli cells of the testis

*primarily acts to inhibit the production and release of FSH

74
Q

a noncaseating granulomatous disease that often involves the hilar lymph nodes and/or lungs

A

Sarcoidosis

75
Q

Sarcoidosis risk factors include

A

African-American ethnicity (strongest predisposing risk factor) and being female

76
Q

characterized by delayed ventricular depolarization and repolarization with an increased risk for ventricular arrhythmias; mutations or defect in voltage-gated potassium channels

A

LQTS

77
Q

Expressed on the surface of endothelial cells in response to local infection to bind specific receptors on the surface of leukocytes

A

E and P selectins

78
Q

a displacement of the femoral epiphysis (fracture of growth plate) relative to the femoral neck; most commonly occurs in “overweight” children; treatment requires surgical fixation of the femoral epiphysis to prevent complications

A

Slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE)

79
Q

Complications of Slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE)

A

avascular necrosis of the femoral head, gait impairment, and premature osteoarthritis

80
Q

a rheumatologic inflammatory condition involving the vertebrae that presents with subacute to chronic back pain and limited range of motion that is improved with exercise. It often presents in men between the ages of 20 and 30 years and may be associated with uveitis

A

Ankylosing spondylitis

81
Q

osteochondrosis or traction apophysitis of the tibial tubercle that typically occurs in adolescent, athletic children. It presents with pain along the anterior aspect of the proximal tibia and knee that is exacerbated by kneeling or extending the knee. Physical examination typically discloses tenderness over an enlarged tibial tubercle.

A

Osgood-Schlatter disease

82
Q

bacterial infection of the synovial joint space, most commonly by Staphylococcus aureus. Examination of the affected joint discloses tenderness, swelling, and erythema, and patients generally present with fever. Arthrocentesis is indicated for the evaluation of monoarticular erythema and swelling to evaluate for septic arthritis, which characteristically shows purulent synovial fluid with greater than 50,000 leukocytes/mm3.

A

Septic arthritis

83
Q

Metabolically inactive muscle experiences disuse atrophy through the loss of trophic signals from stretch, reflex, and load bearing. Sarcomeres are catabolized, and vascular arbor diminishes, reflected histologically as decreased

A

capillarity

84
Q

a neurotransmitter that acts on G protein-coupled receptors and increases gastrointestinal motility. It stimulates contraction of the gastric antrum and fundus to accelerate gastric emptying as well as peristalsis in the small bowel.

A

Motilin

85
Q

Antiplatelet therapy that inhibits platelet aggregation by decreasing the expression of glycoprotein IIb/IIIa on the platelet surface.

A

ADP receptor blockers (aka. P2Y12 receptor blockers )

- Clopidogrel and ticagrelor

86
Q

Inhibits gamma-carboxylation of coagulation factors

A

vitamin K antagonists such as warfarin

87
Q

the main enzyme responsible for adenosine degradation, and deficiency of it is associated with lymphocyte dysfunction in severe combined immunodeficiency.

A

Adenosine deaminase

88
Q

Multiple myeloma can present with severe back pain and hypercalcemia caused by increased osteoclastic activity stimulated by

A

Local interleukin-1 (IL-1) and tumor necrosis factor

89
Q

free immunoglobulin “light-chain” proteins not present in kidneys unless your body makes too many Igs as in Multiple myeloma

A

Bence Jones proteins

90
Q

the mechanism of hypercalcemia seen in most malignancies other than multiple myeloma.

A

Excessive parathyroid hormone-related protein production (PTHrP)

91
Q

the only cranial nerves that are part of the CNS and therefore cannot regenerate due to Oligodendrocytes (CNS myelin) that release inhibitory factors that prevent neural regeneration

A

optic and olfactory nerves

92
Q

___-adrenergic receptor utilizes phospholipase C as a second messenger, whose activity leads to increased intracellular calcium and protein kinase C activity, in turn causing smooth muscle contraction and arteriolar vasoconstriction.

A

alpha

93
Q

What vascular smooth muscle change of the nasal mucosa arterioles decreases nasal secretions, assisting in the treatment of allergic rhinitis and nasal congestion?

A

Vasoconstriction

  • almost counterintuitive!
94
Q

the primary component of intermediate filaments in muscle tissue.

A

Desmin

95
Q

The compounds that is most likely to induce increased titers of these antibodies when conjugated to the polysaccharides

A

protein (ex. flagellin)

96
Q

The second most common type of primary lung cancer after adenocarcinoma, which more often presents as a peripheral lesion and can cause obstruction of bronchi

A

Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung

97
Q

Educational Objective: Centrally located primary lung cancers include

A
  1. squamous cell carcinoma or

2. small cell carcinoma of the lung

98
Q

Obstruction of the airways can lead to

A

postobstructive pneumonia.

99
Q

Protein processing is targeted by protease inhibitors such as

A

ritonavir/lopinavir

100
Q

Thinned trabeculae are characteristic of

A

osteoporosis

101
Q

Common in elderly women of European descent and also in patients with chronic steroid use and limited physical activity; fragility fractures are a common presentation

A

osteoporosis

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