Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Yale Residency - "Other" Species and Clin Path/Mol Bio > sheep, goats, and cattle II > Flashcards

sheep, goats, and cattle II Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Other names for Bacillus anthracis

A

”Woolsorter’s disease”, “splenic fever”, “charbon”, “milzbrand”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

C/S of anthrax

A

hyperthermia, anorexia, depression, listlessness, tremors, peracute deaths and hemorrhage
Bloody secretions in urine, feces, milk
Usually fatal within 1-3 days, esp in sheep and goats, but subacute/chronic state may occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

C/S of brucellosis in sheep

A

B. melitensis in ewes: usually self-limiting; 3rd trimester abortions
B. melitensis in rams: orchitis or pneumonia
B. ovis in sheep: epididymitis, testicular atrophy; rarely, abortion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

C/S of brucellosis in goats

A

B. melitensis: 3rd trimester abortions; systemic disease can occur
B. abortus: rare, but can be transmitted if in close contact with cattle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

C/S of brucellosis in cattle

A

B. abortus: abortions with retained placenta after the 5th month; orchitis, epididymitis; lameness may occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Why are ruminants particularly susceptible to brucellosis

A

Higher levels of erythritol (sugar alcohol), esp in placenta and male genitalia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which brucella spp are zoonotic?

A

B. abortus and B. melitensis (not B ovis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Most important cause of ovine abortion in the US

A

Campylobacter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Dx of campy

A

Gull wing rods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

C/S of Clostridium perfringens

A

Diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

C. perfringens releases what type of toxin

A

Epsilon toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are pathognomonic in acute cases of C. perfringens type D?

A

Hyperglycemia and glucosuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Pathogenesis of C. perfringens

A

epsilon toxin causes neuronal death and shock through vascular damage and increasing gut permeability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Lesions of C. perfringens

A

subendocardial hemorrhage, pericardial effusion, plus extremely necrotic, soft kidneys (not always); goats tend to have more GI lesions rather than systemic (like sheep)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Pathogenesis of tetanus

A

exotoxin is a multiunit protein consisting of tetanospasmin (neurotoxic) and tetanolysin (hemolytic)
Toxin diffuses retrograde through motor neurons; inhibits release of glycine and GABA (blocks inhibitory neurons)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which two organisms cause foot rot

A

Dichelobacter nodosus, Fusobacterium necrophorum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

3 forms of Listeria in ruminants

A
  1. Encephalitis – most common form in ruminants
    Can affect cranial nerves
    Rapid death often occurs
  2. Placentitis with abortion – usually results in late-gestation abortion; adult female may be asymptomatic
  3. Septicemia with hepatitis and pneumonia – may occur in neonatal lambs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Lesions in Listeriosis

A

microabscesses of midbrain are characteristic with encephalitic form
Septicemic form: microabscesses throughout viscera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which Mycobacterium spp do sheep, goats, and cattle get?

A

Cattle TB: M. bovis
Sheep TB: M. bovis or M. avium
Goat TB: M. bovis, M. avium, or M. tuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

c/s of mycobacteriosis

A

primary sites of infection are respiratory (M. bovis) or GI (M. avium) systems; weight loss is common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Q fever c/s

A

usually asymptomatic in ruminants; abortion, stillbirth, endometritis, mastitis, infertility and weak lambs can occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Transmission of Q fever

A

very stable in the environment; free-living or arthropod cycle; especially concentrated in placental tissues; shed in milk, urine, feces, and oronasal secretions
Multiple spp of ticks are reservoirs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Zoonotic transmission of Q fever

A

Most common mode of transmission in humans is inhalation of infectious aerosols directly from birth fluids of infected animals or via inhalation of dust contaminated with dried birth fluids or excreta
Greatest concern in pregnant and immune-compromised humans
A single organism can cause disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What kind of virus is Jaagsiekte (pulmonary adenomatosis)

A

RNA retrovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Lesions found in Jaagsiekte

A

small adenomas/adenocarcinomas throughout the lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Pathogenesis of Jaagsiekte

A

histologic changes caused by uncontrolled proliferation of type II pneumonocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Another name for Ovine Progressive Pneumonia (OPP), what kind of virus

A

RNA retrovirus. Maedi Visna

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Lesions and c/s of Maedi Visna

A

pulmonary adhesions, ventral lung consolidation; mastitis; degenerative arthritis; meningeal edema, leukoencephalomalacia

weak, unthrifty, weight loss, dyspnea, tachypnea, pneumonia; ataxia, tremors, paresis; mastitis common

29
Q

Most important viral dz of goats

A

CAE (Caprine arthritis encephalitis virus)

30
Q

What kind of virus is CAEV

A

retrovirus

31
Q

C/S of CAE

A

Most commonly: progressive arthritis in goats > 6 months old- swollen, painful carpal joints; pneumonia may occur in older animals; “hard udder” syndrome
Also causes neuro signs in kids 2-6 months old: unilateral weakness progressing to hemi- or tetraplegia (lower motor neuron disease); head tilt, blindness

32
Q

Lesions of CAE

A

severe synovial hyperplasia with inflammatory cell infiltration; demyelination and inflammation in brain/spinal cord; lungs gray and do not collapse

33
Q

What kind of virus causes Pseudorabies

A

Suid herpesvirus-1

34
Q

C/S pseudorabies

A

: rapid course, usually fatal
Intense pruritis, alopecia, swelling, abrasions
Neurological signs: stamping, head-pressing, circling, CP deficits, nystagmus, strabismus, progresses to coma and death

35
Q

Is pseudorabies reportable?

A

Yes

36
Q

What virus causes Orf?

A

Poxvirus

37
Q

Orf is most commonly seen where?

A

Commissures of mouth

38
Q

How to prevent BSE

A

Don’t feed ruminant protein to ruminants

39
Q

Which breed of sheep is esp susceptible to scrapie?

A

Suffolk

40
Q

BSE c/s

A

hyperesthesia, nervousness, difficulty negotiating obstacles, reluctance to be milked, ataxia, and tremors, weight loss, decreased milk production; terminal state by 3 months after onset

41
Q

Which animals most affected by Crypto

A

Young calves

42
Q

Most important intestinal parasite of small ruminants

A

Haemonchus

43
Q

C/S of Haemonchus infection

A

anemia, weight loss, decreased milk production, poor wool growth, “bottle jaw” due to hypoproteinemia

44
Q

When does shedding of Haemonchus increase?

A

During parturition (spring rise)

45
Q

PPP for esophagostomum

A

6 weeks

46
Q

c/s of esophagostomum infection

A

Penetrate large intestinal mucosa, occasionally deeper areas near serosa
Inflammation results in caseous nodules that eventually mineralize

47
Q

3 types of lungworms

A

Dictyocaulus, Protostrongylus, Muellerius

48
Q

Which lungworm has a direct life cycle?

A

Dictyocaulus

49
Q

Which lungworm has an indirect life cycle?

A

Protostrongylus, Muellarius (require snail intermediate host)

50
Q

Which is the only lungworm in cattle?

A

Dictyocaulus

51
Q

Which cestode has triangular eggs

A

Monensia

52
Q

Fringed tapeworm

A

Thysanoma actinoides

53
Q

Which louse is intermediate host of Thysanoma?

A

Psocid louse

54
Q

Cysticercosis occurs due to larval form of which worm?

A

Dog tapeworm (taenia hydatigena and echinococcus granulosis)

55
Q

Intermediate host of trematodes

A

Snails

56
Q

Which mites are reportable? (3)

A

Sarcoptes, Psoroptes, Psorergates

57
Q

Which 2 lice can affect ruminants?

A

Mallophagia, Anaplura

58
Q

2 ticks seen in ruminants

A

Ixodidae (hard shell), Argasidae (soft shell)

59
Q

Nasal bots are caused by which organism

A

Oestrus ovis

60
Q

Screwworm g/s

A

Cochliomyia hominivorax

61
Q

Sheep ked g/s

A

Melophagus ovinus

62
Q

B-mannosidosis of goats manifests how?

A

Carpal flexion and pastern hyperextension; deafness with many musculoskeletal deformities

63
Q

What is spider leg syndrome, and in which sheep breeds do you see it?

A

Hereditary chondrodysplasia, primarily in Suffolk and Hampshires

64
Q

Which side is abomasum most commonly displaced?

A

L

65
Q

What is frothy bloat caused by?

A

ingestion of green legumes and leguminous hay or grain

66
Q

What does copper deficiency in pregnant ewes cause?

A

Enzootic ataxia

67
Q

What copper toxicity cause?

A

Acute hemolytic anemia

68
Q

What does thiamin deficiency cuase?

A

Polioencephalomalacia

Yale Residency - "Other" Species and Clin Path/Mol Bio (20 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions