High Yield Topics-Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

What STI presents with a painless genital ulcer followed several weeks later by a diffuse maculopapular rash involving the palms and soles

A

syphilis (Treponema pallidum)

  • spirochete
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2
Q

First-line treatment for syphilis

A

penicillin

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3
Q

MOA of penicillin

A

binds to bacterial transpeptidase and interferes with bacterial cell wall synthesis through the inhibition of peptidoglycan cross-linking

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4
Q

spread by respiratory droplets and present with an erythematous rash, “arthralgias”, “postauricular lymphadenopathy”, and fever

A

Rubella infection

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5
Q

An infection during pregnancy –> infant manifests with cataracts, sensorineural deafness, and congenital heart disease (patent ductus arteriosus), and microcephaly

A

congenital rubella infection

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6
Q

Rubella infection can be prevented by

A

measles-mumps-rubella (MMR) vaccination

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7
Q

what kind is MMR vaccination?

A

live-attenuated vaccine

  • contraindicated during pregnancy!
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8
Q

Presents with a fever, cough, “conjunctivitis”, and a maculopapular rash; no postauricular lymphadenopathy or arthralgias

A

Measles virus

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9
Q

An infection during pregnancy –> infant presents with increases the risk for fetal demise and low birth weight

A

congenital measles

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10
Q

An infection during pregnancy –> infant presents with localized lesions of the skin, eyes, and mouth + encephalitis and multiorgan dysfunction

A

Herpes simplex virus (HSV)

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11
Q

An infection during pregnancy –> infant presents with intrauterine growth restriction, hepatosplenomegaly, petechiae, jaundice, thrombocytopenia, microcephaly, and chorioretinitis

A

Cytomegalovirus

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12
Q

Neurocysticercosis (calcified nodules and some cysts of brain) is caused by

A

pork tapeworm (aka.Taenia solium)

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13
Q

Source of pork tapeworm Taenia solium

A

raw or undercooked, infected pork

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14
Q

Azoles (-conazole) inhibits the production of ergosterol (part of the fungal cell membrane) by

A

inhibiting the cytochrome P450-dependent demethylation reaction that synthesizes ergosterol from lanosterol.

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15
Q

Prevention of cross-linking of β-glucans in the cell wall is the mechanism of action of

A

echinocandins

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16
Q

Pore formation in the fungal cell membrane is the mechanism of action of

A

amphotericin B and nystatin

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17
Q

Inhibition of DNA and RNA synthesis is the mechanism of action of what fungal tx?

A

flucytosine

  • tx for cryptococcal meningitis
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18
Q

Prevention of tetrahydrofolic acid synthesis is the mechanism of action of

A

Sulfonamides and trimethoprim

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19
Q

antibody that indicates immunity to hepatitis B due to vaccination or recovery from infection.

A

Anti-HBs

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20
Q

Mnemonic for Viral hepatitis B markers

A

SpECiES

S: HBsAg
E: HBeAg
C: HBcAg

E: Anti-HBe
S: Anti-HBs

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21
Q

antibody that indicates low transmissibility of hepatitis B

A

Anti-HBe

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22
Q

the sole ⊕ marker of viral hepatitis B infection during window period

A

Anti-HBc (IgM)

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23
Q

Three genes encoded by HIV RNA (diploid genome = two ssRNAs)

A
  1. env
  2. gag
  3. pol
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24
Q

What structural proteins are encoded by env gene?

A

glycoprotein 160 (later cleaves into gp120 and gp41)

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25
Function of gp 120
attachment to host CD4+ T cell
26
Function of gp 41
fusion and entry
27
What structural proteins are encoded by gag gene?
p24 and p17
28
Function of p24
capsid protein
29
Function of p17
matrix protein
30
What structural proteins are encoded by pol gene?
Reverse transcriptase Integrase Protease *STUDY AID: RIP Pol
31
Function of Reverse transcriptase
synthesizes dsDNA from viral RNA
32
Function of Integrase
integrates dsDNA into host genome
33
Function of Protease
Cleaves protein formed from dsDNA
34
HIV binds to what co-receptor on CD4 T cells?
CXCR4
35
HIV binds to what co-receptor on macrophages?
CCR5
36
What does HIV acquire through budding from host cell plasma membrane?
envelope glycoproteins and envelope
37
HIV is diagnosed using * know this cold!
HIV-1/2 Ag/Ab testing * It detects viral p24 "antigen" capsid protein + IgG "antibodies" to HIV 1 and HIV 2
38
HIV-1/2 Ag/Ab immunoassays has _____ sensitivity/specificity
high
39
What test is used to confirm HIV in case of indeterminate HIV-1/2 Ag/Ab immunoassays?
Nucleic acid test (NAT) * aka. viral load test (measure the amount of the genetic material (RNA) of HIV in the blood)
40
High viral load is used to monitor effect of
drug therapy
41
HIV genotyping is used to determine
appropriate therapy
42
AIDS can be diagnosed by what two criteria?
1. low CD4+ T cell count OR 2. HIV ⊕ with AIDS-defining condition (Pneumocystis pneumonia)
43
What CD4+ T cell count is used to diagnose AIDS?
≤ 200 CD4+ cells/mm3
44
Since HIV-1/2 Ag/Ab testing is not recommended in babies with suspected HIV due to maternally transferred antibody, what is used instead?
HIV viral load
45
What are the four stages of untreated infection? * HINT: 4 F's
1. Flu-like (acute) 2. Feeling fine (latent) 3. Falling count 4. Final Crisis
46
Amount of HIV RNA (viral load) is inversely proportional to
CD4+ T cell count
47
Describe amount of HIV RNA and CD4+ T cell count during four stages of untreated infection
1. Flu-like (acute) - high HIV RNA - CD4+ T cell count drops 2. Feeling fine (latent) - relatively low HIV RNA - CD4+ T cell count increases 3. Falling count - progressive increase of HIV RNA - progressive decrease of CD4+ T cell count 4. Final Crisis - high HIV RNA - very low CD4+ T cell count (<200) --> death
48
HIV RNA is relatively low during latency phase b/c
Virus replicates in lymph nodes during latency phase
49
What pathogen is responsible for oral hairy leukoplakia on tongue in HIV patients?
EBV
50
How to distinguish oral thrush (by candida) vs. oral hairy leukoplakia (by EBV)
oral thrush is scrapable vs. oral hairy leukoplakia is unscrapable
51
A condition that presents with loss of memory, difficulty thinking, concentrating, speaking clearly, etc. due to HIV virus spreading to the brain
HIV dementia
52
Imaging findings of HIV dementia
cerebral atrophy on neuroimaging
53
What pathogen is responsible for progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (brain white matter disease) and areas demyelination on MRI in HIV patients?
John Cunningham virus | aka. JC virus
54
What pathogen is responsible for pneumonia in HIV patients with CD4+ cell count <200?
Pneumocystis jirovecii
55
Chest imaging finding of Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia
“Ground-glass” opacities
56
What pathogen is responsible for pleuritic pain and hemoptysis?
Aspergillus
57
Chest imaging finding of Aspergillus fumigatus
Cavitation or infiltrates
58
What pathogen is responsible for bacillary (rod-shaped) angiomatosis in HIV patients?
Bartonella spp
59
Biopsy findings of bacillary (rod-shaped) angiomatosis
neutrophilic inflammation
60
What pathogen is responsible for esophagitis in HIV patients?
Candida albicans
61
What endoscopy finding is associated with esophagitis caused by Candida albicans?
White plaques on endoscopy
62
What biopsy finding is associated with esophagitis caused by Candida albicans?
yeast and PSEUDOHYPHAE on biopsy
63
What pathogen is responsible for Colitis, Retinitis, Esophagitis, Encephalitis, and Pneumonitis in HIV patients?
CMV * STUDY AID: CMV causes CREEP
64
What pathogen is responsible for linear ulcers on endoscopy?
CMV
65
What pathogen is responsible for cotton-wool spots on fundoscopy?
CMV
66
What biopsy finding is associated with CMV infections? * HINT: same as in all CMV infections
cells with intranuclear inclusion bodies (owl eyes)
67
What pathogen is responsible for meningitis in HIV patients?
Cryptococcus neoformans
68
What pathogen is responsible for encapsulated yeast on india ink stain or capsular antigen +?
Cryptococcus neoformans * STUDY AID: sketchyMicro
69
What pathogen is responsible for chronic, watery diarrhea in HIV patients?
Cryptosporidium spp
70
What pathogen is responsible for Acid-Fast oocysts in stool
Cryptosporidium spp
71
What pathogen is responsible for B-cell lymphoma (diffuse large b cell lymphoma, non-Hodgkin lymphoma, and CNS lymphoma) in HIV patients?
EBV
72
What pathogen is responsible for nonspecific symptoms such as fever, night sweats, weight loss or focal lymphadenitis in HIV patients?
Mycobacterium avium
73
What pathogen is responsible for brain abscesses in HIV patients?
Toxoplasma gondii
74
How to distinguish CNS lymphoma (EBV) vs. Toxoplasma gondii on brain MRI
Toxoplasma gondii: MULTIPLE ring-enhancing lesions CNS Lymphoma by EBV: SOLITARY ring-enhancing lesion
75
Faulty nucleo"sides" that halt reverse transcriptase's activity of converting ssRNA to dsDNA --> early chain termination
NRTIs - Lamivudine - Zidovudine - Stavudine - Didanosine - Emtricitabine - Abacavir * STUDY AID: "Dine" with my "nuclear (nucleosides)" family
76
NRTIs are missing what on its nucleoside?
3'OH
77
NRTIs must be _____ to be activated b/c they are nucleosides
phosphorylated
78
The only NRTI that is a nucleo"tide"
"T"enofovir
79
Tenofovir must be phosphorylated a total of ___ times to be active
3 | already phosphorylated but must be phosphorylated two times more to be active
80
Which NRTI has an adverse effect of myelosuppression (bone marrow suppression), leading to anemia and neutropenia (agranulocytosis)?
Zidovudine
81
Tx to reverse bone marrow suppression caused by Zidovudine?
- G-CSF (granulocyte colony-stimulating factor) | - Erythropoietin
82
Allele that increased the risk of Type 4 hypersensitivity with Abacavir
HLA-B 57:01 * STUDY AID: - Book: HLA-B - Page: 57 - Line: 1