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3) Mammalian Physiology > Set 6 (Part I) > Flashcards

Set 6 (Part I) Flashcards

1
Q

What is the function of blood vessels?

A

Contain the blood

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2
Q

Why do we need blood?

A

For the transport of gas, nutrients, waste, cytokines, clotting factors, hormones, etc.

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3
Q

What is an angioplasty?

A

Opens blocked arteries and restores normal blood flow to your heart muscle

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4
Q

What are the three types of proteins found in the blood?

A
  • Albumins (58%)
  • Globulins (38%)
  • Fibrinogen (4%)
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5
Q

What are the two major components of blood and what percentage do they form?

A
  • Plasma (55%)

- Formed elements (45%)

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6
Q

What are the components of plasma and their percentages?

A
  • Proteins (6%)
  • Water (92%)
  • Other solutes (2%): ions, nutrients, waste products, gases
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7
Q

What are the components of the buffy coat?

A
  • Platelets

- Leukocytes

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8
Q

What factors may alter the composition of blood?

A
  • Disease
  • Drug use
  • Altitude
  • Hormonal status
  • Exercise status
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9
Q

What is oncotic pressure?

A

Force that is pulling the fluid back in at the tissue level

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10
Q

What plasma proteins does the liver produce?

A
  • Albumins
  • Globulins
  • Fibrinogen
  • Transferrin
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11
Q

What other tissue (apart from the liver) produces globulins?

A

Lymphoid tissue

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12
Q

What is the function of albumins?

A
  • Major contributors to colloid osmotic pressure of plasma

- Carriers for various substances

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13
Q

What is the function of globins?

A
  • Clotting factors
  • Enzymes
  • Antibodies
  • Carriers for various substances
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14
Q

What is the function of fibrinogen?

A

Forms fibrin threads essential to blood clotting

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15
Q

What is the function of transferrin?

A

Iron transport

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16
Q

Why is osmotic pressure necessary?

A
  • If all of the fluid gets filtered out, the tissues are going to be absolutely overloaded with fluid
  • Thus, a driving force pulling the fluid back in is necessary
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17
Q

What force pushes fluid out? What force pulls fluid in?

A
  • Hydrostatic: pushes out

- Osmotic: pulls in

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18
Q

How do albumins relate to osmotic pressure?

A

Plasma proteins, such as albumins, are a huge driving force to pull fluid back into the blood vessel

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19
Q

What is the structure of RBCs? What creates this structure?

A
  • Biconcave disk shape

- The cytoskeleton creates a unique shape

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20
Q

What are the two functions of RBCs structure?

A
  • Flexible to ease transportation

- Also, increases surface area to allow for maximum oxygen transport

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21
Q

What cytoskeletal protein is partially responsible for the elastic strength under deformation of RBCs? What does it bind to?

A
  • Spectrin

- Binds to the cytosolic side of the membrane protein

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22
Q

What is the structure of each spectrin molecule?

A

Consists of two intertwined polypeptide chains

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23
Q

What is the size of RBCs?

A

7.5 um

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24
Q

Packed within each RBC are approximately how many molecules of hemoglobin?

A

200 to 300 million

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25
Q

What is hemoglobin composed of?

A
  • Four protein chains (globins)
  • Each globin has a heme group
  • Each heme contains one iron
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26
Q

How many iron molecules are found per one molecule of hemoglobin?

A

4

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27
Q

What gives RBCs its red colour?

A

Heme/iron

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28
Q

Why can RBCs bind to carbon dioxide?

A

Globulin makes this reaction possible

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29
Q

What does hemoglobin synthesis require?

A

Iron

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30
Q

How long does the maturation process of RBCs take?

A

4 days

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31
Q

All blood cells are derived from what?

A

Hematopoietic stem cells (hemocytoblast)

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32
Q

What does differentiation of RBCs begin with?

A

The appearance of proerythroblasts

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33
Q

The mitotic divisions of proerythroblasts produce what?

A

Basophilic erythroblasts

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34
Q

What is created from basophilic erythroblasts?

A

Polychromatic erythroblasts, which produce hemoglobin

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35
Q

Are RBCs synthesized with nuclei, or without?

A

They are synthesized with nuclei, but lose their nuclei to become reticulocytes

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36
Q

How do RBCs mature following differentiation?

A

Once released into the blood within 24 to 36 hours

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37
Q

Where does erythropoiesis occur?

A

In the bone marrow

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38
Q

What are platelets? What do they arise from?

A
  • They are not cells of their own, but cellular FRAGMENTS

- They arise from the megakaryocyte

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39
Q

What do all of the formed elements arise from?

A

Stem cells, which mature upon entering circulation

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40
Q

What may negatively affect bone marrow function? Why?

A
  • Bone marrow depression drugs
  • Radiation therapy
  • Since these therapies target DIVIDING cells, making stem cells susceptible
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41
Q

What is aplastic anemia?

A

Reduction in the production of RBCs

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42
Q

What is leukopenia? What is the major consequence?

A
  • Reduction of WBCs

- Leaves a person open to many infections

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43
Q

What is thrombocytopenia? What is the major consequence?

A
  • Reduction in the production of platelets

- Leaves a person at high risk for a hemorrhage

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44
Q

What is erythropoiesis?

A

Formation of red blood cells

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45
Q

How is erythropoiesis stimulated?

A
  • In response to low oxygen levels, the kidneys release erythropoietin (glycoprotein)
  • Stimulates bone marrow to accelerate its production of RBCs
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46
Q

Why would athletes train at higher altitudes?

A
  • Less oxygen available, which stimulates erythropoiesis

- More RBCs = more oxygen delivered to tissues

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47
Q

How long do RBCs last? What must occur afterwards?

A
  • Live for around 120 days

- Must be replaced and dismantled into components

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48
Q

What first occurs in the destruction of RBCs?

A

Macrophage cells in the liver and spleen phagocytose the aged, abnormal, or fragmented RBCs

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49
Q

What does the phagocytosis of RBCs result in?

A

The breakdown of hemoglobin, with the release of amino acids, iron, and bilirubin (excreted as bile)

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50
Q

What happens to iron from RBC destruction?

A

Returned to the bone marrow for synthesis of new hemoglobin

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51
Q

What happens to bilirubin from RBC destruction?

A

Transported to the liver, where it is excreted into the intestine as part of bile

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52
Q

What happens to amino acids from RBC destruction?

A

Used for energy or the synthesis of new proteins

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53
Q

What is iron transported by in the plasma?

A

Transferrin

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54
Q

What organ stores excess iron? As what?

A
  • Liver

- Ferritin

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55
Q

What is packed cell volume (PCV)?

A

The percent of RBC

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56
Q

What is the normal hematocrit for men and women?

A
  • Men: 45% RBCs

- Women: 42% RBCs

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57
Q

Differentiate anemia and polycythemia?

A
  • Anemia: reduced PCV

- Polycythemia: increased PCV

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58
Q

What percentage of the blood volume does WBCs and platelets make up?

A

1%

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59
Q

How do you recognize a neutrophil under a microscope?

A

Much larger than RBCs and have a multi-lobed nucleus

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60
Q

How do iron deficient RBCs compare to normal?

A

Iron deficient RBCs are not well filled with hemoglobin and are not uniform in size

61
Q

What are the three granulocytes?

A
  • Basophils
  • Neutrophils
  • Eosinophils
62
Q

What is the difference between granulocytes and agranulocytes?

A
  • Granulocytes have VISIBLE granules

- Agranulocytes also have granules, but they’re less visible

63
Q

Which WBC makes up the largest portion of the leukocyte count?

A

Neutrophils (65%)

64
Q

What is the function of neutrophils?

A
  • Highly mobile
  • Very active phagocytic cells
  • Capable of diapedesis
  • Contain lysosomes
65
Q

Which cells are capable of diapedesis? What is it?

A
  • Neutrophils and basophils

- Migrate out of the blood vessel and enter tissues

66
Q

What are lysosomes important for?

A

Destruction of bacterial cells

67
Q

Where are eosinophils largely found?

A

Numerous in lining of respiratory and digestive tracks

68
Q

Which granulocyte is a weak phagocyte?

A

Eosinophils

69
Q

What are the functions of eosinophils?

A
  • Provide protection against infections caused by parasitic worms
  • Release inflammatory substances in allergic reactions
70
Q

What are the functions of basophils?

A
  • Motile and capable of diapedesis

- Granules contain histamine (inflammatory) and heparin (anticoagulant)

71
Q

What are the two agranulocytes?

A
  • Lymphocytes

- Monocytes

72
Q

Lymphocytes have little _______.

A

cytoplasm

73
Q

Which WBC type is the smallest?

A

Lymphocytes

74
Q

Where are B-cells and T-cells produced and mature?

A
  • B-cells are produced and mature in the bone marrow

- T-cells are produced in the bone marrow, but mature in the thymus

75
Q

What are the three types of lymphocytes?

A
  • T-cells
  • B-cells
  • NK cells
76
Q

What is the primary function of T-cells?

A

Directly attack an infected or cancerous cell

77
Q

What is the primary function of B-cells?

A

Produce antibodies against specific antigens

78
Q

Which WBC is the largest?

A

Monocytes

79
Q

What are the functions of monocytes? What are they?

A
  • Mobile and highly phagocytic
  • Ingests bacteria and cancerous cells
  • Monocytes are the inactive form of macrophages, which mature once they arrive to their tissues
80
Q

What are platelets also called?

A

Thrombocytes

81
Q

What do platelets look like in circulation?

A

Small, pale bodies that appear as irregular spindles or oval disks

82
Q

What are the three important properties of platelets?

A
  • Agglutination
  • Adhesiveness
  • Aggregation
83
Q

What are the two major functions of platelets?

A
  • Hemostasis

- Blood coagulation

84
Q

What is hemostasis?

A

Stoppage of blood flow

85
Q

How does blood-clotting relate to hemostasis?

A

If the injury is extensive, blood-clotting mechanism is activated to assist hemostasis

86
Q

What are megakaryocytes?

A
  • Giant cells with multiple copies of DNA in the nucleus

- The edges break off to form cell fragments (platelets)

87
Q

Describe platelet plug formation.

A
  1. Exposed collagen binds and activates platelets
  2. Release of platelet factors
  3. Factors attract more platelets (positive feedback)
  4. Platelets aggregate into a platelet plug
88
Q

What is the first thing that occurs when there is damage to a tissue?

A

Vasospasm (vasoconstriction) reduces the diameter of the blood vessel

89
Q

Describe the blood-clotting mechanism.

A
  1. Release of clotting factors from both injured tissue cells and sticky platelets at the injury site (temporary platelet plug)
  2. Formation of thrombin
  3. Formation of fibrin, which raps blood cells to form a clot
90
Q

What is responsible for converting fibrinogen to fibrin?

A

Thrombin

91
Q

Which mineral is required for blood clotting mechanisms?

A

Calcium

92
Q

What is temporary hemostasis?

A

Platelets aggregate into loose platelet plug

93
Q

What is the ABO system based on?

A

Named according to cell-surface antigens present on RBC membranes

94
Q

Which RBC antigens does type O contain? Which antibodies?What can it receive? What can it donate?

A
  • Antigens: none
  • Antibodies: anti-A and anti-B
  • Universal donor
  • Can only receive from O
95
Q

Which RBC antigens does type A contain? Which antibodies? What can it receive? What can it donate?

A
  • Antigen: A
  • Antibody: anti-B
  • Receives from O or A
  • Can donate to type A or AB
96
Q

Which RBC antigens does type B contain? Which antibodies? What can it receive? What can it donate?

A
  • Antigen: B
  • Antibody: anti-A
  • Receives from O or B
  • Can donate to type B or AB
97
Q

Which RBC antigens does type AB contain? Which antibodies? What can it receive? What can it donate?

A
  • Antigens: A and B
  • Antibody: none
  • Universal recipient
  • Can only donate to AB
98
Q

What is the universal donor (including Rh system)?

A

O negative

99
Q

What is the universal acceptor (including Rh system)?

A

AB positive

100
Q

What does the term Rh-positive blood mean?

A

Rh antigen is present on RBCs

101
Q

When are anti-Rh antibodies solicited?

A
  • They are NOT normally present in the blood

- Appear in Rh-negative blood only if it has come in contact with Rh-positive RBCs

102
Q

How may Rh-negative blood come in contact with Rh-positive RBCs?

A
  • Transfusion

- Pregnancy

103
Q

What explains hemolytic disease of a newborn?

A
  • Rh negative women has Rh positive fetus (second pregnancy)
  • If not treated, the Rh positive blood cells enter the mother’s bloodstream at delivery
  • If not treated, the mother’s body will produce anti-Rh
  • Anti-Rh causes agglutination of RBCs in the fetus (fatal)
104
Q

How do you prevent a Rh negative mother from hemolytic disease of a newborn?

A

Suppressive drug RhoGAM, which stops mother’s body from making antibodies to Rh

105
Q 
Which group of leukocytes is the most common in a blood sample from a healthy human?
A) Neutrophils
B) Monocytes
C) Lymphocytes
D) Eosinophils
E) Basophils
A

A) Neutrophils

106
Q 
Which blood components have no nucleus?
A) Macrophages
B) Red blood cells
C) Platelets
D) Two of the above
E) All of the above
A

D) Platelets and RBCs

107
Q 
The percentage of the volume of whole blood occupied by RBCs is called the \_\_\_\_\_.
A) Differential
B) Hematocrit
C) Packed cell volume
D) Mean corpuscular volume
A

B) Hematocrit

C) Packed cell volume

108
Q 
Normally, whole blood is about \_\_\_% cells and \_\_\_\_% plasma. 
A) 25; 75
B) 30; 70
C) 45; 55
D) 60; 40
E) 65; 35
A

C) 45; 55

109
Q 
The end product of the coagulation cascade is \_\_\_\_\_.
A) Activated platelets
B) Repair of the blood vessel wall
C) Fibrin polymers
D) Thrombin
E) Heparin
A

C) Fibrin polymers

110
Q 
Which of the following is NOT a protein?
A) Prostacyclin
B) Plasmin
C) Plasminogen
D) Fibrin
A

A) Prostacyclin

111
Q 
Blood cells are produced in the \_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) Spleen
B) Liver
C) Bone marrow
D) Kidneys
E) Vascular epithelium of blood vessels
A

C) Bone marrow

112
Q 
The term for the production of blood cells is \_\_\_\_\_.
A) Hemostasis
B) Hemorrhage
C) Coagulation
D) Erythropoiesis
E) Hematopoiesis
A

E) Hematopoiesis

113
Q 
A pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell can generate any of the following cell types EXCEPT \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) Erythrocyte
B) Reticulocyte
C) Fibroblast
D) Basophil
E) Neutrophil
A

C) Fibroblast

114
Q 
An athlete using EPO (erythropoietin) is hoping to generate an increase in \_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) RBCs
B) WBCs
C) Platelets
D) Blood volume
E) Blood pressure
A

A) RBCs

115
Q

How does plasma differ from interstitial fluid?

A

The presence of plasma proteins

116
Q

How does the osmotic pressure of blood compare to that of interstitial fluid?

A
  • Osmotic pressure of the blood is higher than interstitial fluid
  • Due to the presence of plasma proteins in the blood
117
Q

Are platelets nucleated or enucleated?

A

They are enucleated cell fragments that split off from a megakaryocyte

118
Q

What are tissue basophils called?

A

Mast cells

119
Q

What are tissue monocytes called?

A

Macrophages

120
Q

Why do we say that erythrocytes and platelets are not fully functional cells?

A

Because they lack a nucleus, which means that they cannot carry-out protein synthesis

121
Q

Explain why patients with liver degeneration frequently suffer from edema.

A
  • Liver degeneration reduces the total plasma protein concentrations
  • Reduces the osmotic pressure in the capillaries
  • Decrease in osmotic pressure increases net capillary filtration
  • Results in edema
122
Q

What is the precursor of all blood cells?

A

Pluripotent hematopoietic stem cell (bone marrow)

123
Q

What does thrombopoietin influence? Where is it produced?

A
  • Primarily produced in the liver

- Influences growth/differentiation of megakaryocytes

124
Q

What does hypoxia (low oxygen levels in tissues) stimulate?

A
  • The synthesis and release of erythropoietin

- EPO stimulates the synthesis of RBCs, which puts more hemoglobin into the circulation to carry oxygen

125
Q

Why is EPO technically a cytokine, and not a hormone?

A

Because it is made on demand, and not stored in vesicles

126
Q

What is the primary source of ATP of RBCs? Why?

A
  • Glycolysis

- Because they contain no mitochondria

127
Q

What makes older RBCs more fragile?

A
  • They do not contain a nucleus or an ER to carry out protein synthesis
  • They cannot renew membrane components or enzymes
128
Q

RBCs live about ____ days in the blood.

A

120 days

129
Q

What is the function of the spleen in terms of RBCs?

A

Destroys old RBCs and converts hemoglobin to bilirubin

130
Q

What contributes to the yellow color of urine?

A

Bilirubin

131
Q

What causes jaundice?

A

Accumulation of bilirubin levels in the blood

132
Q

Distinguish between heme and hemoglobin.

A

Heme is an iron-containing subunit of a hemoglobin molecule

133
Q

Distinguish between ferritin and transferrin.

A
  • Ferritin is the liver protein that stores iron

- Transferrin is the plasma protein that transports iron in the blood

134
Q

Is bile an endocrine secretion or an exocrine secretion?

A

Bile is an exocrine secretion because it is secreted into the intestine

135
Q

What is anemia?

A
  • Hemoglobin content is too low

- The blood cannot transport oxygen to the tissues

136
Q

What clinical markers do individuals with iron-deficiency anemia have?

A
  • Low red blood cell count (low hematocrit)
  • Or, low hemoglobin content in their blood
  • Microcytic and hypochromic cells
137
Q

How could diarrhea cause a temporarily elevated hematocrit?

A
  • Diarrhea causes dehydration, which is a loss of fluid volume
  • If plasma volume decreases (and RBC is unchanged), the hematocrit increases
138
Q

What does the cytoplasm of platelets contain?

A
  • Mitochondria
  • Smooth ER
  • Numerous granules that are filled with cytokines and growth factors
139
Q

What is the typical life span of platelets?

A

10 days

140
Q

Define hemostasis.

A

The process of keeping blood within a damaged blood vessel

141
Q

What are the three major steps of hemostasis?

A

1) Vasoconstriction
2) Temporary blockage of a break by a platelet plug
3) Coagulation (formation of a clot that seals the hole)

142
Q

What activates platelets when a blood vessel wall is first damaged?

A

Exposed collagen and chemicals from endothelial cells

143
Q

How do platelets adhere to collagen?

A

With the help of integrins

144
Q

What prevents the platelet plug from continuing to form and spread beyond the site of injury to other areas of the vessel wall?

A
  • Platelets do not adhere to normal endothelium
  • Intact vascular endothelial cells convert their membrane lipids into prostacyclin, which blocks platelet adhesion and aggregation
145
Q

What two mechanisms limit the extent of blood clotting within a vessel?

A

1) Inhibition of platelet adhesion

2) Inhibition of the coagulation cascade and fibrin production

146
Q

The enzyme plasmin __________.

A) can damage blood vessels by eroding endothelial cells
B) produces fibrin
C) is trapped within the platelet plug as it is formed
D) is trapped within the platelet plug as it is formed, causing fibrinolysis, thereby slowly dissolving the clot

A

D) is trapped within the platelet plug as it is formed, causing fibrinolysis, thereby slowly dissolving the clot

147
Q

What prevents platelet adhesion in intact endothelium?

A

The release of prostacyclin and nitric oxide

148
Q

The coagulation pathway that is initiated with the appearance of tissue factor is the __________ pathway.

A) thrombin
B) common
C) intrinsic
D) extrinsic

A

D) extrinsic

3) Mammalian Physiology (24 decks)

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