Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Jenna's Shit List > Shit - Repro > Flashcards

Shit - Repro Flashcards

1
Q

FAS mutations

A

limb dislocation, heart defects (PDA, VSD, ASD), Tetrallogy, heart-lung fistulas, holoprosencephaly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

syncitiotrophoblast role

A

Secrete bHCG which looks like LH, so corpus luteum is stimulated to keep making progesterone and not regress (sustains pregnancy). Eventually the placenta will take over progesterone (and estrogen) production role.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Syncytiotroph cell marker

A

NO MHC-I - prevents attack by maternal system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

umbilical artery vs vein: carry, #, derived from, problems

A 
Umbilical arteries (2) = deO2 from baby's internal iliac
Umbilical vein (1) = O2 blood from placenta to baby liver/ductus venosus.

Derived from allantoid (form yolk sac)

1 artery (2-vessel cord) = congenital/chromosomal abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Urachus

A

from yolk sac from allantois
connects urogenital sinus to yolk sac
Fail to fust: fistula (bellybutton pee), cyst, vesicourachal diverticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

vitelline duct

A

= omphalomesenteric duct
connects midgut to yolk sac
Fail to fuse = fistula (bellybutton poo), cyst, or meckel’s diverticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

MEckel’s sequale

A 
infection.
heterotopic gastritis (choristoma)
heterotopic pancreatic (choristoma)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Digeorge =

A

missing 3rd and 4th pouches
3 = thymus + inferior parathyroids
4 = C-cells + superior parathyroids

Parathyroids always from the dorsal wings; other = ventral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Cleft lip = failure of:

A

1’ palate

maxillary and medial NASAL processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Cleft palate = failure of:

A

2’ palate

2 lateral PALATNE processes; or lateral PALATINE process with nasal SEPTUM or medial PALATINE process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

congenital torticolis: s/s

A

neck, dip dysplasia, matatarsal adductus, talipes equinovarus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

SRY

A

makes TDF –> grow testes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

MIF

A

from sertoli cells, inhibit mullein (paramesonephric) duct system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Testosterone (embyo)

A

From leydig, makes internal male genetalia (except prostate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Missing MIF or sertoli

A

Male from leydig side, but no regression of internal female genetalia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Missing 5-a-reductase

A

can’t turn testosterone to DHT, so internal male, external ambicuous until puberty, puberty = massive testosterone spike which promotes 2’ male sex characteristics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Uterus malformations: order of severity

A

septate, bicorunate, didelphys (double everything)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Mullerian agenesis (Maybe-Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser)

A

Mullerian duct does not develop.
Ovaries and short blind vagina present.
1’ amenorrhea, no uterus/tubes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

genital tubercle

A

glans (both), shaft, vestibular bulbs

Malposition = epispadias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

urogenital sinus

A

Senke and bartholin

bulbourethral (cowpers) and prostate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

urogenital folds

A

labia minora and ventral penis

Fait to fuse urethral fods = hypospadias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

associations with hypospadias

A

cryptorchidism and inguinal hernia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

associations with epispadias

A

bladder exstrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

use of misoprostol (PGE1 analog) with mifepristone

A

sensitizes myometrium to mifepristone; also causes abdominal cramping/pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

gland penis and clitoris lymph drainage

A

deep inguinal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

broad ligament

A

connects everything to pelvic SIDE wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Nerves of boners

A 
Erection = S2-S4 pelvic splanchnics (PSNS to hindgut)
Emission = SNS hypogastrics 
Ejaculation = visceral and somatic nerves (pudendal)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Male cell affected by temperature

A

Stroll ONLY (so T fine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

enzymes in granulosa vs theca cells

A 
granulosa = aromatase
theca = desmolase
  • after ovulation, granolas get LH-R; bring in cholesterol to make PROGESTINS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Estrogens from where?

A 
Estradiol = ovary
Estrone = fat
Estriol = placenta *test of fetal well-being; placenta makes it from fetal adrenal DHEA to liver A/T
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Estrogen levels in pregnancy

A

Estradiol and estrone increase 50x

Estriol increases 1000x

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Hormone that increases body temperature

A

progesterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Hormones on gonadotropins

A

Estrogen inhibits LH
Inhibin inhibits FSH
Progesterone inhibits both LH and FSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Progesterone on estrogen

A

down regulated estrogen receptors (prevents unopposed estrogen and thus endometrial hyperplasia/CA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Basic preeclampsia s/s

A

HTN, proteinuria, edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Vaginal agenesis aka mullerian aplasia

A

mullein failure with short vagina and no or rudimentary uterus and tubes; no uterus = 1’ amenorrhea. Ovaries present, so full female 2’ sexual characteristics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

AIS

A

look female, but male internal structures. So internal testes, and minimal pubic/axillary hair because insensitive to androgens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Kartageners vs CF infertility

A 
Kartgeners = immotile cilia
CF = congenital absence of vas def
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Turner via:

A

Loss of paternal X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Poli vs oligo - menorrhagia

A 
oligo = few bleeds .: LONG cycle >35d
poly = many bleeds .: SHORT cycle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

stage of oocyte and chromosome contents

A

birth to ovulation = MIPI = 2N4C
ovulation to fertilization = MIIMII = 1N2C
post-fertilization = complete MII = 1N1C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Estrogen positive feedback mechanism

A

Estrogen induces GnRH receptors on the AP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Mittelschmerz

A

mid-cycle pain from peritoneal irritation (i.e. follicle swelling, tubal contraction); ddx = appendicitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

post-ovulatoin dates: fertilization (conception), implantation, bHCG detectoin

A 
1d = fertilization (24h viable; sperm = 72)
6d = implant
d7 = blood bHCG
d14 = urine bHCG
45
Q

What hormone(s) inhibit lactation during pregnancy

A

Progesterone AND estrogen

46
Q

why don’t you get pregnant while breastfeeding?

A

prolactin inhibits GnRH release (only if baby feeds on demand)

47
Q

what is in breast milk, and what diseases does it prevent

A

IgA, Macro, Lympho.
Baby: asthma, allergies, DM, obesity
Mom: breast and ovarian CA

48
Q

where doe sP come from throughout pregnancy:

A

pre-conception = CL via LH
conception - week 8/10 = CL via syncitiotrophoblasts acting like LH; identical alpha units on LH, FSH, hCG, and TSH (.: preg test looks for beta subunit of hCG (b-hCG))
week 8/10- end = placenta (makes P and E)

49
Q

high vs low hCG and what it means:

A 
high = twins, h. mole, chorioCA, downs
low = patau, edwards, failing/ectopic pregnancy
50
Q

hPL job and outcome

A

inhibits maternal glucose uptake (give glucose to baby) and induces lipolysis (to feed mother with KB and FFA).

Increased by maternal hypoglycaemia, and can cause gestational DM

51
Q

best marker of menopause

A

high FSH (no estrogen to feedback)

52
Q

chromosome numbers in sperm development

A 
gonium = 2N2C
1'cyte = 2N4C
2'cyte = 1N2C
tid = 1N1C
53
Q

late DHT effects

A

prostate growth, balding, sebaceous gland activity

54
Q

where is aromatase found in males:

A

adipose and testes (sertoli)

55
Q

Hormone levels in XXY

A

High LH and FSH
Low T and Inhibin (destruction and hyalinization of seminiferous tubules)
High E

56
Q

Turners: what is missing, hormone levels

A

Missing: ovaries (streaky), period (via hormones), barr body
Hormones: low E, high LH and FSH

57
Q

how to get XYY male + s/s

A

non-disfunction at dad M-II

s/s = tall, acne, LD, autism-spectrum

58
Q

M-I vs M-II nonductionction; terminology

A 
M-I = homologous chromosomes fail to separate = different
M-II = sister chromatids fail to separate = identical
59
Q

Maternal virilizatoin during pregnancy

A

fetus has aromatase deficiency; testosterone crosses the placenta

60
Q

Kallmans genes and s/s

A

LOF of Kal-I, FGFR-1, GPR-54, GnRH-Rs

Anosmia, infertile, midline defects, long armspan, unlit. renal agenesis, syndactyly

61
Q

complete mole:

A

XX or YY (empty egg + usually 1 sperm that then duplicates).
Dad controls placenta, so only see trophoblasts.
S/s = 1st trimester bleeding, very high hCG, enlarged uterus, hyperemesis, pre-eclampsia, hyperthyroidism, theca-lutein cysts, honeycomb/grapes/US snowstorm

62
Q

partial mole =

A

69 so maternal also so both placental and fetal parts.

bleeding + abd pain

63
Q

Gestational HTN =

A

> 140/90 after week 20; NO other s/s

64
Q

Pre-eclampsia s/s + mechanism

A

Gestational HTN + proteinuria or end-organ dysfunction.

Via abnormal placental spiral arteries

65
Q

pre-eclampsia drugs =

A

antiHTN (a-methyldopa, hydralazine, labetalol, nifedipine).

IV Mg-sulfate to prevent seizures (eclampsia)

66
Q

HELLP: s/s + rx

A

pre-eclampsia + Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enz, Low Platelets. Can cause hepatic sub-capsular hematomas
Rx = delivery

67
Q

Eclampsia s/s + rx

A

pre-exlampsia + seizures
Die from stroke, intracranial bleed, ARDS
Rx = IV Mg-sulfate + delivery

68
Q

Painful vs painless 3rd trimester vaginal bleeding in pregnancy

A 
painless = placenta previa
painful = placenta abruptio
69
Q

vasa previa: mechaism, s/s

A

usually via velamentous cord (into amino-chorio then to placenta rather than straight into placenta)
PainLESS bleeding, membrane rupture, fetal bradycardia (

70
Q

Random cases of poly and oligohydramnios:

A 
Poly = maternal DM, fetal anemia
Oligo = placental insufficiency
71
Q

Incidence of tumours vs mortality

A

Incidence (USA) = endometrial > ovarian > cervical

Mortality = ovarian > cervical > endometrial

72
Q

Vagina tumours (3)

A

SqCC - 2’ from cervical from HPV
Clear cell AdenoCA - from adenosis from columnar remnants, via DES
Sarcoma botryoides -

73
Q

E6 and E7

A

E6 - degrades p53

E7 - displaces TFs on Rb

74
Q

Lichen sclerosis vs lichen simplex chronicus

A

Sclerosis = thin epi, fibrosed derm, parchment, risk SqCCA

simplex chronicus = leathery from itching

75
Q

PCOS treatment

A

weight loss, spironolactone, ketoconazole, OCP, clomiphene citrate (blocks E-R @ hypo to increase LH and FSH to induce ovulation)

76
Q

Follicular vs theca-lutein cyst associations

A 
follicular = high estrogen, endometrial hyperplasia
theca-lutein = chorio-CA and H mole
77
Q

Random RF and preventative factor for ovarian tumours

A 
RF = HNPCC (also for endometrial CA)
Protective = tubal ligation
78
Q

Benign ovarian neoplasms with buzzwords

A

Serous cystadenoma - columnar
Mucinous cystadenoma - multiloculated
Endometrioma - chocolate cyst
Dermoid - 3 layers; can be struma ovarii
Brenner - urothelium, coffee bean nuclei, encapsulated tumour
Fibroma -spindle; Meigs = fibroma, ascites, hydrothorax
Thecoma - estrogen

79
Q

Malignant ovarian neoplasms with buzzwords

A

Immature teratoma - neuroectoderm
Granulosa - Estrogen/Progesterone; Call-exner bodies
Serous cystadenocarcinoma - psammoma bodies
Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma - pseudomyxomaperitonei (can also be from appendix)
Dysgerminoma - hCG and LDH
ChorioCA - hCG, early lung mets (SOB, hemoptysis)
Yolk sac - Schiller-Duvall (like glomeruli), AFP, ovaries/testies or sacrococcygeal
Krukenberg - mets, signet ring

80
Q

Leiomyoma vs adenomyosis

A 
Leio = irregularly enlarged; whorled
Adeno = uniformly enlarged; SM hypertrophy and hyperplasia around hyperplaised endometrial basal layer
81
Q

Asherman’s syndrome

A

2’ amenorhhea via stratum basale loss (i.e. D+C)

82
Q

Intraductal papilloma: where, s/s

A

lactiferous duct .: serous/bloody nipple discharge (but benign)

83
Q

FCC with sclerosing adenosis

A

calcifications

84
Q

Lactation mastitis: bug and Rx

A

s. aureus; dicloxacillin

85
Q

gynecomastic drugs:

A

Spironolactone, Digoxin, Cimetidine, Alcohol, Ketoconazole

86
Q

Triple negative breast cancer

A

Black, more aggressive

87
Q

Most important prognostic factor

A

axillary LN mets

88
Q

Comedocarcinoma

A

Type of DCIS with central necrosis

89
Q

rock hard breast mass with sharp margins, small glandular cells, stellate infiltration

A

invasive ductal CA. Most invasive, worst, MC

90
Q

Indian file

A

Invasive stromal

91
Q

Subtypes of invasive ductal:

A

Tubular
Mucinous
Inflammatory: peau d’orange, blocked dermal lymph drainage
Medullary: lymphocytic infiltrate

92
Q

Peyronie

A

fibrous plaque in tunica albuguinea (surrounds cavernosae)

93
Q

causes and rx of priapism

A 
cause = sildenafil, trazodone
rx = phenylepherine direct, manual, aspirate
94
Q

SqCell penis:

A 
Bowens = leukoplakia
Queyrat = erythroplakia (cancer of gland)
Bowenoid = CIS
95
Q

Wxtragonadal germcell tumours: location in adults and kids

A

Adults = retroperitoneum, mediastinum, pineal gland, suprasellar

Kids = sacrococcygeal teratoma

96
Q

LGV via

A

Chlamydia L1-L3

necrotizing granulomas

97
Q

fluctuant scrotal cyst

A

spermatocele

98
Q

Seminoma: who, marker

A

men in 30s (MC tumor).
ALP
Dysgerminoma = hCG and LDH]

99
Q

yolk sac: who, marker, histo

A

boys

100
Q

chorio in men s/s

A

gynecomastic and hyperthyroidism

101
Q

teratoma in men

A

mature may malignant, hCG, AFP

102
Q

embryonal CA

A

malignant, hemorhagic, necrosis, PAINFUL, usually mixed

103
Q

Lydig cell tumours

A

reinke crystals, golden brown, androgens or estrogens

104
Q

BPH lobes and zone

A

Lateral and middle LOBES
Periurethral ZONE
HyperPLASIA

105
Q

Acute vs chronic prostatitis

A 
Acute = bacterial (e. coli)
chronic = bacterial or abacterial (MC)
106
Q

Prostate Ca lobe and zone

A

Posterior LOBE

Peripheral ZONE

107
Q

Prostate CA markers and grading

A

PPAP and PSA (increase total, decrease free fraction)

Grading via Gleason = architechture (not atypia)

108
Q

Prostate CA bone mets =

A

Osteoblastic .: sclerotic lesions

Jenna's Shit List (23 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions