Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

STEP 1 > Daily UWorld Qs > Flashcards

Daily UWorld Qs Flashcards

1
Q

Antibodies found in celiac disease

A
  • IgA anti-endomysial
  • anti-gliadin
  • anti-tissue transglutaminase
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

instetinal biopsy findings of celiac disease

A
  • Villi atrophy
  • crypt hyperplasia
  • intraepithelial lymphocyte infiltration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Regions most affected by celiac disease b/c of highest concentration of gluten

A

duodenum and proximal jejunum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A vascular malformation that occurs in brain parenchyma and increase the risk of intracerebral hemorrhage and seizure

A

Cavernous hemangioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The most common side effect of opioids

A

opioid-induced constipation (OIC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Tx for OIC

A

Methylnaltrexone (peripheral u-opioid receptor antagonist)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Under normal circumstances, pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is equal to

A

LA pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

pulmonary capillary wedge pressure increases when

A

LA pressure increases (mitral stenosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Endocarditis that is characterized by mitral valvular deposition of platelet-rich thrombi without bacterial infection

A

Nonbacterial thrombotic endocarditis associated with malignancy or lupus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Hyperuricemia that predisposes to gout can be idiopathic or due to increased urate production such as

A
  • Myeloproliferative/lymphoproliferative disorders

- Tumor lysis syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Hyperuricemia that predisposes to gout can be idiopathic or due to decreased clearance of monosodium urate crystals such as in

A
  • CKD

- Thiazide/loop diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

asymptomatic thrombocytopenia during pregnancy is

A

gestational thrombocytopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

asymptomatic thrombocytopenia during pregnancy is caused by

A

plasma volume expansion (hemodilution) & increased platelet sequestration/consumption in placenta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Normally, inspiration increases venous return to the right side of the heart and _____ JVP

A

lowers/decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Paradoxical rise in JVP during inspiration is known as _____

A

Kussmaul sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Pericardial knock and Kussmaul sign is associated with _____ and _____ by encasing the heart and restricting ventricular filling

A
  • Constrictive pericarditis (thick/fibrous tissue in the pericardial space)
  • Cardiac tamponade
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A pause elicited by pain during inspiration while physician deeply palpates the RUQ is known as

A

+ Murphy sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. CN V1 (ophthalmic nerve) exits through ____
  2. CN V2 (maxillary nerve) exits through ____
  3. CN V3 (mandibular nerve) exits through ____
A
  1. Superior Orbital fissure
  2. Foramen Rotundum
  3. Foramen Ovale

“ORO”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Appendicitis initially starts with dull pain at the umbilicus and then the pain progresses to McBurney’s point (2/3 distance from the umbilicus to anterior superior iliac spine) because of

A

irritation of the parietal peritoneum by appendix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

serum sickness is an example of type __ hypersensitivity

A

III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Type 3 hypersensitivity is resolved/cleared by

A

mononuclear phagocyte system (macrophages)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

firm, shiny, round flesh-colored papules with central umbilication

A

molluscum contagiosum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

molluscum contagiosum is caused by___ and is spread through

A

poxvirus; sexual contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Raw or steamed shellfish (oyster, shrimp) is the common culprit for hepatitis __

A

Hepatitis A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

An autoimmune disorder caused by autoantibodies against postsynaptic nicotinic ACh receptors; progressive WORSENING after exercise or with muscle use; spared reflexes

A

Myasthenia gravis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

An autoimmune disorder caused by autoantibodies against presynaptic ca+2 channel (decreased Ach release); progressive improvement after exercise or with muscle use; hyporeflexia

A

Lambert-Eaton Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Myasthenia gravis is associated with what disease?

A

Thymoma, thymic hyperplasia

28
Q

Lambert-Eaton Syndrome is associated with what disease?

A

Small Cell Lung Cancer

29
Q

Tx for Myasthenia Gravis

A

Cholinesterase inhibitor (pyridostigmine)

30
Q

Cholinesterase inhibitor (pyridostigmine) side effects

A

muscarinic overstimulation due to increase ACh –> DUMBELS

31
Q

Cholinergic toxicity symptoms (DUMBELS)

A 
D: diarrhea/diaphoresis
U: Urination
M: Miosis
B: Bronchospasm
E: Emesis
L: Lacrimation
S: Salivation
32
Q

Tx for cholinergic toxicity

A

Muscarinic antagonists (glycopyrrolate)

33
Q

Pediculus humanus capitis is aka

A

head lice (egg casings in hair)

34
Q

Pulsus paradoxus (>10 mm Hg drop in systolic BP with inspiration) can be seen in what 2 diseases?

A
  1. cardiac tamponade

2. COPD

35
Q

What’s Beck’s triad seen in cardiac tamponade?

A
  1. Hypotension (decreased diastolic filling and CO)
  2. Distant heart sounds (decreased PMI)
  3. JVD
36
Q

In cardiac tamponade, right side heart SIZE (atrium & ventricle) ____ but right side PRESSURE ____

A

Decreases (compressed); increases

37
Q

The most nephrotoxic antifungal medication

A

Amphotericin B

38
Q

What is achalasia?

A

absence of peristalsis in esophagus and loss of fx in lower esophageal sphinter

39
Q

What parasite causes achalasia due to destruction of the submucosal (Meissner) and myenteric (Auerbach) plexus?

A

Trypanosoma cruzi (U shaped flagellated parasite)

  • Chagas disease
40
Q

What is the vector for chagas disease?

A

kissing bug (Triatoma and not a tick)

41
Q

Chagas disease can present with what other physical manifestations (heart and GI)?

A

Heart: dilated cardiomyopathy
GI: Megaesophagus or Megacolon

42
Q

All mitochondrial myopathies will have what muscle biopsy finding?

A

Red ragged (blotchy red) muscle fibers

43
Q

A mitochondrial myopathy with myoclonic epilepsy with ragged red fibers is known as

A

MERRF

44
Q

A mitochondrial myopathy with encephalopathy with stroke-like episodes and lactic acidosis is known as

A

MELAS

45
Q

Hepatic encephalopathy (altered mental status) is due to excess ___ in cases of liver injury, disease, or cirrhosis

A

ammonia

46
Q

Tx for hepatic encephalopathy that increases conversion of ammonia to ammonium

A

Lactulose

47
Q

Tx for hepatic encephalopathy that decreases intraluminal ammonia production

A

Rifaximin

48
Q

Both afferent and efferent nerves of JAW JERK REFLEX is mediated by

A

trigeminal nerve (V3)

49
Q

Amniotic fluid with elevated AFP and polyhydramnios indicate

A

anencephaly (no drinking center)

50
Q

A vascular malformation in which blood courses directly from arteries to veins (w/o passing capillary bed) that occurs in brain parenchyma

A

Cerebral arteriovenous malformation (AVM)

51
Q

Microscopy finding of AVM

A

A tangle of abnormal vessels with thickened walls

52
Q

Explain how Nitrates (NO) work on ED

A

Nitrates are converted to NO by endothelial cells –> NO increase intracellular cGMP –> cGMP induce vascular smooth muscle relaxation (vasodilation) –> improves ED

53
Q

Explain how PDE inhibitors work on ED

A

Normally, cGMP is degraded by phosphodiesterase –> PDE inhibitors inhibit this enzyme from degrading cGMP –> increased cGMP –> vasodilation –> improves ED

54
Q

The activation of “cytotoxic” T cells requires what 2 stimulatory signals?

A
  1. CD8+ T cell must bind to a specific antigen on MHC I of an APC
  2. The bound T cell must be costimulated by an interaction between the T cell surface receptor CD28 and the APC cell surface ligand CD80/86
55
Q

T cells (regardless of type) binds to antigen-MHC I or II complex through what receptor on its surface?

A

TCR (T-cell receptor)

56
Q

CD 80/86 is aka.

A

B7

57
Q

T cells that bind an antigen on an APC but are not costimulated undergo what form of anergy?

A

peripheral immune tolerance

58
Q

calculated by dividing the number of fatal cases of a disease or condition by the total number of people with that disease or condition.

A

Case-fatality rate

59
Q

Alpha 1 blockers that can treat both BPH and HTN

A
  • zosin

doxazosin, prazosin, and terazosin

60
Q

Alpha 1 blockers that can treat only BPH (uroselective)

A
  • Tamsu”losin”
61
Q

the most common primary bone malignancy. Histology shows pleomorphic, spindle-shaped cells that produce new osteoid and bone.

A

Osteosarcoma

62
Q

the second most common malignant bone tumor of childhood (after osteosarcoma); Histopathology is characterized by uniform, small, round, cells; fibrous septae; and patches of necrosis and hemorrhage.

A

Ewing sarcoma

63
Q

is characterized by overuse of wrist extensor muscles (eg, extensor carpi radialis, extensor digitorum), leading to pain at their attachment on the lateral epicondyle

A

Lateral epicondylitis (ie, tennis elbow)

64
Q

is characterized by overuse of wrist flexor muscles, leading to pain at their attachment on the medial epicondyle

A

Medial epicondylitis (ie, golfer’s elbow)

65
Q

the most common subtype of renal cell carcinoma and is composed of large, rounded, or polygonal cells with clear cytoplasm. These tumors are often detected incidentally at an advanced stage; the lung is the most common site for metastasis

A

Clear cell carcinoma

66
Q

year-round infection that causes the acute onset of fever, cough, congestion, pharyngitis, and conjunctivitis; occur in outbreaks among those living in close quarters (eg, camp dormitories, military barracks)

A

Adenovirus

67
Q

Describe adenovirus

A

nonenveloped, ds DNA

STEP 1 (19 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions