Shit - Cardio Flashcards

1
Q

bulbus cordis

A

smooth parts of ventricles (outflow tract)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

primitive atria/ventricles

A

trabeculated part

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

primitive pulmonary veins

A

smooth part of LA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

right horn of sinus venosus

A

smooth part of RA = sinus venarum (just incorporated into the atrium)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Left horn of sinus venosus

A

Coronary sinus: delivers deO2 blood from the heart into the RA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Right common cardinal vein and right anterior cardinal veins

A

SVC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How do you form the Membrnaous interventricular septum

A

From endocardial cushion

grows off muscular ventricular septum to join aorticopulonary septum (after it spirals)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Role of the endocardial cusions:

A

1) separate the atria from ventricles
2) Contribute to atrial septation
3) contribute to the membranous interventricular septum
4) Make all the valves (A,P,T,M)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

3 fetal shuts: name, vessels, bypasses what

A

Ductus venosus: umbilical vein into IVC; bypasses liver

Foramen ovale: RA to LA; bypasses lungs

Ductus arteriosis: deO2 SV blood from head down into RV into pulmonary artery –> jump to descending aorta; bypasses lungs. [gives less oxygenated blood to extremities]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Fate of PDA

A

Close naturally via increased O2 and decreased plaental prostaglandins

Rx to close = indomethacin (NSAID, decrease PG)

Rx to keep open = PGE1 and PGE2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Allantois (urachus) becomes:

A

Median umbilical ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Umbilical arteries become;

A

MediaL umbilical ligaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

umbilical vein becomes:

A

ligamentum teres = round ligament (within falciform)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which artery differ in supply with right and left dominant?

A

Posterior descending

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Most common coronary artery occluded

A

LAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Peak coronary flow in what part of cycle?

A

Early diastole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

most posteriro part of heart?

A

Left atrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Supply of AV and SA

A

RCA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

CO =

A

= HR x SV

= MAP/TPR

= rate of O2 consumption/(Arterial O2 - Venous O2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

MAP =

A

= CO x TPR

= 2/3 diast + 1/3 syst.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

PP =

A

= systolic - diastolic

= propotional to SV (systolic = full of blood, diastolic = empty)

= inversely proportional to arterial compliance (more compliant = more room for blood = lower systolic pressure because not pushing as hard on expanded walls, but roughly the same diastolic pressure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

SV =

EF =

A

SV = EDV - ESV

EF = EDV - ESV / EDV

EF = 55%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

If HR increases, what will give to keep up withteh HR

A

Diastole

Therefore CO decreases (problem with v. tach)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Increase in PP via:

(see head bobbing)

A

Hyperthyroidism (increases beta-adrenergic, increases systolic)

Aortic regurgitation (leak back decreases distolic; then more to shoot out increases systolic)

Aortic stiffening (isolated systolic hypertension in elderly)

Obstructive sleep apnea (􏰂sympathetic tone)

Exercise (transient)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Decrease PP in:

A

Aortic stenosis - low S

Cardiogenic shock - low S

Cardiac tamponade - S and D equalize

Advanced heart failure (HF) - low S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Acidosis on contractility:

A

decreases

(H+ into cells, K+ out, increased Na//K; decreased Na//Ca)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

ACE-I/ARB effect on preload and/or afterload

A

Decrease both:

Less AT-II on BV = vasodilation (arterial) = decreased afterload

Less aldosterone = less BV = decreased preload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Effects of systolic vs diastolic HF on EF

A

Systolic = decresed EF (<55%)

Diastolic = same EF (becasue same all relative to EDV; contractility is fine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Resistance =

A

= 8 x viscosity x length / πr^4

= P/CO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Effect of organectomy on resistance and CO

A

Total body runs in parallel (1/R + 1/R); invidivual organs run in series (R+R)

So remove an organ will INCREASE TPR.

CO = P/R

with no change in P, CO will DECREASE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Inotrophy graph

A

+ = catecholamines, digoxin

  • = uncomensated HF, Narcotic OD
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Volume/venous tone graph

A

+ = fluid infusion, SNS

  • = acute bleed, spinal anesthesia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

TPR graph

A
  • = exercise, AV shunt

+ = pressors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

S3

A

SLOSH-ing-in

During late systole, when the ventricles are relaxing and atria are passively filling them with 80% of total blood volume (y-descent)

Physiological with high BV i.e. kids, pregnancy

Pathological with mitral regurg, HF, dilated ventricles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

S4

A

a-STIFF-wall

Atrial kick

When atria contract against still ventricle to get last 20% of blood in (a-wave); i.e. ventricular hypertrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

wide splitting via:

A

Delayed right ventricle emptying, delaying pulmonary valve closure

  • RBBB
  • pulmonary stenosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Fixed splitting seen in:

why?:

A

ASD

Because left to right shunt .: always more blood in right (atrial and) ventricular system .: always takes longer to close pulmonary valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Paradoxical splitting:

Seen in:

A

When A closes after P, so when you breathe in and P closes later, they end up closing closer together paradoxically eliminating the split

(inspiration normally enhances splits)

Seen when aortic closes later:

  • LBBB
  • Aortic stenosis
  • HOCM
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Where to listen for flow murmurs (physiological)

A

Pulonary and aortic areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Aortic and pulonary regurg location:

A

left sternal boarder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy: where to listen

A

left sternal boarder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Where to hear VSD and ASD

A

Tricuspid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Aortic regurg facts:

A

Diastolic, high-pitched, Blowing, Decrescendo

Associated with: (via inc. PP)

  • Bounding (corrigan’s) pulse
  • quinke’s sign = pulsating nails
  • demuzzet’s sign = head bobbing
  • Muller’s sign = uvula pulsation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Mitral stenosis facts:

A

Diastolic

Opening snap

rumbing

rheumatic fever

decreased S2-OS = increased severity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Aortic stenosis facts

A
  • congenital, calcification, bicuspid
  • Systolic, cesc-decres
  • pulsus parvus et tardus (small and late)
  • may have S4 from hypertrophy
  • may have quiet/no S2
  • can get paradoxical splitting
  • complications = ASC (angina, syncope, CHF)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

mitral regurg

A

Holosystolic, blowing, high-pitched

radiate to axilla

via ischemia (MI), MVP, LV dilation, RHD, Endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

TR

A

High-pitched, blowing, holosystolic

loudest at tricuspic area, radiates to right sternal boarder

caused by RV dilation (also RHD or endocarditis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

VSD

A

holosystolic, harsh

tricuspid area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

PDA

A

Continuous and machine-like, loudest at S2

Hear at left infraclavicular area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Bedside maneuvers

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

SNS activity on SA and AV nodes:

A

SA = chronotropy (HR)

AV = dronotropy (conduction velocity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

high-pitched “blowing murmur”

A

Any regurg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

T inversion

A

recent MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

ST segment

A

flat = isoelectric = ventricles depolarized but not changing

Depressed = stable angina or subendocardial infarct

Elevated = pizmetal angina or transmural infarct

55
Q

U-wave

A

via hypokalemia or bradycardia

56
Q

Hyperkalemia and hypercalcemia effects on ECG

A

Both: decrease QT

HyperK+ inreases rate of repolarization (T-wave higher)

Hyper Ca++ also increases rate of repolarization somehow…

57
Q

Torsades:

A

Long QT myocytes can pass their depolarization (+ charge) off onto neigbouring cells with normal QT that are already repolarizes → normal QT cells fire again .: ventricle cells all firing at different times (disorganized) = torsades

can become v.fib when the excessive repolarizations organize into loops (re-entry circuits)

58
Q

Torsades ppt factors:

A

congenital: romero-ward, jervell and lange-nielsen - K+ ion channel defects, risk of SCD

Low K+, Mg++, Ca++

Drugs:

  • Antiarrytmics (Ia + III - K+ blockers)
  • antiBiotics (macro)
  • antiCychotics (haloperidol)
  • antiDepressants (TCA)
  • AntiEmetics (ondansetron)
59
Q

Romero-ward

A

Dominant

60
Q

Jervell and lange-neilson

A

Recessive and sensorineural deafness

61
Q

Brugada: disease and Rx

A

Adian males

AD

ST elevation in V1-V3 with pseudo-right bundle branch block

Risk of v. tachyarythmias and SCD

Rx = ICD

62
Q

Wolf-Parkinson-White

A

bundle of kent; ventricles fire early

DELTA-wave .: decreases PR, wide QRS

can lead to re-entrant circuits = SVT [accessory path repols, so if it get depolarized again from the bottom (via another part of the ventricle that is still depolarized) the signal will travel UP the bundle into the atria cause a SUPRAventricular tachycardia]

63
Q

TAPRV

A

Pulmonary veins drain into right heart

64
Q

Congenital defects NEEDING other defects to survive:

A

Tranposition of great vessels (ASD, VSD, or PFO)

Tricuspid atresia (BOTH ASD and VSD)

TAPVR (ASD, sometimes PDA too)

65
Q

Most common congenital defects: early and late cyanotic

A

Early = tetralogy

Late = VSD > ASD > PDA

66
Q

ASD stethoscope

A

loud S1, fixed wide splitting of S2

67
Q

ASD types and frequency

A

Osteum secundum = MC and isolated

Ostium primum = less common, associated with other defects i.e. in Downs

68
Q

machinelike murmur

A

PDA

69
Q

Late differential cyanosis

A

PDA (cyanosis in lower extremities)

70
Q

Eisenmenger triad

A

Late cyanosis, clubbing, polycythemia

71
Q

FAS heart:

A

ASD, VSD, PDA, Tetrallogy

72
Q

Rubella heart:

A

septal defects, PDA, pulmonary artery stenosis

73
Q

Diabetic mom, fetal heart

A

Transposition of great vessels

74
Q

Marfans heart

A

MVP, cystic medial degeneration (thoaric AA and disection), aortic regurg

75
Q

Prenatal lithium

A

Ebstein anomaly: low tricuspid with small RV

76
Q

williams syndrome heart

A

supravalvular aortic stenosis

77
Q

HTN in young woman: name and histo

A

Fibromuscular dysplasia of renal artery; string of beads

78
Q

corneal arcus

A

lipids in cornea

old = arcus sinilis

young = hyperlipidemia

79
Q

Smooth muscle migration signals in AS

A

PDGF, FGF

80
Q

AS most common in what arteries (descending order)

A

Abdominal aorta > coronaries > popliteal/femoral > carotids > vertebrals

81
Q

Abdominal vs throracic aortic aneurism risk factors:

A

abdominal = AS

thoracic = HTN, bicuspid aortic, CT disease, 3’ syphylis/temporal arteritis/takayasu

82
Q

Unequal BP in arms with mediastinal widening =

A

aortic disection

83
Q

ST depression can mean:

A

Stable angina

Unstable angina (with T inversion)

MI (NSTEMI, subendocardial, with biomarkers)

84
Q

ST elevation can mean:

A

Prizmetal angina (transient)

MI (STEMI, transmural, with cardiac markers)

85
Q

Prizmetal triggers

A

Tobacco, cocaine, triptans, ergots

86
Q

MC arteries in MI

A

LAD > RCA > L circumflex

87
Q

Complications post-MI by time:

0-4h; 4-24h, 1-3d, 3-14d, 2w+

A

0-4h = arrythmyas, HF, cardiogenic shock

4-24h = arrythmyas, HF, cardiogenic shock

1-3d = postinfarcting fibrinous pericarditis (frictoin rub)

3-14d = ruptures: tamponade, MR, VSD. pseudoaneurism via contained free-wall rupture

2+ weeks = real aneurism, Dresslers

88
Q

contraction band: time and why

A

4-24h post-MI, via reperfusion injury

89
Q

STEMI ECG

A
90
Q

abnormal heart sounds in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A

S4

Systolic murmur (i.e. mitral regurg because can’t close)

91
Q

causes of restrictive/infiltrative cardiomyopathy; ECG

A

sarcoidosis, amyloidosis, hemochomatosis, Loefflers (endomyocardial with eosinophils), endocardio fibroelastosis (young kids)

Diastolic dysfunction, low voltage ECG despite thick mycardium

92
Q

Drugs that decrease mortality in HF:

A

ACE-I, ARB, b-blockers, spironolactone, hydralazine (also improves s/s)

93
Q

bernheim and reverse berhheim

A

bernheim = LVF → LV enlargement → pushing into RV → obstructs flow → RHF s/s (liver, JVP, edema) but NO pulmonary edema

reverse bernheim = RVF pushing on LV

94
Q

strep viridans endocarditis:

A

subacute

abnormal/diseased valves

dental procedures

95
Q

Valve type and endocarditis:

  • normal
  • damaged
  • prosthetic
  • colon cancer
A

normal = s. aureus

damaged = s. viridans (mutans, sanguis)

prosthetic = s. epidermidis

colon cancer = s. bovis

96
Q

ECG of acute pericarditis + causes

A

Wide and elevated S-T and/or PR depression

Causes = idiopathic, infection, radiation, autoimmune, uremia, CV (acute STEMI or dressler), neoplasia

97
Q

Myxoma vs rhabdomyoma

A

Myxoma = LA, obstruct mitral, diastolic “tumour plop”, ground substance

Rhabdomyomas = ventricles, kids, with tuberous sclerosis

98
Q

Kussmal sign: what and causes

A

Inspiration doesnt transmit to heart, so JVP

Constrictive pericarditis, restrictive cardiomyopathies, right-sided heart tumours

99
Q

R-R of 5 little ECG boxes =

A

60bpm (0.2)

100
Q

rate vs rhythm

A

rate = SA/AV Rhythm = myocardial AP

101
Q

Arrythmya of binge drinking

A

A fib

102
Q

Arrythmia of hyperthyroidism

A

a fib

103
Q

Sawtooth arrythmya

A

A flutter

104
Q

Completely erratic arrhythmia; fate

A

V fib. Death without CPR and defibrillation

105
Q

A fib vs. a flutter Rx

A

A fib = antithombotic, rate, rhythm, cardioversion. A flutter = catheter ablation

106
Q

constant but prolonged P-R

A

1st degree block

107
Q

Regularly irregular

A

2nd degree, Mobitz I/Wenchebach

108
Q

Random dropped beats (no warning)

A

2nd degree, Mobitz II. Need pacemaker

109
Q

No link between atria and ventricles

A

3rd degree block

110
Q

Micro cause of 3rd degree block

A

Lyme

111
Q

Baro-R affect 4 things:

A

Contractility, HR, VC, BP

112
Q

Cushing reaction

A

Triad: respiratory depression, bradycardia, hypertension

all via increased ICP

113
Q

PCWP =

A

LAP

114
Q

PCWP > LV diastolic P

A

Mitral stenosis

115
Q

Irregularly irregular

A

a fib, no discrete (lose) P-waves

116
Q

A fib causes:

A

binge drinking, hypertension, CAD, RHD, HF, valve disease, hyperthyroidism

117
Q

R-R of 5 little ECG boxes =

A

60bpm (0.2)

118
Q

rate vs rhythm

A

rate = SA/AV Rhythm = myocardial AP

119
Q

Arrythmya of binge drinking

A

A fib

120
Q

Arrythmia of hyperthyroidism

A

a fib

121
Q

Sawtooth arrythmya

A

A flutter

122
Q

Completely erratic arrhythmia; fate

A

V fib. Death without CPR and defibrillation

123
Q

A fib vs. a flutter Rx

A

A fib = antithombotic, rate, rhythm, cardioversion. A flutter = catheter ablation

124
Q

constant but prolonged P-R

A

1st degree block

125
Q

Regularly irregular

A

2nd degree, Mobitz I/Wenchebach

126
Q

Random dropped beats (no warning)

A

2nd degree, Mobitz II. Need pacemaker

127
Q

No link between atria and ventricles

A

3rd degree block

128
Q

Micro cause of 3rd degree block

A

Lyme

129
Q

Baro-R affect 4 things:

A

Contractility, HR, VC, BP

130
Q

Cushing reaction

A

Triad: hypertension, bradycardia, respiratory depression

131
Q

PCWP =

A

LAP

132
Q

PCWP > LV diastolic P

A

Mitral stenosis

133
Q

Irregularly irregular

A

a fib, no discrete (lose) P-waves

134
Q

A fib causes:

A

binge drinking, hypertension, CAD, RHD, HF, valve disease, hyperthyroidism